Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AA Y4 Finals cards NE > Respiratory > Flashcards

Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

what is the main role of a bronchial challenge?

what does it measure?

A

allows asthma to be distinguished from COPD

measures the response of FEV1 to B2 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

compare the response of FEV1 to B2 agonists in both asthma and COPD?

A

asthma: > 15% increase

COPD: <15% increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

name 5 side effects of B2 agonists?

A
  • tachycardia
  • tremor
  • anxiety
  • arrhythmia
  • hypokalaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what cells drive the inflammation seen in asthma?

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the 1st line treatment for COPD?

A

SABA or SAMA

ipratropium is a SAMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what 2 tests should all adults suspected of having asthma have?

A
  1. fractional exhaled nitric oxide

2. spirometry/bronchodilator reversibility test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which syndrome presents with dextrocardia, bronchiectasis and recurrent sinusitis?

A

kartagener’s syndrome

also presents with sub fertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is low severity CAP managed 1st line?

A

amoxicillin 1st line, 5 day course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

compare how low severity and moderate/high severity CAP is managed?

A

low severity: amoxicillin

moderate/high severity: amoxicillin + macrolide

macrolide = clarithromycin, erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

in cases of white out shadowing on CXRs, how can complete lung collapse be differentiated from pleural effusion?

A

assess the position of the trachea:

complete lung collapse: trachea pulled toward the white side

pleural effusion: trachea pushed away from the side of the white out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what condition causes a facial rash and lymphadenopathy?

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe the lesions that are classically seen in sarcoidosis?

A

purpleish/bluish red lesions found on the cheeks, nose, lips, ears and forehead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how can a rash due to sarcoidosis be differentiated from a rash due to lupus?

A

assess the nasiolabial folds:

lupus: the folds are spared
sarcoidosis: the folds are NOT spared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

why does sarcoidosis cause hypercalcemia?

A

the macrophages inside the granuloma increase the conversion of vit D into its active form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

why does sarcoidosis cause hypercalcemia?

A

the macrophages inside the granuloma increase the conversion of vit D into its active form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the treatment of choice for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

oral prednisolone

oral glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which way does the trachea deviate in a tension pneumothorax?

A

trachea deviates away from the affected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the name of the syndrome that occurs in small cell lung cancer that causes muscle weakness, especially in the legs?

(not cushings syndrome)

A

Lambert eaton syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how can Lambert eaton syndrome be differentiated from myasthenia gravis?

A

Lambert eaton syndrome: weakness worse in the legs but tends to improve on activity

myasthenia gravis: weakness is worsened by activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which type of lung cancer can cause Cushing’s syndrome?

A

small cell lung cancer

due to the small cell cancer secreting ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the most common cause of an exudative pleural effusion?

A

pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

compare the protein levels seen in a transudative and exudative pleural effusion?

A

transudative: protein <30g/l
exudative: protein >30g/l, LDH >200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

compare the most common causes of transudative and exudative pleural effusions?

A

transudative: heart failure most common
exudative: pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

name 6 causes of exudative pleural effusion?

A
  1. infection (pneumonia, TB)
  2. connective tissue disease (RA, SLE)
  3. neoplasia (lung cancer, mesothelioma)
  4. pancreatitis
  5. PE
  6. Dressler’s syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

name 4 causes of a transudative pleural effusion?

A
  1. heart failure
  2. hypoalbuminemia (nephrotic syndrome, liver disease)
  3. hypothyroidism
  4. meigs’ syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which type of lung cancer is associated with gynaecomastia?

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the most common lung malignancy in non-smokers?

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

compare the most common causatives of CAP and COPD?

A

CAP: strep pneumoniae

COPD: H. Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Metastasis of which cancer to the lung causes cannon-ball metastases?

A

renal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the pneumonic CHARTS can be used to remember causes of upper zone fibrosis.
what does it stand for?

A 
Coal workers pneumoconiosis 
Histiocytosis 
Ank spond/allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis 
Radiation 
TB 
Silicosis, sarcoidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the most common causative of bronchiectasis?

A

H. Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In which condition are serum ACE levels abnormally high?

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what investigation is 2nd line in suspected lung cancer following a CXR?

A

contrast enhanced CT scan of chest, liver and adrenals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

in COPD, what is the 2nd line treatment in patients who have asthma/steroid responsive features?

A

add in LABA and ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the 1st line antibiotic for acute bronchitis?

A

doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what 3 factors would indicate antibiotics are required for acute bronchitis?

A
  1. CRP > 100
  2. multiple comrobitities
  3. systemically unwell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which condition typically starts with a dry cough over 3-4 days before becoming productive, which resolves within 3 weeks?

A

bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which rheumatoid drug can cause pneumonitis?

A

methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what does the ABCDE of heart failure on CXR describe?

A 
Alveolar oedema 
kerley B lines 
Cardiomegaly 
Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels 
Effusion (pleural)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

are asbestosis pleural plaques pre malignant?

A

no - they are benign and do not undergo any malignant change

therefore, they dont require any follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

describe the FEV1, FVC and FEV1/FVC ratio in restrictive lung diseases?

