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AA Y4 Finals cards NE > Child health > Flashcards

Child health Flashcards

1
Q

name the 3 immunisations given to babies at 2 months?

A
  1. the 6 in 1: DTAP, IPV, Hib B, Hep B
  2. rotavirus
  3. Meningococcal B
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2
Q

which immunisations are included in the 6 in 1 immunisation?

A 
Diphtheria 
Tetanus 
Pertussis 
Hib B 
Hep B
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3
Q

which 3 immunisations are given at 3 months?

A
  1. 6 in 1 (2nd dose)
  2. Rotavirus (2nd dose)
  3. Pneumococcal
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4
Q

which 2 immunisations are given at 4 months?

A
  1. 6 in 1 (3rd dose)

2. meningococcal B (2nd dose)

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5
Q

which 4 immunisations are given at 12/13 months?

A
  1. Hib/Men C
  2. Meningococcal (3rd dose)
  3. Pneumococcal (1st dose)
  4. MMR
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6
Q

which 2 immunisations are given at 3 years and 4 months?

A
  1. DTAP, IPV (4 in 1!)

2. MMR

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7
Q

when is the HPV vaccine given?

A

11-13 y/o

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8
Q

when is the DTAP, IPV booster and the meningococcal ACWY given?

A

13-18 y/o

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9
Q

name 4 live attenuated vaccines?

A
  1. MMR
  2. rotavirus
  3. BCG
  4. small pox
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10
Q

name 4 live attenuated vaccines?

A
  1. MMR
  2. rotavirus
  3. BCG
  4. small pox in
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11
Q

in what age of children is length measured rather than height?

A

<2 y/o

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12
Q

loss of how much body weight is considered normal in the 1st week of life?

A

5-10% loss

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13
Q

will kids with constitutional delay reach normal height?

A

yes- their growth following puberty is normal and they will reach normal adult height

they have a slow growth through childhood and a delayed growth spurt at puberty

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14
Q

which 3 causes of pathological growth must be considered in children?

A
  1. neglect
  2. endocrine: TSH, GH
  3. malabsorptive conditions: crohns, lactacte intolerance, CF
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15
Q

an increase in growth of testicles to what size would define puberty in boys?

A

growth of testicles > 4ml

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16
Q

which supplements should all children > 6months take?

A

ACD supplements

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17
Q

what supplement should all breastfeeding mothers take?

A

vit D supplements

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18
Q

what is the cause of enlarged, painful, swollen and shiny breasts?

how is this managed?

A

breast engorgement

empty breasts regularly with feeds or expression

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19
Q

when should the process od weaning begin?

when should full fat cows milk be introduced?

A

around 6 months

cows milk from age 1

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20
Q

a deficiency in how many of the 4 developmental domains constitutes a global delay?

A

significant delay in 2 of the 4

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21
Q

name some red flags to be aware of when assessing developmental markers?

A
  • asymmetry of movement
  • no smile by 10 weeks
  • no speech by 10 months
  • unable to sit supported by 12 months
  • unable to walk by 18 months
  • loss of skills
  • concerns over vision or hearing
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22
Q

which genetic condition can cause duodenal atresia?

A

downs syndrome

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23
Q

which genetic condition causes low set ears, small jaw and webbing of 2nd and 3rd toes?

A

Edward’s syndrome

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24
Q

which genetic condition causes cleft lip, microcephaly and extra fingers?

A

patu syndrome (trisomy 13)

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25
Q

which genetic condition causes cardiac abnormalities such as tetralogy of fallot?

A

Di George syndrome

deletion of chromosome 22

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26
Q

where is the mutation in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

X linked recessive mutation in the dystrophin gene

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27
Q

where is the muscle wasting in DMD?

A

proximal muscle wasting with pseudo hypertrophy of the calves

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28
Q

which cardiac condition is DMD linked with?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

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29
Q

which blood result will be very high in DMD?

A

CK - very very raised

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30
Q

compare the dystrophin gene in DMD and Becker’s muscular dystrophy?

A

DMD: dystrophin gene is non functional

Becker’s: dystrophin gene is semi-functional

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31
Q

which motor delay is caused by non-progressive CNS lesions sustained before 2 years of age?

A

cerebral palsy

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32
Q

how are the spastic symptoms of cerebral palsy managed?

A

botox, baclofen and diazepam

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33
Q

what is tracheolaryngobronchitis also known as?

A

Croup

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34
Q

what organism causes croup?

A

para influenza virus

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35
Q

what often precedes croup?

A

a viral prodrome

it is caused by para influenza virus

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36
Q

which condition on neck XR would show a narrow trachea? what is this sign called?

A

croup shows a narrow trachea on XR

also known as steeple’s sign

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37
Q

how is croup managed, regardless of if it is mild, moderate or severe?

A

dexamethasone for all

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38
Q

which cases of croup should be admitted? how should they be managed?

A

moderate or severe should be admitted

moderate: dexamethasone + nebulised adrenaline
severe: dexamethasone + adrenaline + oxygen +/- intubation

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39
Q

what is the most common causative of epiglottitis?

A

H. Influenzae type B

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40
Q

what is one way to differentiate croup from epiglottitis?

A

in croup, they can swallow their secretions

in epiglottitis, they can’t swallow their secretions –> results in the drooling seen (specific to epiglottitis)

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41
Q

compare the prodrome period in croup with epiglottitis?

A

croup: prodrome period
epiglottitis: NO prodrome period - it is sudden onset

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42
Q

describe the stridor heard in croup and epiglottitis?

A

croup: intermittent and harsh
epigglottitis: a constant, soft stridor

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43
Q

compare the cough in croup and epiglottitis?

A

croup: barking cough
epiglottitis: no cough

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44
Q

is there a fever in croup or epiglottitis?

A

croup: no fever
epiglottitis: fever

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45
Q

in which condition is a ‘thumb print’ sign seen on XR?

what causes a thumb print sign?

A

epiglottitis causes a thumb print sign

due to the enlarged epiglottis

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46
Q

when should management for epiglottitis be started?

A

immediately - do not wait for XR

call for anaesthetist and ENT

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47
Q

describe the management for epigglottitis?

A

oxygen and IV ceftriaxon

(epiglottitis and meningitis are often caused by the same causative (Hib) so both are treated with the same AB

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48
Q

which clinical condition often presents with cough, wheeze and no fever?

A

bronchitis

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49
Q

what is the causative organism in bronchiolitis?

A

respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

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50
Q

name 1 commonality and 2 differences between bronchitis and bronchiolitis?

A

similar: both follow on from an URTI/cold
different: - bronchiolitis causes a mild fever, bronchitis does not
- bronchiolitis causes intercostal recession and cyanosis, bronchitis does not

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51
Q

what age group is bronchiolitis typically seen?

A

<1 y/o

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52
Q

how are bronchitis and bronchiolitis managed?

A

supportive

kids with bronchiolitis may need oxygen

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53
Q

what clinical sign in a child with bronchiolitis would indicate that they need to be admitted?

A

grunting

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54
Q

what is the main causative in paediatric pneumonia?

A

strep pneumoniae

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55
Q

how is non-severe pneumoniae treated in patients <1 y/o and >1y/o?

A

<1y/o = co-amoxiclav

> 1y/o = amoxicillin (or clarithromycin if pen allergic)

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56
Q

how is severe pneumonia treated?

A

co-amoxiclav +/- clarithromycin

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57
Q

how is any hospital acquired pneumonia treated, regardless of severity?

A

co-amoxiclav

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58
Q

which condition typically presents with 1-2 weeks of a cold and cough at night, followed by 1-2 weeks of coughing fits followed by an inspiratory ‘whoop’?

A

whooping cough

bordetella pertussis

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59
Q

how is whooping cough managed if the cough started within 21 days?

A

if cough started within 21 days= azithromycin or clarithromycin

otherwise, care is supportive

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60
Q

can asthma be diagnosed clinically?

A

no, NICE now advise against a purely clinical diagnosis of asthma

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61
Q

what are the 2 1st line investigations to do for asthma?

A
  • fractional exhaled nitric oxide

- spirometry with bronchodilator reversibility

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62
Q

name the 1st 4 treatment steps for asthma, according to NICE?

A
  1. inhaled SABA (taken PRN)
  2. add inhaled corticosteroid (low dose, regular)
  3. add leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast)
  4. add a LABA (only continue if the patient has a good response)
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63
Q

in asthma management, what should be given if everything up to stage 4 of the treatment ladder (SABA+ICS+LABA) hasn’t worked?

A

SABA + maintenance and reliever therapy regime (MART)

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64
Q

compare the PEF rates in an acute asthma attack with a life threatening attack?

A

acute: PEF = 33-50% predicted

life threatening: PEF<33% predicted

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65
Q

what does O SHITMAn stand for in acute asthma management ?

A

Oxygen

Salbutamol 
Hydrocortisone (now give prednisolone) 
Ipratropium 
Theophylline (if life threatening or unresponsive) 
Magnesium sulphate (if PaO2<92%) 
Anaesthetist
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66
Q

how are most cases of acute otitis media managed?

A

most are self limiting within 4 days

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67
Q

if a patient is <2, has marked ottorrhea or bulging tympanic membrane, how should they be treated?

A

1st line: amoxicillin

clarithromycin if penicillin allergic

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68
Q

what 4 criteria make up the Centor criteria for tonsillitis?

A
  1. fever
  2. no cough
  3. tender cervical lymphadenopathy
  4. exudate visible on tonsils
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69
Q

if a patient meets the Centor criteria for tonsillitis, what medication is given 1st line?

A

1st line: penicillin V for 10 days

pen allergic: clarithromycin for 5 days

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70
Q

what condition causes a strawberry tongue and red, roughened macular rash on chest, arms, neck and legs?

A

scarlet fever

the rash avoids the mouth and is especially bad in skin folds

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71
Q

what causative does scarlet fever develop from?

A

group A bacterial strep throat

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72
Q

from which throat condition can rheumatic fever be a complication?

A

scarlet fever

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73
Q

what is the most common pathological murmur in children?

A

VSD

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74
Q

describe what is heard in VSD?

A

loud, pan systolic murmur best heard at the lower left sternal edge

it has associated thrills and may be associated with heart failure

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75
Q

which pathological paed murmur is best heard at the upper left sternal edge, and is a soft ejection systolic murmur?

A

atrial septal defect

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76
Q

compare the characteristic and location of VSD and ASD?

A

VSD: loud, pan systolic, heard best at lower left sternal edge

ASD: soft, ejection systolic heard best at the upper left sternal edge

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77
Q

which pathological paed murmur has a splitting of the second heard sound (S2)?

A

atrial septal defect

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78
Q

which murmur is associated with sea femoral and radio-femoral delay?

A

coarctation of the aorta

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79
Q

describe what is heard in patent ductus arteriosis?

A

continuous machine like murmur

best heard below lower left clavicle

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80
Q

compare what cyanosis and murmur may indicate, in a baby 1-2 months old and one 1-2 days old?

A

1-2 days old: transposition of the great vessels

1-2 months old: tetralogy of fallot

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81
Q

what is the main cause of gastroenteritis in children?

A

rotavirus

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82
Q

what is the 1st line investigation in a child with gastroenteritis?

A

stool PCR

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83
Q

what is mesenteric adenitis?

what does it occur secondary to?

A

inflammation of the mesenteric lymph nodes

occurs secondary to viral infections (gastroenteritis or URTI)

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84
Q

which condition occurs secondary to viral infection (such as URTI or gastroenteritis) and mimics appendicitis in presentation?

A

mesenteric adenitis

presents with fever and acute onset RIF pain, with diffuse tenderness and cervical lymphadenopathy

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85
Q

how is mesenteric adenitis managed?

A

supportive care, it is self limiting

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86
Q

what is the name of an IgA ANCA, small vessel vasculitis that causes a non-blanching rash on the buttocks and extensor surfaces?

A

henoch-schenlon Purpura vasculitis

87
Q

how is henoch schenlon Purpura normally diagnosed?

A

skin or renal biopsy

88
Q

describe the presentation of pyloric stenosis?

A

projectile vomiting immediately after feeding- vomit is milky and doesn’t contain any bile

89
Q

what electrolyte imbalance does the persistent vomiting in pyloric stenosis cause?

A

hypochloraemic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

90
Q

how is pyloric stenosis treated?

A

pyloromyotomy

91
Q

where in the bowel does intussusception most commonly occur?

A

the terminal ileum

92
Q

what can be seen on US in intussusception?

A

target lesion

93
Q

compare the vomit in pyloric stenosis and intussusception?

A

pyloric stenosis: milky vomit with no bile

intussusception: milky, yellow vomit with red jelly stool

94
Q

what is green, bilious vomit in a baby until proven otherwise?

A

malrotation with volvulus

95
Q

what is malrotation with volvulus caused by?

A

it is caused by absent attachments of the small bowel mesentery

this creates instability and allows organs to wrap round each other

the resulting volvulus quickly becomes ischaemic

96
Q

in what age category is malrotation with volvulus most likely to occur?

A

1 day to 1 year old

97
Q

what is the 1st line Ix for malrotation with volvulus?

A

US and upper GI contrast series

98
Q

how is malrotation with volvulus managed?

A

immediate referral for laparotomy

99
Q

what is thought to be the cause of toddler’s diarrhoea?

A

the bowels not working completely effectively

100
Q

what is the likely cause of water diarrhoea 4-10 times a day, with visible lumps of food?

A

toddler’s diarrhoea

101
Q

what is the Ix of choice for cow’s milk intolerance?

A

trial of milk free diet

102
Q

name 4 initial tests that are done in cases of chronic diarrhoea?

A
  • anti TTG
  • sweat test
  • stool culture
  • growth charts- if there is no deviation then unlikely to be malabsorptive or inflammatory
103
Q

name 4 red flags for constipation ?

A
  • no passage of meconium within 48 hours
  • abnormal appearance of anus
  • constipation from birth
  • faltering growth
104
Q

in what condition is there failure to pass first meconium within the 1st 48 hours and there is an explosive passage of stool following PR exam?

A

hirschprungs

105
Q

what is hirschprung’s due to and what condition is it often found in?

A

due to lack of innervation to the rectum and large intestine, so ineffective peristalsis occurs

often found in patients with downs syndrome

106
Q

what is the gold standard diagnostic test for hirschprung’s?

A

rectal biopsy

107
Q

how is hirschprung’s managed?

A

rectal washouts

108
Q

name 3 possible causatives of UTI in children?

A
  • vesicoureteric reflux: back flow of urine from bladder into kidney
  • renal tract abnormalities
  • renal scarring due to chronic infections and reflux
109
Q

what is the most common causative of UTI in children?

A

E.Coli

all children who are suspected of having UTI should have urinalysis done

110
Q

how should a UTI in <3months old infant be treated?

A

IV amoxicillin and gentamicin

111
Q

in which children with UTI should the renal tract be assessed with U/S?

A
  • all children <6 months- U/S during acute infection if recurrent or atypical, or within 6 weeks if a one off
  • all children >6mths who suffer recurrent UTIs
112
Q

what is the causative virus in measles and also mumps?

A

RNA paramyxovirus

spread via droplets

113
Q

name 3 significant symptoms in the presentation of measles?

A
  1. prodromal cough, fever, nasal discharge and conjunctivits
  2. koplicks spots
  3. maculopapular rash
114
Q

describe koplicks spots, seen in measles?

A

white spots on a red background, seen on the buccal mucosa

they develop during the prodromal period and disappear by the time the maculopapular rash appears

115
Q

when does the maculopapular rash in measles appear? describe it’s distribution?

A

it develops after around 4 days

rash usually starts on face, neck and behind the ears

it then rapidly spreads to cover the whole body

116
Q

what is the specific investigation done for measles?

A

ELISA - detects measles specific IgM

117
Q

how is measles managed?

A

notify public health

supportive management

118
Q

name 2 complications of measles?

A

acute demyelinating encephalitis

bronchopneumonia

119
Q

describe the presentation of mumps?

what is the presenting symptom specific to boys?

A

fever, malaise and muscular pain

parotid swellings

boys can present with orchitis

120
Q

what investigation is done for mumps?

A

IgM throat swab

121
Q

how is mumps managed?

A

isolation and supportive care

notify public health

122
Q

what is the classical hallmark of mumps?

A

parotitis

123
Q

what is another name for rubella?

A

German measles

124
Q

what is the causative of rubella?

A

RNA rubella virus

125
Q

name 3 risks to baby associated with rubella during pregancy?

A
  • congenital heart disease
  • deafness
  • reduced IQ
126
Q

how is pregancy during rubella managed?

A

immunoglobulin

it is screened for at booking

127
Q

where does atopic dermatitis occur in infants?

A

on extensor surfaces - the flexural surfaces are spared

128
Q

where is the skin spared in contact irritant/nappy rash?

A

skin folds are spared

129
Q

how can the rash in roseola be differentiated from the rash in rubella?

A

roseola has a high fever and a lack of sub occipital lymphadenopathy

130
Q

what type of virus is roseolavirus? how does it present?

A

a type of herpes virus

presents with fever and a discrete pink macular rash on trunk

131
Q

what is the causative of erythema infectosum and what is it’s informal name?

A

erythema infectosum caused by parvovirus B19

informally known as slapped cheek syndrome

132
Q

why is erythema infectosum also known as slapped cheek syndrome?

A

it causes bilateral macular erythema on the face

it also rash on the trunk, fever and poly arthritis

133
Q

when must kids with chicken pox be excluded from school till?

A

excluded till the rash is dry and crusted over

134
Q

what more serious skin condition can develop from chicken pox?

A

necrotising fasciitis (via group A strep)

NSAIDs increase the risk of development

135
Q

what is the causative of hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

coxsackie virus

136
Q

describe the presentation of coxsackie virus?

A

viral prodrome: sore throat with grey vesicles, surrounded by erythema with mouth ulcers

137
Q

how is hand foot and mouth managed?

A

supportive management - kids dont need to stay off school

138
Q

which condition causes purpura on the extensor surfaces, abdominal pain and fleeting arthralgia?

A

henoch Schonlein purpura

139
Q

which condition causes purpura with mild mucosal bleeding in an otherwise well child who is post infection?

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

140
Q

what is the causative of moluscum contagiosum

A

pox virus

141
Q

describe the rash seen in moluscum contageosum?

A

itchy, pearly pink papule with an umbilicated centre (its a fungus)

usually on head, neck and trunk

142
Q

how is impetigo managed?

A

hydrogen peroxide if systemically well

or, fusidic acid

143
Q

overall, what is the most common cause of meningitis?

A

viral

144
Q

which type of bacterial meningitis can be passed on from mum to neonate?

A

group B strep

145
Q

in which type of meningitis is LP containdicated?

A

meningococcal meningitis

146
Q

compare how suspected bacterial meningitis is treated in <3 months old and >3 months old infant?

A

<3 months: cefotaxime + amoxicillin IV

> 3 months: 1 dose cefotaxime, daily dose of ceftriaxone +/- dexamethasone IV

147
Q

what is the most common cause of infective encephalitis?

A

herpes simplex

148
Q

compare the presentations of meningitis and infective encephalitis?

A

both present similarly, but in infective encephalitis:

  • there is a viral prodrome
  • odd behaviour is more of a prominent symptom
149
Q

how is infective encephalitis managed?

A

IV acyclovir

150
Q

describe the presentation of a febrile convulsion?

A

generalised tonic clonic seizure that lasts < 5mins

occurs due to a rise in temperature due to a febrile illness (usually a viral infection)

151
Q

what age group are febrile convulsions most common in?

A

6months - 5 years

152
Q

which children with seizures should be admitted?

A

admit any child with first seizure or complex seizure

153
Q

name 4 features that are suggestive of epilepsy?

A
  • no clear Hx of febrile illness
  • complex febrile convulsions
  • developmental concerns
  • post ictal neurological signs
154
Q

why is being <2y/o a neurological red flag?

A

because children <2y/o dont tend to show the classical signs and symptoms of meningitis

155
Q

if a seizure lasts longer than 5 mins, an ambulance should be called. what medication should also be given?

A

IV midazolam

benzos

156
Q

what is a bulging fontanelle suggestive of in infants?

A

raised ICP

157
Q

how do the doses of anti-epileptics and theophylline required by infants compare to adults? why?

A

infants need an increased dose

this is due to greater metabolism due to comparative size of the liver

158
Q

how does the renal function of infants compare to adults?

A

infants have a much poorer renal function

dose adjusting for renal drugs required

159
Q

what temperature is classed as a fever in a child?

A

> 38 degrees

160
Q

where is the best place to measure temprature in a child?

A

the axilla

161
Q

in children with a suspected NAI, what should they be admitted to hospital for?

A
  • blood tests
  • forensic exam
  • skeletal survey (always done if <2 y/o)
162
Q

any child who is under what age must be referred to child protection?

A

any child <13 y/o

163
Q

what triad makes up ADHD?

A
  • hyperactivity
  • impulsivity
  • inattention (unable to focus and easily distracted)
164
Q

what is the 1st line tx for ADHD?

A

ritalin

a CNS stimulant

S/Ex - abdo pain, nausea, dyspepsia

165
Q

what condition presents with a fever >5 days, red palms of hand, bacterial conjunctivitis, widespread rash and dry cracked lips and strawberry tongue?

A

Kawasaki disease

a large to medium sized vasculitis

166
Q

how is Kawasaki disease treated?

A

high dose aspirin and IV Ig

167
Q

name the main complication of Kawasaki disease?

what Ix should be done to discount this?

A

coronary artery aneurysm

do an ECHO to discount

168
Q

what test is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis?

A

NaCl sweat test

CF patients will have high NaCl levels in sweat

169
Q

what condition causes a meconium ileus, recurrent chest infections and malabsorption leading to steatorrhoea?

A

cystic fibrosis

170
Q

what is the proper name for head lice?

A

pediculus capitis

171
Q

compare breast development in a patient with turner’s syndrome and one with compete androgen insensitivity

A

both have amenorrhoea

turner’s: no breast development

androgen insensitivity: normal breast development

172
Q

name the chromosome that denotes turner’s syndrome?

A

45 X

173
Q

what are the most common 2 cardiac defects seen in turner’s syndrome?

A

bicuspid aortic valve

coarctation of the aorta

174
Q

name the 4 features seen in tetralogy of fallot?

A
  1. ventricular septal defect
  2. overriding aorta
  3. RV outflow obstruction
  4. RV hypertrophy (due to the outflow obstruction)
175
Q

which cardiac condition are Di George, trisomy 13, 18 and 21 associated with?

A

tetralogy of fallot

176
Q

why should prostaglandin E1 be given in cases of cyanotic congenital heart diseases?

A

it maintains a patent ductus arteriosus to allow continue tissue oxygenation until surgery can be completed

177
Q

what is a key sign of transposition of the great vessels?

A

cyanosis caused by crying

178
Q

name the 5 S’s of innocent murmurs?

A
  1. soft
  2. systolic
  3. short
  4. symptomless
  5. seated/standing - they vary with position
179
Q

which virus passed from mother to baby will cause hearing loss, low birth weight, petechial rash, microcephaly and seizures?

A

congenital cytomegalovirus

180
Q

what is the commonest cause of stridor in children?

A

laryngomalacia

181
Q

compare the characteristics of patients that have 1) perthe’s disease and 2) SUFE?

A

Perthe’s disease: groin pain in a young boy who is small and hyperactive (5-12 y/o)

SUFE: groin pain in a young adolescent boy who is obese

182
Q

where is the best pulse to feel in kids?

A

femoral and brachial

183
Q

what grade of murmurs can you feel?

A

grade 4 murmurs

184
Q

are innocent murmurs diastolic or systolic? where are they normally heard?

A

always systolic

normally heard at the lower left sternal edge

185
Q

which direction does the pressure go in a shunt?

A

always high pressure to low pressure

186
Q

why do the shunts stop in the heart ?

A

the R to L shunt no longer exists

pressure in L side of the heart is now greater than the R side, so the ducts close

187
Q

what is the most common cause of a serious lower respiratory tract infection in <1 y/o’s?

A

bronchiolitis

188
Q

which condition are koplick spots pathagnomic for?

A

measles

koplick spots = small white lesions on the buccal mucosa

189
Q

compare the distribution of the rash in measles and scarlet fever?

A

in measles, the rash starts on the face

in scarlet fever, the rash begins on the abdomen

190
Q

what is the 1st line investigation for all babies less than 24 hours old with suspected or obvious jaundice?

A

measure and record the serum bilirubin urgently (within 2 hours of birth)

191
Q

newly born infants with what capillary blood glucose level should be admitted to the neonatal unit and started on 10% dextrose infusion?

A

those with capillary blood glucose <1mm0l/L

even if they are asymptomatic

192
Q

what treatment is a 3 month old girl with DDH most likely to be given?

A

pavlik harness

193
Q

which condition causes a high grade fever that lasts for >5 days and is characteristically resistant to antipyretics?

A

Kawasaki disease

194
Q

what is a significant risk factor for meconium aspiration?

A

post term delivery

195
Q

what can be considered the key symptom in a girl with androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

groin swellings

they are undescended testicles

195
Q

what can be considered the key symptom in a girl with androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

groin swellings

they are undescended testicles

196
Q

what is the most common complication of measles?

A

otitis media

orchitis is the most common complication of mumps

197
Q

is orchitis a complication of mumps or measles?

A

mumps

in measles, otitis media is a more common complication

198
Q

which condition is synonymous with a rough, sandpaper rash?

A

scarlet fever

also have swollen tongue and lymphadenopathy

tx = penicillin V

199
Q

who is given IgG antibody injections as a newborn?

A

babies with chronic lung disease due to NRDS and the treatment that accompanies it

200
Q

why must weight and height be monitored every 6 months in patients on Ritalin (for ADHD)?

A

its a stimulant, so can suppress appetite and cause growth impairment in children

potentially cardiotoxic as well so do a baseline ECG

201
Q

what would typicality be heard on examination of an atrial septal defect?

A

ejection systolic murmur and fixed splitting of the 2nd heart sound

202
Q

at what age should babies be able to sit without support?

A

7-8 months

203
Q

at what age should babies be crawling?

A

9 months

204
Q

what is the difference between gastroschisis and omphalocele?

A

both present very similarly:

gastroschisis: refers to a defect lateral to the umbilicus
omphalocele: a defect in the umbilicus itself

205
Q

where does the rash in measles typically start?

A

behind the ears then spreads across whole body

206
Q

which childhood condition causes bilateral parotitis?

A

mumps

also causes MUscular pain

207
Q

in acute asthma exacerbations in kids, when should steroid therapy be given?

A

steroid therapy should be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation

oral prednisolone for 3-5 days

208
Q

by what age should testes have descended in young boys?

A

3 months

if not descended by then, refer

209
Q

at what stage in the newborn period is jaundice always pathological?

A

jaundice in the 1st 24 hours is always pathological

jaundice in days 2-15 is common (40%) and usually physiological

210
Q

name 4 causes of pathological jaundice in the 1st 24 hours of life?

A
  • rhesus haemolytic disease
  • ABO haemolytic disease
  • hereditary spherocytosis
  • G6PD deficiency
211
Q

what is the most common complication of roseola infantum?

A

febrile convulsions

212
Q

what is the most appropriate initial treatment of chicken pox?

A

topical calamine lotion

in addition to supportive measures

AA Y4 Finals cards NE (40 decks)

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