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AA Y4 Finals cards NE > Obstetrics > Flashcards

Obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

where is the symphyseal- fundal height measured from?

A

measured from the top of the uterus to the pubic symphysis

correlates to gestational age +/- 2cm

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2
Q

what is a breech presentation?

A

the baby’s sacrum is in the pelvis, rather than the baby’s head

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3
Q

where does fertilisation occur?

A

the ampulla of uterine tubes

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4
Q

once the ovum is fertilised a blastocyst is formed. what is a blastocyst ?

A

the term used to describe when embryo has divided into 2 separate cells

the inner cell develops embryo
outer cell becomes the trophoblast and goes on to develop placenta

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5
Q

what 2 hormones are secreted by the placenta?

A

HCG

Progesterone

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6
Q

what is the role of HCG?

A

stimulates corpus lutem to produce progesterone

this prevents endometrial shedding and ensures early nutrition of embryo

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7
Q

when do levels of HCG peak?

A

they continue to increase up until week 10, when they peak and then subsequently reduce

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8
Q

name the 2 main functions of progesterone?

A
  1. prepares and maintains endometrium

2. reduces uterine contractions

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9
Q

how do progesterone levels change throughout pregnancy?

A

they continue to increase steadily throughout pregnancy

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10
Q

where is progesterone produced?

A

initially produced by the corpus luteum

then produced by the placenta

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11
Q

name the 3 actions of oestrogen?

A
  1. development of breasts
  2. enlargement of uterus
  3. relaxation of pelvic ligaments
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12
Q

what happens to maternal PCO2 during pregnancy?

A

it is reduced

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13
Q

what happens to maternal Hb during pregnancy? why does this happen?

A

Hb levels reduced

a result of the increased plasma volume causing haemo-dilution

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14
Q

during labour, which 3 hormones are responsible for increasing uterine contractions?

A

oestrogen
oxytocin
prostaglandins

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15
Q

which hormone during labour stimulates prostaglandin release?

A

oxytocin

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16
Q

what is Ferguson reflex, which is seen in labour?

A

stretching of the cervix stimulates oxytocin release

oxytocin release results in further stretching of the cervix and activation of the reflex

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17
Q

how can ‘false’ contractions, known as Braxton hicks be resolved?

A

unlike ‘true’ contractions, they can be resolved by lying down or changing position

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18
Q

what is a normal number of contractions at peak during labour?

A

3 or 4 contractions every 10 minutes

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19
Q

how prolonged does a pregnancy have to be for it to be induced?

A

> 41 weeks

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20
Q

what is usually given 1st line to induce labour?

A

topical prostaglandin to the cervix

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21
Q

describe the definitions of the 3 stages of labour?

A

stage 1: onset of labour to full dilatation of cervix (within this, there is a latent and active stage)

stage 2: full dilatation to delivery

stage 3: delivery of baby to the delivery of placenta and membranes

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22
Q

compare the maximal acceptable time for a nulliparous women with and without anaesthesia to be in stage 2 of labour

A

nulli w/ anaesthesia: 3 hours

nulli w/o: 2 hours

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23
Q

compare the maximal acceptable time for a multiparous women with and without anaesthesia to be in stage 2 of labour

A

multi w/ anaesthesia: 2 hours

multi w/o anaesthesia: 1 hour

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24
Q

why is active management of stage 3 labour preferred to expectant management?

A

active mamagement reduces risk of PPH

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25
Q

what is classed as failure to progress in labour?

A

less than 2cm in 4 hours

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26
Q

how does the onset and duration of a spinal compare to an epidural?

A

spinals have a faster onset of action and dont last as long

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27
Q

what type of anaesthetic is preferred for C sections

A

spinal anaesthetic

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28
Q

what is the most common cause of puerperal pyrexia ?

what should be done if this is found ?

A

most common cause = endometritis

admit for IV clindamycin and gentamicin until px afebrile for 24 hours

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29
Q

what is the main risk associated with external cephalic version?

A

Rh autoimmunisation

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30
Q

what does fetal distress indicate?

A

fetal hypoxia

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31
Q

what is muconeum stain liquor? what is this a sign of?

A

it is when the liquor is thick and green due to baby passing bowel movements

a sign of fetal distress or post term baby

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32
Q

what is terbutaline and when can it be used?

A

it is a tocolytic (anti-contraction)

can be used in cases of fetal distress to stop contractions and allow for an operative delivery

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33
Q

when do the majority of cord prolapses occur?

A

during artificial rupture of membranes

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34
Q

describe the presentation of a cord prolapse

A

fetal distress seen following rupture of membranes

pulsatile mass seen on vaginal exam

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35
Q

how is a cord prolapse managed

A

continual CTG
push presenting part of fetus back into uterus to reduce compression

give terbutaline and prepare for cat 1/2 CS

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36
Q

what technique can be used in cases of shoulder dystocia?

A

McRobert’s position

woman lies flat with thighs against abdomen

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37
Q

name the nerve roots affected in the 2 nerve palsies that may occur in shoulder dystocia

A
  • Erb’s palsy: C5,6, 7

- Klumpkes palsy: C8-T1

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38
Q

what happens when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation?

A
  • cardiopulmonary compromise

- severe DIC

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39
Q

in which patients is a uterine rupture most likely to occur?

A

patients who are having a vaginal birth after a caesarean

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40
Q

how does a uterine rupture present?

A

loss of engagement

fetal distress

maternal shock

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41
Q

how is a uterine rupture managed?

A

emergency laparotomy

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42
Q

which landmarks is an episiotomy made from?

A

the vagina to the ischio-anal fossa

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43
Q

what gestational dates define preterm labour?

A

delivery from 37 - 42+0 weeks

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44
Q

what are the gestational dates associated with the following pre term labours?

1) moderate/late
2) very
3) extremely

A

1) moderate/late: 32-37 weeks
2) very: 28-32 weeks
3) extremely <28 weeks

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45
Q

what antibiotic is given to mothers who have a preterm pre labour rupture of membranes?

A

erythromycin

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46
Q

what is the role of dexamethasone in premature babies?

A

helps to promote maturity of the lungs by stimulating surfactant production

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47
Q

when is magnesium sulphate given and why is it given?

A

given in established labour

it provides baby with neuroprotection

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48
Q

what options is there to delay a preterm labour?

A

pharmacological: nifedipine
surgical: Mcdonald’s suture (pinches the cervix shut)

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49
Q

what is the definition of placental retention in active or passive management of stage 3?

A

active management: >30 mins

passive management: > 60 mins

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50
Q

what happens in placenta accreta?

A

the placenta embeds in the myometrium due to defective decidua basalis (bottom layer of placenta)

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51
Q

in addition to a CS, what should also be planned following delivery for the mother? why?

A

hysterectomy
post delivery contraception

this reduces risk of PPH

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52
Q

why is uterine inversion considered an emergency?

A

high risk of maternal shock and PPH

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53
Q

describe uterine inversion?

A

when the uterine fundus collapses into the endometrial cavity

staging is dependant on just how inverted the uterus is

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54
Q

in uterine inversion, following manual replacement of the uterus, what is given? why is this given?

A

oxytocin is given

it maintains uterine contractions to prevent another inversion

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55
Q

what amount of blood loss constitutes PPH?

A

> 500mls of blood loss following delivery

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56
Q

what timescale does a secondary PPH occur in?

A

24hours- 12 weeks following delivery

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57
Q

name the 4 T’s that can cause PPH?

A

Tone - uterine atony
Trauma- perineal damage
Tissue- retained placenta (placenta accreta)
Thrombin - DIC

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58
Q

which cause of PPH would present with an extremely painful uterus on palpation and vaginal bleeding?

A

uterine rupture

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59
Q

what is the most common cause of PPH?

A

uterine atony

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60
Q

how is uterine atony managed?

A

oxytocin administered
controlled cord traction
cord clamping between 1-5 minutes

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61
Q

in the medical management of uterine atony/PPH, who should not be given IV syntocinon (oxytocin)

A

those with hypertension

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62
Q

at what point is a downs screening, including nuchal thickness testing done?

A

11 - 13+6 weeks

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63
Q

if a pregnant woman is found to be rhesus -ive, when is the 1st dose of anti D given?

A

28 weeks

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64
Q

when is folic acid given and why is it given?

A

should be taken 3 months preconception and for the duration of the 1st trimester

to reduce neural tube defects

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65
Q

which vitamin is tetatogenic and should be avoided in pregnancy?

A

vitamin A

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66
Q

describe how HCG, inhibin A, AFP, PAPA and estriol are affected in downs?

A

High: HCG and inhibin A

Low: AFP, PAPA and estriol

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67
Q

how is AFP affected in cases of twins?

A

AFP is raised

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68
Q

which common genetic condition also causes cardiac abnormalities?

A

downs syndrome

can cause ASD, PDA, tetralogy of fallot

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69
Q

which genetic condition presents with cardiac, GI and urogenital abnormalities + severe mental disability?

what is the genetic change?

A

Edward’s syndrome

trisomy 18

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70
Q

which genetic condition presents with cleft palate, microcephaly and severe mental disability?

what is the mutation seen?

A

Patu syndrome

trisomy 13

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71
Q

compare when chorionic villus sampling can be carried out compared with amniocentesis?

A

chorionic villus sampling: 10-13 weeks

amniocentesis: >15 weeks

CVS therefore allows chromosomal abnormalities to be identified earlier

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72
Q

name 5 of the risks of chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis

A
  • infection
  • bleeding
  • Rh autoimmunisation
  • misscarraige (higher in CVS)
  • amniotic fluid leak
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73
Q

name 2 advantages of amniocentesis over CVS?

A
  • allows neural tube defects to be identified

- it is safer (miscarriage rate is 1% for amniocentesis and 2% for CVS)

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74
Q

compare what is sampled in chorionic villus sampling v amniocentesis

A

CVS: the placenta

amniocentesis: amniotic fluid

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75
Q

compare FISH and array CGH in terms of what they test for genetically?

A

FISH: targeted

array CHG: tests whole genome

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76
Q

what would an asymmetrical growth restriction suggest as the cause of growth restriction?

A

placental insufficiency

the head circumference is normal but abdominal circumference low

suggests the restriction occurred later in pregnancy, making placental insufficiency likely

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77
Q

how much larger than expected does the symphyseal-fundal height have to be to diagnose large for dates?

A

SF height > 2cm than expected for dates

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78
Q

what is the commonest type of monozygotic twins?

A

monochorionic, diamniotic

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79
Q

what amount of amitotic fluid defines polyhydramnios?

A

> 1500ml

80
Q

how does polyhydramnios present?

A

SOB, abdominal discomfort, can’t lie flat

O/E: tense, shiny ab, large uterus and difficult to feel foetus

81
Q

name 3 possible complications of polyhydramnios?

A

cord prolapse
preterm labour
premature rupture of membranes

82
Q

how is polyhydramnios managed?

A

manage underlying cause
U/S to assess fetal health
increase monitoring and iron and folate consumption

83
Q

what is oligohydramnios?

A

inadequate amount of amniotic fluid

<500mls @ 32-36 wks

84
Q

name 4 causes of oligohydramnios

A
  • IUGR
  • renal agenesis
  • premature rupture of membranes
  • preclampsia
85
Q

what is potters syndrome

A

a triad of symptoms seen as a result of oligohydramnios

  • club feet
  • pulmonary hypoplasia
  • flat nose, recessed chin, low set ears and skeletal abnormalities
86
Q

who is +ive and who is -ive in rhesus haemolytic disease?

A

mum is -ive

baby is +ive

their blood is then mixed in a ‘sensitising event’

87
Q

why isn’t the 1st pregnancy affected by the sensitising event in rhesus haemolytic disease?

A

initially, mum produces IgM in response - IgM doesn’t cross placenta

88
Q

why is the second pregnancy (and every one after) affected in rhesus haemolytic disease

A

mum is now producing IgG antibodies, which can cross the placenta and break down fetal RBCs

89
Q

what can happen to the foetus if its RBCs are being broken down in rhesus haemolytic disease

A
  • progressive anaemia
  • congestive cardiac failure
  • increased bilirubin causing CNS dysfunction
  • hydrops fetalis
90
Q

how can potential sensitising events in rhesus haemolytic disease be managed?

A

give anti D to mum whenever there is a possibility of a sensitising event

91
Q

when is anti D given to rhesus negative pregnant mothers?

A

28 and 34 weeks

92
Q

what test can be used to check if maternal and fetal blood has mixed?

A

kleihauer test

indirect Coombs test can also be used (+ive test = mum is sensitised)

93
Q

describe when decelerations are normal and abnormal in CTG?

A

normal: early decels - being at start of contraction and recover when contraction stops
abnormal: late decels - occur at peak of contraction and recover 30s following completion of contraction

94
Q

what do late decels indicate? what investigations are required?

A

fetal asphixia or placental insufficiency

late decels an indication for foetal blood sampling

95
Q

how long must there be loss of variability before you can get worried?

A

loss of variability for >90 mins

this in combination of late decelerations is worrying

96
Q

what is the standard artery used in doppler assessment?

A

the umbilical artery

97
Q

what is the name of the vessel that shunts blood from the left umbilical vein to the fetal inferior vena cava

A

ductus venosus

this allows blood to pass directly from the umbilical vein into the inferior vena cava

98
Q

what is the name of the shunt that allows oxygenated blood to pass directly from the right atrium into the left atrium?

A

foramen ovale

99
Q

how is pharmacological absorption, volume of distribution, liver metabolism and renal excretion affected in the pregnant state?

A

absorption: reduced
VoD: increased:
liver metabolism: increased
renal excretion: increased

100
Q

which class of drugs during labour causes premature closure of the ductus arteriosus?

A

NSAIDs

101
Q

what is the ductus arteriosus? why is it essential to the foetus?

A

it forms a shunt between the fetal pulmonary veins and the descending aorta

the lungs in the foetus are currently non-functional, so dont require oxygenated blood

it is therefore redistributed to the rest of the body via the ductus arteriosus

102
Q

what is the standard and the higher folic acid doses for pregnancy?

A

standard: 400mcg/day
higher: 5mg/day

103
Q

who is indicated to get the higher (5mg) dose of folic acid?

A
  • obese women

- diabetics

104
Q

what vitamins are included in the healthy start vitamins?

A

folic acid, vit C, vit D

105
Q

what can phenytoin cause if taken during pregnancy

A

cleft lip

106
Q

which drug causes epstein’s anomaly?

what is this?

A

lithium causes epsteins abnormality

abnormality of the tricuspid valve

107
Q

which drug during pregnancy can cause spina bifida and anencephaly?

A

valproate

108
Q

how should VTE be treated in pregnancy?

A

LMWH

avoid DOACs and warfarin

109
Q

how should a UTI in the 1st trimester of preg be treated?

A

nitrofurantoin
or
cephalexin

110
Q

how should a UTI in the 2 or 3 trimester be treated?

A

Trimethoprim
or
cephalexin

111
Q

name the 2 beta blockers that can be used for hypertension in pregnancy?

A

methyldopa

labetalol

112
Q

what can be given for N&V in pregnancy?

A

cyclizine

113
Q

what nutritional deficiency is most likely to occur in HG?

what will this predispose to?

A

vit B1 deficiency (B1=thiamine)

predispose to wernickes encephalopathy

114
Q

what 3 things are required to diagnose HG?

A
  • > 5% weight loss
  • electrolyte imbalance
  • dehydration

raised beta HCG levels also seen

115
Q

name 1st and 2nd line medications for HG?

A

1st: promethazine, cyclizine
2nd: ondansetron and metoclopramide

116
Q

why does BP naturally fall during 1st 1/2 of pregnancy?

A

due to the expansion of the utero-placental circulation

lowest BP reached at 24 weeks

117
Q

what are the risks of HT during pregnancy to mum and foetus?

A

Mum: increases risk of pre eclampsia

foetus: IUGR, still birth, placental abruption

118
Q

how should pre existing HT be managed prior to conception?

A

ACEi/ARBs should be stopped prior to conception

BP will naturally decrease during pregnancy so no need to start new ones

119
Q

in which pregnant patients is methyl dopa contra indicated

A

those with depression

120
Q

when and why should aspirin be used in pregnancy?

A

used to reduce risk of pre-eclampsia

start after 12 weeks, 75mg/day

121
Q

name the 2 features of pre-eclampsia?

A

hypertension

proteinuria

122
Q

what is the underlying pathology that causes pre eclampsia?

A

failure of the trophoblast cells to invade the endometrium

123
Q

what does the failure of the trophoblast cells to invade the endometrium result in in PE?

A

abnormal placental perfusion

maternal syndrome

124
Q

what actually is eclampsia?

A

tonic clonic seizures due to pre eclampsia

125
Q

what is the main cause of death in pre eclampsia

A

pulmonary oedema

126
Q

what is HELLP (associated with pre eclampsia)

A

Heamolysis
Elevated LFTs
Low Platelets

127
Q

how is HT managed in pre eclampsia?

A

1st line: labetolol

deliver baby within 2 weeks

128
Q

should ergometrine be used in stage 3 of a pre eclamptic labour?

A

No… absolutely not!

its used to contract the uterus… there is already plenty of constriction in a pre eclamptic patient

129
Q

when should an OGTT be offered to any pregnant women with risk factors for gestational diabetes?

A

24-28 weeks

women who have had GD in previous pregnancies should also have OGTT at booking appt

130
Q

what is the 1st line drug used to treat established diabetes in pregnancy?

A

metformin

131
Q

what medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?

A

propylthiouracil

or carbimazole

132
Q

how does pregnancy affect epilepsy seizures?

A

typically increases the number of epileptic seizures

133
Q

how should epilepsy be treated in pregnancy?

A

anti epileptics stopped - can cause neural tube defects

damage to foetus by AE drugs outweighs that of seizures

134
Q

what is the least teratogenic anti-epileptic?

A

carbamazepine

135
Q

is breastfeeding safe when on anti epileptics?

A

yes it is

136
Q

what appointments should Hb be checked?

A

booking appt

28 and 34 weeks

137
Q

how is VTE treated in pregnant women?

A

heparin

it is safe in pregnancy

138
Q

at what point in pregnancy is cholestasis of pregnancy most likely to occur?

A

3rd trimester

139
Q

on LFT, what shows cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

increased bilirubin

140
Q

how is cholestasis of pregnancy managed?

A
  • urseodeoxycholic acid for itch
  • increased monitoring LFTs
  • vit K pre and post birth to reduce chance of haemorrhagic disease of newborn
  • induction of labour 37/38 weeks
141
Q

how are UTIs in pregnancy treated?

A

same as normal

1st/2nd trimester: nitrofurentoin or cefalexin

3rd trimester: trimethoprim or cefalexin

142
Q

how is pyelonephritis in pregnancy treated ?

A

co-amoxiclav

143
Q

which is the only SSRI that is recommended while breast feeding?

A

sertraline

144
Q

which 2 antidepressants is are considered safe in post natal depressed, breastfeeding mothers?

A

paroxetine

sertraline

145
Q

name the 3 early symptoms of puerperal psychosis?

A
  • severe mood swings
  • confusion
  • disordered thought- auditory hallucinations
146
Q

what is the timeframe required for PV bleeding to be termed antepartum haemorrhage?

A

24 weeks gestation to before onset of labour

147
Q

in suspected antepartum haemorrhages, what must be done before a PV exam ?

A

an U/S - must rule out placenta praaevia before doing a PV exam

148
Q

what is the greatest risk factor for a placental abruption?

A

previous abruption

149
Q

what condition causes a tense, woody uterus on examination?

A

placental abruption

150
Q

how are placental abruptions <36 weeks with no maternal compromise or fetal distress managed?

A

carry to term
steroids, NO tocolytics and admit to monitor

bleeding and pain need to have stopped

151
Q

how are placental abruptions managed >36 weeks if there is A) maternal compromise

B) no distress

A

A) CS

B) vaginal delivery

152
Q

describe the difference between minor and major placenta praaevia?

A

minor: does not cover the OS
major: partially or completely covers the OS

153
Q

describe the difference in vaginal bleeding between placental abruption and placenta praaevia?

A

placental abruption: painful vaginal bleeding

placenta praaevia: painless vaginal bleeding

154
Q

when does placenta praaevia typically present? describe the course of the bleeding?

A

usually > 20 weeks, most commonly in 3rd trimester

bleeding tends to start light and become heavier

155
Q

describe the differences in findings on examination in placental abruption and praaevia?

A

placental abruption: woody and tender abdomen

placenta praaevia: abdomen is soft and non-tender

156
Q

how is placenta praevia managed if found incidentally during a routine scan?

A

conservatively: most resolve before labour

baby is delivered if abnormal lie at 37 weeks or if high presenting part

157
Q

where do fetal blood vessels develop in vasa previa?

what can this result in during rupture of membranes?

A

fetal blood vessels develop within the membranes

when the membranes rupture, so too do the fetal blood vessels

158
Q

what condition presents with painless vaginal bleeding following rupture of membranes?

A

vasa previa

159
Q

what is the diagnostic U/S investigation for vasa previa?

A

pelvic ultrasound

160
Q

what is given 1st line in N&V in pregnancy? what class is this?

A

promethazine

an antihistamine

161
Q

what is the medication of choice to suppress lactation?

A

cabergoline

dopamine receptor agonist

162
Q

what does fetal varicella syndrome put mother at much greater risk of?

A

pneumonitis

163
Q

what is fetal varicella syndrome?

A

reactivated shingles in a pregnant woman

164
Q

what is the antibiotic of choice to give to pregnant women with pyrexia and a suspicion of a bacterial infection ?

A

benzylpenicillin

it is effective against group B strep, which is the main cause of bacterial infections during pregnancy

165
Q

describe cases in which AFP is raised, and cases when it is reduced

A

AFP raised: neural tube defects and abdominal wall defects

AFP reduced: downs syndrome, maternal diabetes

166
Q

what causes chroioamnionitis?

A

an ascending bacterial infection of the amniotic fluids/membranes or placenta

it is caused by preterm rupture of membranes, which expose the normally sterile site to microbes

167
Q

how is chorioamnionitis managed?

A

urgent CS

IV antibiotics

168
Q

what is the main cause of early onset severe infection in neonates?

A

group B streptococcus

169
Q

when does group B strep infections need to be treated in pregnancy?

A

only if identified on a urine sample, concentration >x10^5

if it is just identified in the vagina, then nothing needs to be done

170
Q

compare the transmission of Hep B and HIV during breastfeeding?

A

Hep B cannot be transferred

HIV can be transferred in breast milk

171
Q

in pregnant HIV women, what is the antiretroviral of choice?

A

zidovudine

172
Q

describe the clinical signs of sheenan’s syndrome

A

postpartum hypopituitarism

patients will have amenhorrohea and inability to produce milk

173
Q

what BP value would warrant a pregnant women to be admitted and observed?

A

> 160/110

174
Q

what is fetal fibronectin (fFP)?

A

a protein that is released from the gestational sac

having a high fFP has been shown to be related to early labour

175
Q

at what gestation are pregnant woman who have been exposed to chickenpox (this being their 1st time) offered aciclovir rather than VZ §Ig?

A

20 weeks

if< 20 weeks, give varicella zoster Ig

if > 20 weeks, give acyclovir

176
Q

what medication can be used to control symptoms in postpartum thyroiditis?

A

if hyperthyroid: propranolol

if hypothyroid: thyroxine

177
Q

what syndrome causes post partum amenorrhoea and inability to lactate?

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

178
Q

what is the main indication for antenatal CTG monitoring to be used?

A

should only be used in pregnancies where there is an increased risk of fetal hypoxia

179
Q

what do accelerations on CTG indicate?

A

accelerations indicate fetal movements and therefore a functioning autonomic nervous system

reactive patterns are ones that have accelerations

180
Q

when should fetal hypoxia be suspected on CTG?

A

when there is reduced baseline variability for >50 mins

if it is accompanied by other abnormal features

181
Q

what is the 1st line treatment for eclampsia ?

A

magnesium sulphate

the most immediate concern in eclampsia is to treat the seizure

182
Q

what is the 1st line investigation for preterm pre labour rupture of membranes?

A

speculum examination

183
Q

according to NICE, what is the induction method of choice for labour ?

A

vaginal prostaglandin E2 gel

184
Q

after how many weeks gestation does gestational hypertension occur?

A

20 weeks gestation

185
Q

should the MMR vaccine be administered to women known to be pregnant or trying to become pregnant?

A

No- MMR vaccine may be offered to non-immune mothers in the post-natal period

186
Q

what is the most common cause of puerperal pyrexia?

A

endometritis

187
Q

what is the difference in definition between “stillbirth” and “miscarriage”?

A

a miscarriage is loss of pregnancy < 24 weeks gestation

stillbirth is loss of pregnancy >24 weeks

188
Q

how long before conceiving must methotrexate be stopped?

A

methotrexate must be stopped at least 6 months before conceiving

(this applies to both men and women)

189
Q

which 2 drugs are considered safe to take for RA in pregnancy?

A

sulfasalazine

hydroxychloroquine

190
Q

what are the 2 most useful measurements that can be obtained from fetal blood sampling?

A

pH

lactate

191
Q

what happens to the fetal condition during a prolonged bradycardia? what should be done in the case of a prolonged bradycardia on CTG?

A

fetal condition deteriorates rapidly

a persistent, severe bradycardia is sufficient indication for delivery

192
Q

is fetal blood sampling appropriate for 2nd stage labours?

A

no - an abnormal CTG trace in 2nd stage is normally an indication to expedite delivery

193
Q

at what gestation onwards is fetal blood sampling carried out?

A

34 weeks onwards

194
Q

what can compression of pelvic veins during pregancy cause?

A

lower body venous stasis

195
Q

what remains the biggest cause of maternal death?

A

thrombosis and thromboembolism

196
Q

how may drug OD occur in a women with pre eclampsia/eclampsia?

A

the pre eclampsia causes renal impairment

if drug doses are not altered accordingly, could result in toxicity

197
Q

what is the single biggest indirect cause of maternal deaths?

A

cardiac disease

AA Y4 Finals cards NE (40 decks)

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