A

FEV1 often, but not always reduced
FVC significantly reduced

FEV1/FEV = normal or increased (>80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

compare the FVC in obstructive and restrictive conditions?

A

obstructive: FVC unchanged
restrictive: FVC reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how is hypoxic drive different from normal respiratory efforts?

A

in normal respiratory drive, levels of carbon dioxide influence respiratory rate
(ie - more CO2, increased resp rate)

in cases of chronic CO2 retention (COPD), the body uses O2 levels to drive resp rate
(ie - low O2 levels, increased resp rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

in what size of primary pneumothoraxes should aspiration be attempted?

A

pneumothoraces with >2cm rim of air

aspiration should also be attempted if there is SOB

44
Q

what is the investigation of choice for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

high resolution CT

45
Q

describe 4 features of ideopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

progressive exertional dyspnoea
bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations
dry cough
clubbing

46
Q

where do aspergillomas typically occur in the lung?

A

they occur in the cavities of post-primary TB patients

they are found in the upper lobes and present as a rounded opacity with haemoptysis

47
Q

which condition is associated with the development of a flat/saddle nose?

A

GPA

due to collapse of the nasal septum

48
Q

name the 3 paraneoplastic syndromes associated with small cell lung cancer?

A

ADH

ACTH

Lambert eaton syndrome

49
Q

compare the 1st line treatment of primary and secondary pneumothoraxes, if they both measure >2cm?

A

primary pneumothoaxes: needle aspiration

secondary pneumothoraxes: chest drain

50
Q

where is the needle inserted to decompress a tension pneumothorax?

A

2nd ICS MCL

51
Q

what is a key indicator of non-invasive ventilation?

A

COPD with resp acidosis pH 7.25-7.35

52
Q

name 3 things seen on CXR in COPD?

A
  • hyperinflation
  • flattened hemidiaphragms
  • hyperlucent lung fields
53
Q

what is the most common cause of SVC obstruction?

A

lung cancer, due to extrinsic compression

54
Q

what is the definitive way to diagnose a mesothelioma?

A

thoracoscopy and histology

55
Q

even if the patient is systemically well, what should all patients with pneumonia who have COPD also be given?

A

prednisolone

this should be given alongside corticosteroids

56
Q

what value of INR is a relative contraindication to a chest drain?

A

INR >1.3

57
Q

name the 3 stages of churg-strauss disease?

A
  1. allergy (eczema or allergic rhinitis)
  2. eosinophilia
  3. vasculitis (small and medium sized)
58
Q

what is budesonide?

A

an ICS inhaler

2nd line in asthma following SABA

59
Q

describe what atelectasis is? how is it managed?

A

a common post op condition in which alveolar collapse can lead to respiratory difficulty

most effective tx = deep breathing exercises and phyiso

60
Q

is bronchiectasis associated with a restrictive or obstructive picture?

A

bronchiectasis = obstructive

61
Q

name 4 conditions associated with upper zone fibrosis of the lungs?

A
  • ank spond
  • coal workers pneumoconiosis
  • TB
  • silicosis
62
Q

which 2 drugs are associated with lower zone fibrosis

A

amiodarone

methotrexate

63
Q

name 4 causes of lower lung fibrosis?

A
  • ideopathic pulmonary fibrosis
  • most connective tissue disorders (eg - SLE)
  • drug induced (amiodarone, methotrexate)
  • asbestosis
64
Q

which 2 conditions cause a low glucose in pleural fluid in a pleural effusion?

A
  • rheumatoid arthritis

- TB

65
Q

what are the 2 most common causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy?

A

sarcoidosis

TB

66
Q

how should COPD be managed if there is continued breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and no asthma/steroid responsive features?

A

add a LABA and LAMA

67
Q

what investigation must be done prior to starting azithromycin?

A

ECG and baseline LFTs

§macrolides can cause QT prolongation

68
Q

metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder.

describe the 2 mechanisms by which it can occur?

A
  1. gain of strong acid - DKA

2. loss of HCO3 (vomiting and diarrhoea)

69
Q

compare the difference between type 1 and type 2 respiratory failure?

A

type 1: due to lack of oxygen

type 2: due to CO2 retention

70
Q

what finding on a FBC can be an indicator of lung cancer?

A

raised platelets

71
Q

how should any critically ill patient be treated initially, regardless if they have COPD or not?

A

high flow O2 via a reservoir mask at 15l/min

then titrate it to achieve target sats

72
Q

what word can be used to describe the pneumonia seen in klebsiella?

A

cavitating

seen in diabetics and alcoholics

73
Q

what is lupus pernio?

A

a cutenous manifestation of sarcoidosis

it causes a raised purple plaque of indurated skin that affects the tip of the nose, cheeks, lips and ears

74
Q

compare the cutaneous manifestations of sarcoidosis and Wegner’s granulomatosis?

A

both tend to affect the nose

sarcoidosis: lupus pernio - raised purple plaque

Wegner’s granulomatosis: causes epistaxis and crusting

75
Q

what is the mainstay of treatment in small cell lung cancer?

A

chemotherapy is mainstay

adjuvant radiotherapy is also given in patients with limited disease

76
Q

following NSAIDs, what is 2nd line tx for sarcoidosis?

A

oral prednisolone

77
Q

describe the typical presentation of bronchitis?

A

cough - can be productive or not

sore throat
rhinorrhoea
pyrexia
wheeze

78
Q

describe the CXR seen in bronchitis?

A

normal!

this allows it to be differentiated from pneumonia

79
Q

what investigation can be used to guide bronchitis tx?

A

CRP levels

if CRP is raised, offer doxycycline antibiotics

80
Q

when do NICE recommend giving oral antibiotics in COPD exacerbations?

A

if the sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia

81
Q

compare the paraneoplastic syndromes associated with small cell lung cancer and squamous cell carcinoma?

A

small cell lung cancer: ADH, ACTH, Lambert-eaton syndrome

squamous cell cancer: PTH-related protein (causes hypercalcemia)

82
Q

compare which condition is associated with cANCA and pANCA?

A

cANCA: GPA (nasal crusting and epistaxis)

pANCA: churg strauss syndrome (very rare and associated with atopic individuals)

83
Q

name the 3 1st line antibiotics given for infective exacerbation of COPD?

A

amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxycycline

84
Q

what is the normal FEV1/FVC of a normal lung?

A

70-80%

anything less = obstructive picture

anything more = restrictive picture

85
Q

name 3 features typical of ARDS?

A
  • acute onset within the past day, on the background of a known risk factor (pneumonia)
  • bilateral pulmonary oedema
  • hypoxia despite oxygen therapy
86
Q

what is the most common causative in COPD exacerbations and bronchiectasis?

A

H. Influenza

87
Q

how does step 2 COPD tx differ depending on if you’re responsive to steroids or not?

A

both are given LABA

steroid responsive: LABA + ICS

not steroid responsive: LABA + LAMA

88
Q

what is the severity of COPD based on?

A

based on FEV1 readings, not on symptoms or FEV1/FVC

very severe < 30%
severe- 30-49%

89
Q

what sign on chest examination would suggest ideopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

fine end inspiratory crepitations

also a progressive dry cough

90
Q

what are the 2 differentials for a large unilateral pleural effusion?

A

malignancy

infection

a diagnostic pleural tap will give clues as to underling aetiology

91
Q

what is a sudden deterioration following ventilation suggestive of?

A

a tension pneumothorax

92
Q

in addition to pneumonia, what else can klebsiella cause?

A

pleura empyema

93
Q

name the 4 indications for corticosteroid treatment in sarcoidosis?

A
  • parenchymal lung disease
  • uveitis
  • hypercalcaemia
  • neurological or cardiac involvement
94
Q

name 4 things that are indicative of LTOT in COPD patients?

A

they must have PaO2 between 7.2-8 plus:

  1. peripheral oedema
  2. pulmonary hypertension
  3. secondary polycythemia
95
Q

what surgery can be done to treat A1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

lung volume reduction surgery

removes the worst affected part of the lungs to improve airflow and gas exchange in the remaining portion

96
Q

what are the 2 most common causes of lung bullae?

A

cigarette smoking

emphysema

97
Q

what can mimic pneumothorax on CXR?

A

emphysematous bullae

98
Q

what are the 2 most common causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy?

A

TB

sarcoidosis

99
Q

name 4 contraindications to surgery in squamous cell lung cancer?

A
  • superior vena caval obstruction
  • FEV<1.5
  • malignant pleural effusion
  • vocal cord paralysis
100
Q

which lung cancer is associated with hyponatremia?

why?

A

small cell lung cancer is associated with syndrome of inappropriate ADH production (SiADH)

this can cause euovolaemic hyponatremia

101
Q

which type of lung cancer causes release of 5-HT (serotonin)?

A

bronchial adenoma

tumour that secretes 5-HT is known as a carcinoid tumour

102
Q

name the 2 indications for surgery in bronchiectasis?

A
  1. CT shows disease localised to one lobe

2. uncontrollable haemoptysis

103
Q

where should a chest drain for a pneumothorax be inserted?

A

5th ICS, mid axillary line

104
Q

where should a needle aspiration for pneumothorax be carried out?

A

2nd ICS, mid clavicular line

105
Q

which condition has key characteristics of exertional dyspnoea, dry cough and weight loss?

A

ideopathic pulmonary fibrosis

also present with finger clubbing

106
Q

what is the main difference between ideopathic pulmonary fibrosis and bronchiectasis ?

A

the character of the cough:

ideopathic pulmonary fibrosis: dry cough

bronchiectasis: productive cough with copious amounts of purulent sputum

107
Q

how should a secondary pneumothorax <1cm be managed?

A

admit and give O2 for 24 hours and review

in primary pneomothoraxes, just discharge

108
Q

what is the treatment of choice for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

oral prednisolone

it treats the excessive inflammatory response

AA Y4 Finals cards NE (40 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions