General Topic Flashcards

1
Q

When data is highly skewed, what measure of central tendency is used?

A

Median

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2
Q

What is standard error?

A

Refers to the likelihood that the mean and standard deviation of a specific sample of participants reflect the mean and standard deviation of the full population of potential participants
Computed by dividing the standard deviation by the square root of the sample size

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3
Q

What is interquartile range?

A

Distance between the 25th and 75th% tiles

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4
Q

What is a categorical variable and how should you analyze it?

A

Variable made of categories that cannot be quantified like blood type
Should be analyzed with non-parametrics statistics

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5
Q

What is a continuous variable and how should it be analyzed?

A

A variable that gives a score for each subject in a sample and can take on any value on a measurement scale like blood pressure
Should be analyzed with parametric statistics

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6
Q

What is an ordinal variable?

A

A variable that is recorded on an interval scale from highest to lowest, but does not involve the use of the numerical relationship between the numbers like when a patient rates their pain on a scale of one to 10

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7
Q

What is a parametric test?

A

Assumes that the data is normally distributed

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8
Q

What is a non-parametric test

A

Assumes that #DATA is not normal distribution and is typically more stringent

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9
Q

What is the P value?

A

The probability of the observed result or something more extreme under the no hypothesis, also known as the probability that any particular outcome would have occurred by chance

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10
Q

What is a confidence interval?

A

Range of values around the sample mean within which a researcher can be certain usually about 95% and it contains the true meaning of the population

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11
Q

What types of analysis to use when both variables are continuous meaning something like blood pressure?

A

Regression and correlation

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12
Q

What is the regression analysis?

A

Whether you can predict the value of one variable, which is the dependent variable from the value of another variable, the independent variable
Like a patient’s cholesterol level from the number of years here she has been smoking

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13
Q

What does beta mean when it is reported with regression results?

A

That is the value by which the independent variable must be multiplied to determine the value of the dependent variable

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14
Q

What type of test can you run when one variable is categorical and one is continuous?

A

T test and a nova

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15
Q

What is a t test?

A

Examining whether two groups of participants differ on a variable so comparing findings between a control group and an experimental group

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16
Q

What does a nova involve?

A

Examining whether two or more groups differ significantly on a variable and it is used when you have more than one experimental group

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17
Q

What is an omnibus F test?

A

Tells you, whether there is an overall difference between your groups

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18
Q

Wilcoxon signed ranks test

A

This test functions as a tea test for ordinal variables, examining whether the control group and the experimental group would differ in Payne rat

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19
Q

What is a Pearson chi Square test

A

Hypothesis test, which may be performed on contingency tables and is used to discover if there is a relationship between two categorical variables

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20
Q

Type one error

A

Probability of falsely rejecting the null hypothesis

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21
Q

Type two error

A

Probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when they’re really is a difference

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22
Q

Power of the study

A

The statistical likelihood that our researcher will find a significant effect that exists based on the sample size and number of variables

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23
Q

Level one evidence

A

Randomized control trials or systematic reviews

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24
Q

Level two evidence

A

Lesser quality, randomized, clinical trials or a cohort study or systematic review of such studies

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25
Q

Level three evidence

A

Evidence gathered from a well designed quasi experimental study, like a case-control study or systematic review of such studies

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26
Q

Level four evidence

A

Evidence gathered from well-designed non-experimental study like descriptive studies or case series

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27
Q

Level five evidence

A

Evidence gathered from expert opinion case reports and clinical examples

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28
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

Probability that a patient with disease will have a positive result

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29
Q

What is specificity?

A

Probability that a patient without the disease will have a negative result

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30
Q

What is positive predictive value?

A

The probability that a patient with a positive test has the disease the more specific test the higher PPV

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31
Q

What is negative predictive value

A

The probability that a patient with a negative test does not have the disease, the more sensitive attest the higher, the NPV

32
Q

What supplements should be discontinued to avoid bleeding risk before surgery?

A

Garlic ginkgo, Balboa ginseng vitamin E saw Palmetto chondroiton omega-3

33
Q

What is warfarin induced skin necrosis?

A

It can occur if you start warfarin before heparin because protein C and Shave a shorter half-life than the other vitamin K dependent factors, and this can result to a hypercoagulable state and skin necrosis

34
Q

What is the most common location of a DVT?

A

The calf, but the iliofemoral DVTs are the most likely to cause a pulmonary embolus. The left leg is twice as likely as the right because the left iliac vein is compressed by the right iliac artery.

35
Q

A patient that had a thyroid ectomy three months ago presents for surgery. What should you be cognizant of?

A

Hypocalcemia you need to check for signs like per oral tingling numbness, prolonged QT on EKG
You might need to do magnesium before before calcium will

36
Q

What is the difference between corn needle, biopsy and fine needle aspiration

A

Corn needle gives architecture and fine needle gives cytology

37
Q

Is higher energy radiation, worse or better for the skin

A

Better because the higher ionizing potential doesn’t reach until deeper structures

38
Q

What is a pan coast tumor?

A

Superior pulmonary sulcus tumor, which can invade the sympathetic chain and cause Horner 🔥🔥🔥 syndrome and it can cause ulnar nerve symptoms

39
Q

What are the key features of Kylo thorax in its treatment?

A

Thoracic duct runs along the right side of the chest and crosses over to the left at T4 and T5 to drain into the left. Subclavian vein management includes low-fat diet octreotide, and chest tube.
Surgical ligation can be done if conservative treatment fails

40
Q

What is the best way to measure alveolar ventilation

A

PaCO2 gives you the relationship of alveolar ventilation to CO2 production

41
Q

How to treat elevated intracranial pressure in a trauma patient

A

Head of bed, elevation
Hypertonic saline
Mannitol
Ventriculostomy
Hyper ventilation
Sedation and paralysis

42
Q

What is Cushing’s triad?

A

Hypertension, bradycardia and slow, respiratory rate are suggested of pending herniation in a brain injury patient

43
Q

What is the most important prognostic indicator of the glass cow coma scale?

44
Q

What should you be concerned with in a patient with a posterior knee dislocation?

A

Popliteal artery injury

45
Q

Venus air embolus treatment

A

Turn, patient left lateral decubitus position and supportive care with mechanical ventilation pressures and volume
If a patient with arterial embolism presents, they should be placed flat

46
Q

What happens if you ligate the carotid artery?

A

20% of patients will stroke

48
Q

How does protein binding affect the action of local anesthetic

A

Local with higher protein binding will have higher contact with the nerve membrane and thus a longer duration of action

49
Q

How does the Pka affect the action of local anesthetics?

A

The PKA determines the speed of onset of the nerve block 50% of the local will exist in its basic and cat ionic form

50
Q

Name three factors that decrease seizure threshold and increase the risk of CNS toxicity

A

Hypercarbia
Hypoxia
Acidosis

51
Q

Name two agents that can be used to treat seizures following CNS toxicity with local

A

Benzo
Sodium thiopental

52
Q

What is the maximum adult dose of lidocaine without epinephrine?

A

Five MG per KG
Maximal single dose is 300 mg

53
Q

What is the maximum adult dose for lidocaine with epinephrine?

A

Seven MG per KG
500 mg for a single dose

54
Q

What is the maximum total dose of epinephrine in a healthy adult?

55
Q

What causes methemoglobinemia?

A

Oxidation of hemoglobin from its ferric to Ferris form by prilocaine and benzocaine

56
Q

What are the disadvantages of doing an interscalene brachial plexus block?

A

Misses, the medial cutaneous nerve, the intercostal break your nerve and ulnar nerve
Not suitable for hand
Complications include a 100% if ipsi phrenic nerve block, Horner 🔥🔥🔥 syndrome, hoarseness, dysphasia, blurred vision and involvement of recurrent laryngeal and cervical sympathetic nerves

57
Q

What are the disadvantages of a supraclavicular brachial plexus block?

A

Pneumothorax .4 to 6%
Ipsi phrenic nerve paralysis, 60%
Occasional Horner 🔥🔥🔥 syndrome

Well, suited for long surgery and prolonged postop pain relief
Complete prompt long acting block

58
Q

What are the disadvantages of the infra clavicular brachial plexus block?

A

Increase risk of intravascular puncture as the plexus surrounds the subclavian artery at this level

It is a reliable block of muscular cutaneous and axillary nerves
Lower risk of pneumothorax compared to supraclavicular block
More obvious landmarks

59
Q

What are the disadvantages of the axillary brachial plexus block?

A

Can miss the muscular cutaneous nerve and the lateral anti brachial cutaneous nerve

Most widely used block and hand surgery

60
Q

Describe the relationship of the radial ulnar and median nerves to the axillary artery

A

Radial is posterior
Median is superior
Ulnar is inferior

61
Q

What are contraindications to using a bier block?

A

Sickle cell anemia
Severe peripheral vascular disease
Established soft tissue infection
Tumors

63
Q

What is the best way to measure alveola ventilation?

64
Q

What is Pancoast tumor?

A

Superior pulmonary sulcus tumor, which can invade the sympathetic chain and lead to Horner 🔥🔥🔥 syndrome or ulnar nerve symptoms

65
Q

What anatomy is relevant to thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

Subclavian vein is anterior to the anterior scalene
Subclavian artery and brachial plexus are between the middle and anterior scalene

66
Q

Most common location of a DVT

A

Calf but the iliofemoral DVT is more likely to cause a PE
Left leg is twice as likely as right because of compression by the right iliac artery

67
Q

Cushing’s triad

A

Hypertension, Brady cardio and slow respiratory rate
Suggest impending herniation in a patient with a head injury

68
Q

Mechanism of action of steroids in transplants

A

Inhibit macrophages and genes for cytokines synthesis like IL one and IL6

69
Q

What is the most important prognostic indicator of GCS?

A

Motor score

70
Q

Imiquimod

A

Toll like 7 receptor for bcc

71
Q

Most common site for tumor to met s to mandible in female

72
Q

Facial plane

A

nasion to pognion
Concave point @frontonasal suture to the most anterior point on the chin

73
Q

Cranial base

A

. Line from midpoint of sella to nasion

74
Q

Pap

A

Perforators through adductor Magnus
Found 2 cm posterior gracilis and 8 cm inferior to groin crease

75
Q

Reverse sural artery flap

A

Peroneal perforators
Includes rural nerve and saphenous lesser vein
Most common complication is venous insufficiency
Harvested over post. calf @the raphae of gastrocnemius

76
Q

Granular cell tumor

A

Thought to originate from Schwann
Invade posterior middle true vocal folds
Can give false +
TX = excision