Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgery (Y4) > General Surgery > Flashcards

General Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by Class I shock?

A

Completely compensated for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is meant by Class II shock?

A

Tachycardia only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is meant by Class III shock?

A

Tachy, hypotension but conscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is meant by Hartmann’s procedure?

A

Removal of a section of the bowel with a colostomy/ileostomy (rather than anastamoses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hernia below and lateral to the pubic tubercle is…

A

Femoral hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the causes of pancreatitis?

A

GET SMASHED - Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune, Scorpion bite, Hypertriglyceride/Hypercalcaemia/Hypothermia, ERCP, Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bruising of the flanks in acute pancreatitis is called…

A

Grey-Turner’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pain/catch of breath elicited on palpation of the right hypochondrium during inspiration is called…

A

Murphy’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rigler’s sign (double wall sign) suggests…

A

Free air in the abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Low rectal cancer is usually treated with…

A

Low anterior resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How should congenital inguinal hernias be treated?

A

Refer to surgery (due to high complication rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Reddening and thickening of nipple and areola suggests…

A

Paget’s disease of the nipple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which antibiotics should be used in severe diverticulitis?

A

IV Ceftriaxone and Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the first-line investigation for bowel perforation?

A

Erect CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the best first-line investigation in suspected acute critical limb ischaemia?

A

Handheld arterial doppler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give red flag symptoms of bowel cancer.

A

Change in bowel habit, weight loss, fatigue, blood in stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which patients with a change in bowel habit should be referred on the urgent cancer pathway?

A

> 60 or > 50 with another red flag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the gold-standard investigation for diagnosing colorectal cancer?

A

Colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the tumour marker for cholangiocarcinoma?

A

CA 19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Give 3 causes of LUQ pain.

A

Gastric ulcer, lower lobe pneumonia, pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give 4 causes of epigastric pain.

A

Peptic ulcer, cholecystitis, pancreatitis, MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Give causes of RUQ pain.

A

Cholecystitis, Hepatitis, Pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which investigations are particularly important in upper abdo pain?

A

ECG (rule out MI) and erect CXR (exclude perforation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give 3 causes of RLQ pain.

A

Appendicitis, gynae pathology (ectopic pregnancy), IBD, ureteric colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Give 3 causes of LLQ pain.

A

Diverticulitis, IBD, Gynae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How can you assess for peritonism?

A

ask them to cough and see if pain on percussion or light palpation

27
Q

What is the first-line investigation for gallstones?

A

USS

28
Q

Give causes of LBO.

A

Tumour, strictures, volvulus (sigmoid or caecal)

29
Q

Give causes of SBO.

A

Adhesions, Hernia, Strictures, Intussusception, Gallstone ileus, Bazoar

30
Q

Which method may be used for incomplete bowel obstruction?

A

‘drip and suck’ method - IV fluids & aspirate NG tube

31
Q

Give causes of abdo pain with shock.

A

Ruptured AAA
Upper GI bleed eg. varices, gastric ulcer etc
Rupture ectopic pregnancy

32
Q

What is the most common cause of upper GI bleed?

A

Peptic ulcer

33
Q

Vomiting, abdominal or chest pain, and subcutaneous emphysema suggests…

A

Boerhaave’s syndrome

34
Q

What is the definitive investigation for upper GI bleed?

A

OGD

35
Q

What is the Glasgow-Blatchford score used for?

A

Assesses risk pre-endoscopy in upper GI bleed

36
Q

What is the Rockall score used for?

A

Assess risk of re-bleeding and death in upper GI bleed post-endoscopy

37
Q

What are the conservative management options for anal fissures?

A

laxatives, lubricants, and topical GTN

38
Q

What is the best investigation for chronic pancreatitis?

A

CT abdomen

39
Q

Give causes of fresh red blood in stool.

A

Haemorrhoids, anal fissure, IBD, Diverticulitis, Colorectal polyps/cancer

40
Q

Which patients with rectal bleeding should be referred for urgent colonoscopy?

A

Unexplained rectal bleeding in > 50s

41
Q

Emphysematous cholecystitis usually occurs in…

A

Diabetics

42
Q

What are the risk factors for gallstones?

A

4F’s:

  • Female
  • Forty
  • Fat
  • Fertile
43
Q

How is cholecystitis managed?

A

Antibiotics, can use ERCP to remove stones, usually cholecystectomy

44
Q

What are the two main causes of ascending cholangitis?

A

secondary to gallstone obstruction or post-ERCP

45
Q

What are the most common organisms in ascending cholangitis?

A

E Coli, Klebsiella, Enterococcus

46
Q

RUQ pain, fever and jaundice =

A

Ascending cholangitis

47
Q

How does PSC typically present?

A

Progressive, obstructive jaundice

48
Q

Which condition is highly associated with PSC?

A

UC

49
Q

PSC increases the risk of…

A

cirrhosis and cholangiocarcinoma (10-20%)

50
Q

‘beaded’ or ‘onion-skin’ appearance on MRCP suggests…

A

PSC

51
Q

Which auto-antibody is associated with PSC?

A

ANCA

52
Q

How does PBC typically present?

A

Fatigue and itch

53
Q

PBC is associated with which other conditions?

A

Sjogren’s, SLE, RA

54
Q

Which auto-antibody is associated with PBC?

A

AMA

55
Q

What are the main risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma?

A

PSC and liver flukes (parasitic infection)

56
Q

How does cholangiocarcinoma usually present?

A

Obstructive jaundice

57
Q

What does Courvoisieur’s law state?

A

if jaundice + palpable gallbladder, unlikely to be gallstones → most likely cholangiocarcinoma or pancreatic cancer

58
Q

What is the tumour marker for cholangiocarcinoma?

A

CA19-9

59
Q

How is cholangiocarcinoma usually managed?

A

Curative surgery not usually possible (only early cases)

60
Q

Which procedure is undertaken to defunction the bowel following anastamosis?

A

Loop ileostomy

61
Q

What is the initial investigation to check for free fluid in trauma?

A

FAST scan

62
Q

Are ilestomies typically spouted or flush to the skin?

A

Spouted

63
Q

Are colostomies typically spouted or flush to the skin?

A

Flush to the skin

Surgery (Y4) (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions