Flaps Flashcards

1
Q

Sartorius

A

Type four, superficial femoral artery and vein

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2
Q

Gastrocnemius muscle

A

Sural Arteries type one

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3
Q

Lateral arm flap

A

Posterior radial collateral
Pedicle is located through the lateral intermuscular septum between the brachialis and the lateral head of the triceps

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4
Q

Radial forearm flap pedicle

A

Between brachial radialis and FCR

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5
Q

Gracilis

A

Type two
Medial femoral circumflex
Superficial femoral

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6
Q

Rectus femoris

A

Lateral femoral circumflex artery

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7
Q

Groin flap

A

Superficial circumflex iliac

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8
Q

Gluteal Thigh flap

A

Inferior gluteal

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9
Q

What nerve provides sensation to the lateral arm flap

A

Posterior brachial cutaneous

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10
Q

Triangular space boundaries

A

Teres minor
Major
Long head of triceps

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11
Q

What does the saphenous artery originate from?

A

Genicular

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12
Q

Deltopectoral flap

A

First, second and third perforating branches of the internal mammary artery

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13
Q

Posterior thigh flap

A

Involves the biceps femoris, semi tendinosis and semimembranosus
Inf gluteal artery
Profunda femoris

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14
Q

Latissimus dorsi

A

Thoracodorsal
Type five

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15
Q

Soleus

A

Popliteal
Type 2

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16
Q

External oblique

A

Lateral cutaneous branches of the inferior eight posterior intercostal arteries

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17
Q

Quadrangular space

A

Long head of triceps
humerus
Teres minor
Teres major

Contains the posterior circumflex, humeral vessels, and axillary nerve

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18
Q

Pec major

A

Type V
Pectoral branch of thoracoacromial artery

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19
Q

Abductor digiti minimi

A

Deep Palmer artery from ulnar artery

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20
Q

Reverse sural flap

A

Median superficial sural artery
Distal perforating branches of the peroneal

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21
Q

Medial plantar perforator flap

A

Septum between abductor hallucis and flexor digitorum brevis

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22
Q

Soleus

A

The proximal muscle is supplied by branches of the perineal artery, and the distal muscle is supplied by the posterior tibial artery perforators

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23
Q
A
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24
Q

What is the salvage rate for flaps that require re-exploration for ischemia?

A

50 to 85%

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25
Q

What is the maximum warm ischemia time tolerated by bone flaps?

A

Less than three hours

26
Q

What is the maximum warm ischemia time tolerated by skin and fascio cutaneous flaps?

A

4 to 6 hours

27
Q

What is the warm ischemia time tolerated by jejunal flaps?

A

Less than two hours

28
Q

Mechanism of action of Papaverine

A

It is an opium alkaloid drug that inhibits phosphodiesterases leading to increase levels of cyclic AMP

29
Q

How long before a pseudo intima forms at the anastomosis site

31
Q

What does heparin do?

A

Inhibit antithrombin three which inhibits thrombin, and it also inhibits the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin

32
Q

How does aspirin prevent platelet aggregation?

A

Inhibits endothelial Cox pathway with subsequent blockage of thromboxane A2

33
Q

What are risk associated with using streptokinase?

A

Bleeding and hematoma
It is antigenic and can result in an allergic response
Can also cause a lytic state which will cause diffuse bleeding when administered in high doses

34
Q

What nerve provides sensation to the lateral arm

A

Posterior brachial cutaneous

35
Q

The fibula and radial forearm Osteo cutaneous flap can provide how much length of bone

A

Fibula can provide 25 cm
Radius can provide 10 cm

36
Q

What is the source of free radicals in the ischemic flap?

A

Xanthene oxidize

37
Q

What is the blood supply of the Delto pectoral flap?

A

First, second and third perforating branches of the internal mammary artery

38
Q

Where does the gluteus maximus insert?

A

Greater trochanter of the femur

39
Q

What are the boundaries of the quadrilateral space?

A

Teres minor superiorly
Teres major inferior
Humerus lateral
Long head of triceps medial

Posterior circumflex, humeral vessels and axillary nerve travel here

40
Q

What is the blood supply of a nasolabial flap?

A

Angular artery from the facial artery

41
Q

Blood supply of the Abductor digiti minimi flap

A

Deep Palmer artery from the ulnar artery

42
Q

Blood supply to the reverse sural flap

A

Peroneal artery more distally and the posterior tibial artery

43
Q

What is the origin of the TFL flap?

A

Anterior 5 cm of the outer portion of the iliac crust and ASIS

44
Q

What is the course of the radial collateral artery to the lateral arm flap?

A

Through the lateral intermuscular septum between the brachialis and lateral head of the triceps muscle

45
Q

Thoracodorsal perforator flap nerve branch

A

Lateral branch of intercostal nerve

46
Q

What recipient vessel should not be used in breast reconstruction with an S gap flap

A

The axillary vessels because the pedal length is often insufficient

47
Q

What is the benefit of a thoracodorsal flap over scapular and parascapular?

A

It is a longer pedicle and relatively thinner subcutaneous tissue

48
Q

List the advantages of the medial sural artery perforator flap

A

Thin impliable
Less hair bearing
Long and sizable vascular pedicle
Volume can be adjusted by the inclusion of part of the gastrocnemius muscle
Plantaris tendon can be harvested at the same time
Two team approach

49
Q

What is the location of the deep circumflex iliac perforator artery

A

One to 2 cm above the iliac crust and 5 cm behind the ASIS

50
Q

What perforator flaps can be harvested as a chimeric flap

A

ALT
Thoracodorsal
MSAP
PAP

51
Q

Describe the types of Venous flaps

A

Type one is unipedicled or a pure venous
Type two has an inflow and outflow vein
Type three the inflow has become arterialized and there is an outflow

52
Q

What is pre-lamination

A

A flap is surgically altered by partial elevation, manipulation of the structure and incorporation of other tissue layers at the first stage to create a specialized composite flap
This is how nasal reconstruction is done

53
Q

What is pre-fabrication

A

A new dominant vascular pedicle is buried in the new flap territory and six weeks later the flap is elevated and based on the new pedicle

54
Q

What metabolic factors act as vasodilators

A

Acidosis
Hyperkalemia
Hypoxia
Hypercarpnia

55
Q

Which antigens are the most immunogenic?

A

MHC
In humans, these are HL A’s
Class one are exposed on all nucleated cells
Class two are only expressed on antigen presenting cells like lymphocytes, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, endothelial cells, and activated T cells

56
Q

Describe acute rejection

A

Within weeks to months following a transplant
The donor APCs migrate to the host lymphoid tissue and activate T cells, which then migrate to the graft and mediate rejection

57
Q

What tissue types are least antigenic

A

Cartilage and tendon are the least
Bone is less than skin and muscle

58
Q

What immunosuppressive medication’s have not been shown to impaired wound healing

A

Anti-lymphocytes such as lymphocyte immune globulin, ATG and monoclonal antibodies against T cell receptors such as basaliximab

59
Q

What are the important viral serology to crossmatch?

A

CMV
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
HIV
EBV

60
Q

What is graft versus host disease?

A

This happens in bone marrow recipients
The graft views, the tissues of the recipient as foreign and the T cells attack