Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AA Y4 Finals cards NE > General surgery > Flashcards

General surgery Flashcards

1
Q

which cause of haematuria is most common and associated with polycythemia?

A

renal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which tumour causes haematuria and usually presents in the first 4 years of life?

A

nephroblastoma

also known as a Wilms tumour

may cause lung mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what do raised AFP levels in association with a risk factor such as hepatitis B suggest a diagnosis of?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

raised AFP + jaundice + risk factor = hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which cancers is CA19-9 raised in?

A

pancreatic cancer

cholangiocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why should biopsy be avoided in hepatocellular carcinoma diagnosis?

A

it seeds tumour cells through a resection plane

1st line Ix = CT + MRI

in cases of diagnostic doubt, serial CT and aFP measurements are preferred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

in males with suspected hepatocellular carcinoma and raised AFP, what other structure must be examined?

A

the testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the main risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma?

A

PSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

name the tumour markers raised in cholangiocarcinoma?

A

CA19-9, CEA and CA 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which disease process is associated with liver cysts

(70%), berry aneurysms (25%) and pancreatic cysts (10%)?

A

adult polycystic kidney disease

causes painless haematuria and renal impairment, may be a FHx of brain haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the definitive diagnostic investigation for small bowel obstruction?

A

CT abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which condition is epigastric pain that worsens on lying down and radiating to the back a typical picture of?

A

pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the 1st line medical management of small bowel obstruction?

A

IV fluids, NG tube for gastric decompression and additional potassium

“drip and suck”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which class of analgesic should be avoided in patients who have just had a renal transplant?

A

NSAIDs

they may be nephrotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where is the deep inguinal ring palpated?

why is this relevant clinically?

A

the mid point of the inguinal ligament

relevant clinically as it helps establish direct from indirect hernias

if you press on deep inginual ring and hernia stops protruding, it’s an indirect hernia

if it continues to protrude, its a direct hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the risk of transfusion related lung injury is greatest with what type of transfusion?

A

plasma components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

compare the features of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) and HNPCC (Lynch syndrome)

A

FAP: typically over 100 colonic adenomas

HNPCC: colonic tumours likely to be right sided and mucinous with extra colonic cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which type of bone tumours have a radiolucent, soap bubble appearance?

A

giant cell tumours

they present as pain or pathological fractures and commonly metastasise to lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

describe the biochemical features of osteomalacia?

A

hypocalcemia

low urinary calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which bone tumour is most common in 10-20 y/o males and presents as a lytic lesion with onion type periosteal reaction?

A

Ewings sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how would a liver haemangioma present?

A

a large hyper echoic lesion on US in the presence of normal AFP.

if the lesion has a raised AFP then it will almost always be a hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how can hydroceles be differentiated from hernias as causes of scrotal swelling?

A

hydroceles transilluminate

hernias dont

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

name 3 features seen in portal hypertension?

A

ascites

splenomegaly

caput medusae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which nerve is at risk of damage in a total hip replacement?

A

sciatic nerve

damage to it manifests as foot drop/inability to plantaflex

common peroneal and tibial nerve are branches of the sciatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is Fitz Curtis syndrome?

A

occurs in patients with pelvic inflammatory disease

the PID (usually due to chlamydia) causes formation of fine peri-hepatic adhesions which may cause ab pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

compare how congenital inguinal and umbilical hernias are managed?

A

inguinal: repair ASAP
umbilical: manage conservatively (most resolve by age 4-5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which classes of shock are the only ones with hypotension?

A

class 3 and class 4

In class 3, patient is conscious but confused

in class 4, patient is unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which skin lesion frequently occurs at the site of previous trauma?

A

dermatofibromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the difference between an epidermoid cyst and a pilar cyst?

A

both have a central puncture and may contain small quantities of sebum

epidermoid cyst: the cell lining is normal epidermis

pilar cyst: the cell lining is the outer root sheath of the hair follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

name symtoms that suggest a femoral nerve injury ?

A

weak hip flexion

weak knee extension

impaired quadriceps tendon reflex

sensory deficit in anteromedial aspect of thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what make up 90% of urothelial malignancies?

A

transitional cell carcinomas

may offer anywhere along the urinary tract

cause painless haematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

in which GI ulcer is the epigastric pain relieved by eating?

A

duodenal ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

in which GI ulcer is the gastric pain exacerbated by eating?

A

gastric ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what can an enterovesical fistula commonly occur secondary to?

A

colorectal malignancy

presents with bubbly urine and repeated UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where is meckel’s diverticulum most commonly located?

A

typically 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when may the pain be worse with meckels diverticulum?

A

typically worse after meals

the area of meckels diverticulum may contain ectopic gastric mucosa which may secrete acid with subsequent bleeding and ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the curative Tx for biliary colic?

A

elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy

as long as there are no features suggesting acute infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the most likely composition of a renal stone with a stag horn calculus?

what is the most common type of renal stone?

A

struvite

calcium oxalate is most common type of renal stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what type of cancers are 90% of colorectal cancers?

A

adenocarcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the best indicator of severity and can indicate prognosis in acute pancreatitis?

A

calcium

hypocalcemia is a poor prognostic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the most common type of renal cell cancer?

A

clear cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is Charcot’s triad?

what is it indicative of?

A

RUQ pain, fever and jaundice

indicates suspected ascending cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the most common form of prostate cancer?

A

adenocarcinoma

accounts for >95% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the cause of a scrotal swelling that you cant get above?

A

inguinoscrotal hernia

it is the only condition where it is not possible to palpate above the swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the only testicular tumour that transilluminates?

A

hydrocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

where are diverticula most commonly found?

A

sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what analgesic should be given in the acute management of renal colic?

A

diclofenac 75mg IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the surgery of choice for distal colon cancers?

A

a loop colostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how can epididymis-orchitis be differentiated from testicular torsion?

A

epididymis-orchitis usually causes pyrexia and a positive urine dipstick, TT does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

when is the faecal immunochemical test (FIT) indicated in colorectal cancer?

A

recommended for patients with new symptoms of possible colorectal cancer who do not meet the 2 week wait criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how are the majority of patients with ascending cholangitis managed?

A

ERCP within 24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is charcot’s triad?

what condition does it indicate?

A

fever, jaundice, RUQ pain

suggests ascending cholangitis

obstructive jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

why is laparoscopic cholecystectomy not indicated in acute ascending cholangitis?

A

it cannot remove bilestones in the common bile duct

it is also more risky in septic patients than ERCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

compare the reasons tamsulosin and finasteride are used in BPH?

A

tamsulosin: A1 antagonist- improves voiding symptoms (poor flow, hesitancy, post void dribble)
finasteride: 5 alpha reductase inhibitor - used to slow disease progression and indicated if patient has significantly enlarged prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the safest surgical procedure to do in a patient with bowel perforation?

A

Hartmans procedure

it can then be reversed later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the definition of a Hartmanns procedure?

A

sigmoid colectomy and formation of an end stoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what class of drug is tolterodine?

when can it be used in BPH?

A

an antimuscarinic

can be used in patients with overactive bladder in BPH who have not responded to A blocker and 5- alpha reductase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

compare the Tx of biliary colic and ascending cholangitis?

A

biliary colic: elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy

ascending cholangitis: ERCP within 24-48 hours

58
Q

why do germ cell testicular tumours and leydig cell tumours cause gynecomastia?

A

they cause increased levels of oestrogen, which causes gynaecomastia

59
Q

which have the best prognosis: seminomas or teratomas?

A

seminomas

60
Q

which cause of rectal bleeding presents with painful bleeding post defication in small volumes. a history of constipation usually precedes?

A

fissure in ano

61
Q

which type of testicular swelling feels separate from the body of the testicle?

A

epididymal cyst

in comparison, a testicular cancer is irregular in nature and would feel like an extension of the testicle

62
Q

what is the most common form of bladder cancer?

A

transitional cell (urothelial) carcinoma

smoking is the most important risk factor

schistosomiasis can cause squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

63
Q

what imaging should be performed in all patients with suspected renal colic?

A

non-contrast CT KUB

64
Q

how are ureteric calculi less than 5mm managed?

A

expectantly

analgesia

should pass in 4 weeks

65
Q

how are ureteric calculi less than 2cm managed, in normal people and also in pregnant women?

A

normal people: lithotripsy

pregnancy: ureteroscopy

66
Q

what is the most infective type of infective hepatitis?

A

hepatitis A

foreign travel causing mild, painless jaundice

67
Q

what is the most common organism causing ascending cholanggitis?

A

E.Coli

68
Q

what is more likely to cause a fever? an abscess or a fissure?

A

an abscess

fissures can cause pain as well but are unlikely to cause a fever

69
Q

what test for acute pancreatitis is more sensitive and specific than serum amylase?

A

serum lipase

it also has a longer 1/2 life than amylase and may be useful for late presentations

70
Q

what is the preferred diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis?

A

CT pancreas with IV contrast

71
Q

what nutrient deficiency is a known complication of a gastrectomy?

what condition can this predispose to?

A

gastrectomy can result in vit B12 deficiency

this can result in subacute combined degeneration of the chord

72
Q

patients with which disease are more prone to fissure formation?

A

those with crohns disease

pain on passing faeces accompanied by bleeding post defication

73
Q

measurement of which electrolyte is an indication of severity in pancreatitis?

A

calcium

hypocalcemia is an indicator of severe pancreatitis

74
Q

what is the 1st line investigation in suspected prostate cancer?

A

multi parametric MRI

it has replaced TRUS biopsy as the 1st line Ix

75
Q

what is the best marker to use to monitor the response to treatment of colon cancer?

A

CEA

76
Q

compare the most common causes of small and large bowel obstruction?

A

small bowel obstruction: adhesions

large bowel obstruction: bowel cancer

77
Q

how can mallory Weiss tear be distinguished from boerhaaves syndrome?

A

there may be some blood in mallory Weiss tears, but there won’t be any in boerhaaves syndrome

there is also crepitus over the chest wall in boerhaaves syndrome (due to full thickness rupture of the oesophagus)

78
Q

what is one of the key aims of Tx ing advanced prostate cancer?

further, how does goserelin work?

A

reducing androgen levels

goserelin is a GnRH agonist - it provides negative feedback to the hypothalamus

the testosterone level will therefore rise for 2-3 weeks before falling - may cause a flare up of symptoms

79
Q

why is there often a flare phenomenon in prostate cancer therapy with goserelin?

A

it is a GnRH agonist

it causes a temporary increase in testosterone levels for 2-3 weeks before the negative feedback kicks in

80
Q

what is the strongest risk factor for anal cancer?

A

HPV infection

it is also a risk factor for cervical cancer

80% of anal cancers are squamous cell cancers

81
Q

when would elective surgery for a hydrocele in a child be carried out? why?

A

if hydrocele is still present at 1 or 2 y/o, elective surgery carried out

to avoid complications of strangulated hernia

82
Q

name the 1st and 2nd line imaging done for acute pancreatitis?

how does this compare to chronic pancreatitis?

A

1st line: U/S - to determine aetiology

2nd line: CT - used to confirm pancreatic inflammation if bloods are normal

in chronic pancreatitis, CT with IV contrast is 1st line

83
Q

which type of testicular cancer is most likely to have raised AFP and HCG?

A

non-seminoma germ cell tumours

they are less common than seminomas and are more likely to present in younger men (20-30 y/o) - can present with ggynaecomastia

84
Q

compare when transurethral resection of the superficial lesion and radical cystectomy are indicated in bladder cancer?

A

TURBT: carcinoma in situ

radical cystectomy: invasive bladder cancer

85
Q

how is an acute upper urinary tract obstruction managed?

A

insertion of a nephrostomy

required when a calculus causes ureteric obstruction

the renal calculi usually causes a septic picture

86
Q

which medication is given to those with an overactive bladder?

A

anti muscarinics

eg- oxybutynin, tolterodine

alpha blockers and 5-a- reductase inhibitors are used for LUTS secondary to enlarged prostate

87
Q

what is the best diagnostic investigation for hydronephrosis?

A

U/S

88
Q

what is the most common complication of ERCP?

A

acute pancreatitis

89
Q

which malignancy is PSC a significant risk factor for?

A

cholangiocarcinoma

measure using CA 19-9 tumour marker

90
Q

what is the 1st line medication in BPH?

A

alpha-1 antagonist

91
Q

compare the use of non-contrast CT KUB and abdominal U/S in suspected renal colic?

A

abdominal U/S: used to examine for hydronephrosis or hydroureter. used for initial assessment

non contrast CT: used to confirm stone diagnosis, diagnostic

92
Q

how can 80% of low grade MALT lymphomas be treated?

A

they are eradicated using H.Pylori eradication

ie- omeprazole, amoxicillin, clarthromycin

in high grade MALT, chemo or radiotherapy may be required

93
Q

what is the Ix of choice for Boerhaaves syndrome?

A

CT contrast swallow

94
Q

name the 2 drug classes that commonly cause ED?

A

beta blockers

SSRIs

95
Q

name the 1st line and then 2nd line (curative) Ix for acute cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder due to blockage of cystic duct) ?

A

1st line: U/S

2nd line(diagnostic): ERCP

96
Q

describe the 1st and 2nd line Mx of anal fissures?

A

1st line: conservative - stool softeners and dietary advice

2nd line: topical GTN

97
Q

how is an enraptured sigmoid volvulus primarily managed?

A

flatus tube insertion

98
Q

which testicular tumour type is most associated with AFP and HCG increases?

A

non seminomatous germ cell tumours

ie- teratomas and yolk sac tumours

seminomas are most likely to have normal HCG and AFPs

99
Q

how can you differentiate between an ileostomy and a colostomy?

A

ileostomy: from the small bowel, spouting to protect skin from the small bowel contents which is an irritant
colostomy: from the large bowel, large bowel contents not irritant so no spouting

100
Q

compare which medication is best to reduce uric acid stones or calcium stones?

A

uric acid stones: allopurinol

calcium stones: thiazide diuretic

101
Q

what is the antibiotic therapy for prostatitis?

A

ciprofloxacin 14 days

102
Q

which condition is associated with granular, muddy brown urinary casts?

A

acute tubular necrosis

103
Q

compare when pain, fever and jaundice are present in:

a) biliary colic
b) acute cholecystitis
c) ascending cholangitis

A

a) biliary colic = pain
b) acute cholecystitis = pain and fever
c) ascending cholangitis= pain, fever and jaundice

104
Q

compare the location of the blockage in ascending cholangitis and acute cholecystitis?

how does this affect presentation of jaundice?

A

acute cholecystitis = obstruction is at the neck of the gallbladder - bile acids can still flow from liver to gut, so no jaundice

ascending cholangitis: obstruction is in the common bile duct. bile acids cannot flow from liver to gut, causing jaundice. the E.Coli is also able to swim up the CBD from the gut due to stasis of flow, causing infection

105
Q

what is the most appropriate way to investigate overactive bladder?

A

urodynamic studies

106
Q

how can functional large bowel obstructions (paralytic ileum) be differentiated from mechanical large bowel obstructions (tumour)?

A

in a paralytic ileus (functional), there will be a complete absence of bowel sounds

in mechanical obstructions, bowel sounds remain

107
Q

what is the Ix of choice for diagnosing bladder cancer?

A

flexible cystoscopy

CT may be needed later to assess metastatic spread

108
Q

what makes chronic urinary retention high pressure or low pressure?

A

high pressure: if the renal function is impaired or there is hydronephrosis

low pressure: no impairment in renal function

109
Q

what imaging should be performed on all patients with suspected renal stone within 14 hours of admission?

A

CT KUB

it is the gold standard investigation for suspected urolithiasis

110
Q

what is the 1st line Ix in a young man who presents with a painless testicular lump and developing ggynaecomastia?

A

testicular US

Gynaecomastia in testicular cancer occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio

111
Q

what is the most important feature in immediate management of acute pancreatitis?

A

early fluid resuscitation

currently, guidelines do not mandate urgent administration of antibiotics

therefore, the most important aspect is aggressive fluid resuscitation

112
Q

what is the most commonly performed operation for rectal tumours?

A

anterior resection

113
Q

compare what types of surgery are done for: a) mid/high rectal tumours

b) sigmoid tumours
c) low rectal/anal tumours

A

a) mid/high rectal tumours: anterior resection
b) sigmoid tumour: hartmaans
c) low rectal/anal tumours: abdominoperineal excision

114
Q

compare the most common causes of small and large bowel obstructions?

A

small bowel: adhesions

large bowel: obstructions (malignancy)

115
Q

which scrotal swelling can be palpated as separate from the body of the testicle?

A

epididymal cyst

it usually sits posterior to the testicle

116
Q

what ABPI value usually correlates with claudication?

A

0.6-0.9

117
Q

what is the initial Ix for acute limb threatening ischemia?

A

arterial doppler exam

if doppler signals present, do ABPI

118
Q

name the 3 things involved in initial Mx of acute limb ischemia?

A

analgesia
IV heparin
vascular review

119
Q

what is the role of IV heparin in acute limb ischemia Mx?

A

it prevents propagation of the thrombus and further ischemia occurring

120
Q

compare the appearance of DVT and acute limb ischemia, and the anticoagulant drug used 1st line in each?

A

DVT: red, tender, swollen leg - give oral rivaroxiban (DOAC)

acute limb ischemia - cool, pale- give IV heparin

121
Q

what diameter of AAA requires repair?

A

anything >5.5cm, regardless of symptoms or not

122
Q

name a classical finding in takayasu’s arteritis?

A

pulseless peripheries

most commonly affects young asian females

can cause lethargy and dizziness worse on turning the head

123
Q

what is 1st line Mx of varicose veins?

A

compression stockings

referral for endothermal ablation and foam sclerotherapy can only be done in severe cases with severe symptoms

compression stockings also 1st line for thrombophlebitis

124
Q

why must ABPI always be checked before treating with compression stockings?

A

must ensure arterial supply is sufficient, as compression stockings may compromise this

125
Q

what is an important D/Dx in a patient with loin tog groin pain and suspected renal colic?

A

AAA rupture, esp in men >50 y/o

signs of shock would support diagnosis of AAA

126
Q

describe the screening for AAA?

A

a single abdominal US for males aged 65

127
Q

name 3 signs of chronic venous insufficiency?

A

brown pigmentation (haemosiderin)

Lipodermatosclerosis (champagne bottle legs)

eczema

128
Q

what is the Mx for chronic venous insufficiency/ venous ulcers?

A
  1. exclude arterial disease, then do 4 layer compression bandaging
  2. surgery
129
Q

when should those with a AAA >5.5 be seen by a vascular specialist?

A

within 2 weeks

130
Q

what 2 medications should anyone found to have peripheral arterial disease be started on?

A

statin + clopidogrel

anyone with CVD or ACS should also be started on dual anti platelet therapy

130
Q

what 2 medications should anyone found to have peripheral arterial disease be started on?

A

statin + clopidogrel

131
Q

which 3 conditions should patients be started on dual anti platelet therapy?

A
  • ACS
  • PVD
  • ischemic stroke
132
Q

in claudication, which artery has stenosis if there is a) buttock pain and b) calf pain

A

a) buttock pain: iliac stenosis

b) calf pain: femoral stenosis

133
Q

what aortic width in AAA warrants an abdominal US every 3 months?

A

medium aneurysms

4.5-5.4cm

134
Q

what is offered 1st line to those with PAD (non pharmacological)?

A

exercise training

135
Q

what is the 1st line med given for PAD?

A

clopidogrel + statin

136
Q

which ulcer would be painless and present with a normal ABPI?

A

neuropathic ulcer

137
Q

compare the sites that a neuropathic ulcer and a venous ulcer are most likely to present?

A

neuropathic: sites of pressure - metatarsal hear and plantar surface of hallux

venous ulcer: medial malleolus/ above the medial ankle

138
Q

when is an open bypass graft used as a method to Tx critical limb ischemia rather than angioplasty with stenting?

A

open bypass: if there is multifocal lesions and low surgical risk

angioplasty with stenting: focal stenosis or thrombus

139
Q

what condition is commonly found on the lower limbs, and is described as being painful, the size of an insect bite and growing? it looks like a margarita pizza (red base with yellow topping, yum)

A

pyoderma gangreosum

140
Q

compare how HRT affects arterial and venous disease?

A

HRT reduces incidence of arterial disease as the oestrogen stimulates release of nitric oxide

HRT increases the risk of VTE such as DVTs and PEs

141
Q

compare what 2 drugs should be given to anyone with PAD and ACS?

A

PAD: statin and clopidogrel

ACS: aspirin and clopidogrel

AA Y4 Finals cards NE (40 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions