Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AA Y4 Finals cards NE > Anaesthetics > Flashcards

Anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

what ASA classification is anyone who smokes?

A

ASA 2

so is anyone who is a social drinker, pregnant, obese (BMI 30-40), has well controlled DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what ASA class is a patient with end stage renal disease undergoing regular scheduled dialysis?

A

ASA III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what ASA class would a patient be who is not expected to survive without the operation?

A

ASA 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which artery is most at risk of complications during laparoscopic ports and surgical drains?

A

inferior epigastric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which nerve is most at risk of complication during an axillary node clearance?

A

long thoracic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which nerve is most at risk during a posterior approach to the hip for replacement?

A

sciatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

name the 2 forms of inhaled anaesthesia?

A
  • volatile liquid anaesthetics (isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane)
  • nitrous oxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which inhaled anaesthetic is used for induction of anaesthesia and which is used to maintain anaesthesia?

A

volatile liquid anaesthetics used to induce and maintain anaesthesia

nitrous oxide used to maintain anaesthesia only but can be used for analgesia in labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is probably the most commonly used induction agent for general anaesthesia?

what is it’s mechanism of action?

A

propofol

it potentiates GABAa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

why is propofol useful in patients with a high risk of post op vomiting?

A

it has some anti-emetic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which IV anaesthetic causes less hypotension than propofol and thiopental and is therefore used more commonly in cases of haemodynamic instability?

what is one side effect of this anaesthetic?

A

etomidate

it can cause primary adrenal suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which anaesthetic is particularly useful in trauma as it doesnt cause a drop in blood pressure?

A

ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

A

blocks NMDA receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which airway adjunct has poor control against reflux of gastric contents?

A

laryngeal mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

name when the following drugs are stopped prior to surgery:

a) warfarin
b) LMWH
c) anti-platelet (clopidogrel)

A

a) warfarin - 5 days before surgery
b) heparin- 24 hours prior to surgery
c) anti-platelet - 7 days before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which is the only cardiac drug that is usually stopped in the peri-operative period?

how long prior to surgery is it stopped and why?

A

ACEi

stopped the day before surgery

due to risk of AKI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are high risk patients who have stopped warfarin given for the 5 interim days prior to surgery?

A

they are bridged with heparin

patients who are considered high risk:

  • AF
  • VTE within 3/12
  • metal heart valve
  • multiple replacement valves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when should warfarin be restarted if there is no major bleeding during procedure?

A

restart it on day of procedure and cover with heparin

recheck INR in 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

name 2 type of GABAa agonists?

A

propofol

thiopental

used as induction agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

name 3 types of muscle relaxants used?

what is their mechanism of action?

A

rocuronium

vecuronium

suxamethonium

they are all nACh antagonists
(n stands for nicotinic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what can be used to reverse the actions of muscle relaxants (nACh antagonists)?

A

neostigmine

it is an acetylecholineesterase inhibitor –> therefore it increases the amount of ACh in the synaptic cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is used to manage bradycardia during GA?

A

atropine IV 500mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what syndrome occurs when there is aspiration of the stomach acid into the lungs when under GA?

how does it present?

A

mendelson syndrome

hypoxia 2-5 hours following anaesthesia

24
Q

name 2 drugs used in hypotension during GA?

A

ephedrine - a and b agonist

metaraminol - a1 agonist

25
Q

name the 3 areas of the body where LA with adrenaline cannot be used?

A

fingers

ears

nose

due to end arteries and risk of ischcemia

26
Q

in patients taking prednisolone, what is the most important additional drug to prescribe prior to surgery?

A

hydrocortisone

27
Q

why may Hartmans be preferred to 0.9% saline in patients who require a large volume of fluids?

A

there is a risk of hypercloraemic acidosis if large quantities of 0.9% saline are given

this risk is less with Hartmans.

28
Q

what is the most appropriate Mx in a patient who takes metformin and has poorly controlled diabetes peri-operatively?

A

start a variable rate insulin infusion

this is required in any patients on insulin who are undergoing major procedures or who’s diabetes is poorly controlled

29
Q

name 5 operations that have an unlikely chance of requiring transfusion?

what action should therefore be taken peri operatively?

A

hysterectomy, appendicectomy, thyroidectomy, elective lower segment CS, laparoscopic cholecystectomy

just group and save them

30
Q

how many units of blood should be cross matched in cases requiring definite transfusion? (AAA repair, cystectomy, oesophagectomy)

A

cross match 4-6 units

31
Q

what does post op ileus occur as a result of?

how is it managed?

A

a common complication that occurs in colorectal surgery due to intra-operative bowel handling

Mx = insertion of a NG tube for stomach decompression and make patient nil by mouth to allow bowel rest

32
Q

compare omission of metformin on day of surgery depending on if it is taken OD, BD or TDS?

A

OD or BD - take as normal

TDS - omit lunchtime dose

33
Q

when should LMWH be started following THR surgery?

A

6-12 hours following surgery

34
Q

which neuromuscular blocker is contraindicated in patients with hyperkalemia?

A

suxamethonium

it can cause hyperkalemia

35
Q

in which situations would an nasopharyngeal airway be contraindicated?

A

base of skull fractures

36
Q

where is intraosseus access must commonly obtained?

A

the proximal tibia

37
Q

why are laryngeal masks ideal for daycase procedures?

A

they dont require muscle paralysis, so recovery is faster

38
Q

what is the ideal vein to administer total parenteral nutrition from?

A

subclavian vein

39
Q

name 4 signs of the airway being patent?

A
  • chest is rising and falling
  • mask is steaming up
  • positive readings on capnography
  • you can hear it
40
Q

name the 2 types of airway adjuncts?

A

oropharyngeal (or Guedel airway adjuncts)

nato-pharyngeal airway adjuncts

41
Q

what is the only type of airway adjunct that can be used in a conscious patient?

A

a nasopharyngeal airway

42
Q

how can the length required of a nasopharyngeal airway be calculated?

A

length corresponds to the distance between the tip of the patients nose to the earlobe

43
Q

which nostril should you try placing a nasopharyngeal airway in 1st?

A

the right nostril

44
Q

how are oropharyngeal/ Guedel airways measured?

A

from the incisors to the angle of the jaw

45
Q

what must be done before an oropharyngeal airway is placed in a mouth?

A

open the mouth and check that there is no foreign materials that could be pushed further into the larynx

46
Q

compare the oxygen delivery potential of nasal cannulae and a Hudson mask?

A

nasal cannulae- 1-4L/min

Hudson mask - 5-10L/min

47
Q

what do supraglottic airway devices allow?

A

they allow ventilation, oxygenation and administration of anaesthetic gases without needing ET tube intubation

48
Q

which airway device should be used if you are in doubt as to which one to use?

A

I-gels

49
Q

what does LMA stand for?

A

laryngeal mask airways

50
Q

name 3 main indications for a supraglottic airway device to be used?

A
  • resuscitation (use iGel)
  • GA cases where an ET intubation is deemed unnecessary
  • GA cases when the patient is fasted and aspiration risk is deemed as low
51
Q

what is the one absolute contraindication to using supraglottic airway devices during GA?

A

if the anaesthetist feels there is a significant risk of aspiration

52
Q

name 6 other contraindications to using SGA’s during GA?

A
  • pregancy
  • morbidly obese
  • intra abdominal pathology
  • gastro paresis
  • history of gastric reflux or hiatus hernia
  • recent major trauma
53
Q

which 2 forms of anaesthesia is malignant hyperthermia most likely to occur with?

A

suxamethonium

volatile anaesthetics (isoflurane, sevoflurane)

54
Q

compare what happens if any of the following anaesthetic drugs are overdosed?

a) propofol
b) suxamethonium

A

a) propofol - hypotension
b) suxamethonium - suxamethonium apnoea (they lack the enzyme to break it down, so have prolonged apnoea)

suxamethonium can also cause malignant hyperthermia

55
Q

what should be done pre-op for a patient taking warfarin?

A

stop the warfarin and begin LMWH

it is a shorter acting anticoagulant

56
Q

what is the most appropriate management for local anaesthetic toxicity?

A

lipid emulsion

57
Q

what investigation should be done to confirm a post operative ileus?

A

U&Es

monitor electrolytes

AA Y4 Finals cards NE (40 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions