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My own Pharma > General pharma > Flashcards

General pharma Flashcards

1
Q

Simple diffusion passive

A

Non-ionized drugs
Acidic: Aspirin/barbiturates
Basic: Amphetamine

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2
Q

Max drug absorption?

A

Small intestine (if oral)

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3
Q

pK value

A

pH at 50% ionized and 50% non-ionized

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4
Q

first pass metabolism in liver

A

only oral route all rest bypass liver (IV bypasses 100% and rectal 50% bypass)

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5
Q

drugs with high FPM (nigga phak lakisha)

A

Nitroglycerin - angina sublingual
Propranolol - tachycardia control - do no give to asthma pt)
Lignocaine - arrythmia V. tachycardia digoxin toxicity

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6
Q

T max

A

rate of absorption

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7
Q

C max

A

max plasma concentration

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8
Q

AUC - area under curve

A

extent of absorption (bioavailability)

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9
Q

Bioavailability
Depends on absorption and 1/FPM

A

IV 100%

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10
Q

Bioequivalence
allowed 80-120

A

Same Bioavailability
exception: phenytoin

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11
Q

Drug with highest vol of distribution

A

Chloroquine - malaria - 15000L - bulls eye maculopathy

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12
Q

Plasma protein binding of acidic drugs

A

Albumin - barbiturates - sulphonamide highest

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13
Q

Plasma protein binding of alkaline drugs

A

Alpha-1 acid glycoprotein - opioids, LA

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14
Q

weak acidic drug poisoning

A

forced alkaline diuresis

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15
Q

forced alkaline diuresis done by

A

Na bicarbonate (acetazolamide also)

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16
Q

weak alkaline drug poisoning
(amphetamine)

A

forced acidic diuresis

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17
Q

forced acidic diuresis done by

A

ammonium chloride (cranberry juice)

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18
Q

alkaline drugs

A

I-N-E suffix

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19
Q

kernicterus

A

bilirubin deposition in brain

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20
Q

sulfonamides (or any sulfa drug) can cause which brain disorder in neonates?

A

kernicterus by displacing bilirubin from albumin

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21
Q

Amphetamine antidote
Forced acidic diuresis

A

amm. chloride or cranberry juice

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22
Q

verapamil (CCB) antidote

A

Ca gluconate/chloride
gluconate by IV best 10% 10 min 10 mL

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23
Q

warfarin antidote

A

vit k1

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24
Q

organophosphate antidote

A

atropine + oxime pam

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25
Q

digoxin antidote

A

digibind, lignocaine, KCl

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26
Q

benzodiazepine antidote

A

flumazenil

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27
Q

opioids antidote

A

naloxone - best

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28
Q

methanol/ethylene glycol antidote

A

fomepizole, ethanol, folate

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29
Q

belladona/dhatura antidote

A

phystigmine

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30
Q

TCA/amitrypthaline antidote

A

sod. bicarbonate

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31
Q

propranolol (b-blocker) antidote

A

Glucagon

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32
Q

fluoxetine active form?

A

nor-fluoxetine

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33
Q

allopurinol active form?

A

oxypurinol

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34
Q

diazepam active form?

A

oxazepam

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35
Q

spironolactone active form?

A

canrenone

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36
Q

codeine active form?

A

morphine

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37
Q

primidone active form?

A

phenobabitone

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38
Q

Universal inhibitors

A

AMAs - macrolides, quinolones, azoles, cimetidine, grape fruit juice

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39
Q

Universal Inducers

A

rifampicin - TB
antiepileptic
chronic alcoholics and smokers

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40
Q

antiepileptic inhibitor

A

valporate

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41
Q

Estrogen + rifampicin

A

CYP3A4 - OCP fail

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42
Q

Cisapride erythromycin/ketoconazole
Astemizole +
Terfinadine

A

CYP3A4 - QT increase = arrythmia

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43
Q

erythromycin/ketoconazole

A

inhibitor

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44
Q

clopidogrel

A

antiplatelet

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45
Q

clopidogrel + omeprazole

A

CYP2C19 - MI/stroke because of antiplatelet failure

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46
Q

omeprazole

A

inhibitor

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47
Q

Best antiplatlet

A

aspirin

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48
Q

Tamoxifen + fluoxetine
Breast ca antigen?

A

CYP2D6 - Metastasis

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49
Q

Fastest receptors

A

Ionotropic receptors - nn and nm

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50
Q

GABA a

A

barbi and benzo

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51
Q

GPCR
Metabotropic receptors

A

most common receptor
muscarinic
histamine
5-HT
GABA b
Alpha-Beta

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52
Q

Protein kinase receptors

A

Tyrosine - insulin
JAK - growth and prolactin

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53
Q

intracellular receptors

A

cytoplasmic - Glucorticoids, mineralocorticoids, sex steroids, vit d
nuclear - vit a, PPAR, thyroxine

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54
Q

First order kinetics

A

elimination depending on plasma concentration
constant fraction eliminated
half-life constant
clearance constant

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55
Q

Zero order elimination

A

elimination - constant
constant amount
half-life depending on plasma concentration

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56
Q

Pure zero order

A

Alcohols

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57
Q

Pseudo-zero order

A

phenytoin

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58
Q

Loading dose

A

volume of distribution * target concentration
chloroquinoline

59
Q

Maintenance dose

A

clearance * target concentration

60
Q

Target conc

A

concentration steady state = after 4-5 half lives

61
Q

t1/2 (half-life)

A

0.693/K = 0.693*vd/cl

62
Q

physiological antagonist

A

receptor different

63
Q

pharmacological antagonist feature?

A

receptor same

64
Q

thalidomide during pregnancy cause what deformity in baby?

A

phocomelia

65
Q

lithium during pregnancy caused which anomaly in baby?

A

ebstein anomaly, cardiac malformation

66
Q

ACE inhi

A

renal agenesis

67
Q

Warfarin causes what anomaly in new born if given during pregnancy?

A

chondroplasia punctata

68
Q

Carbimaszole causes which congenital defect?

A

aplasia cutis

69
Q

Tetracyclines cause what defect?

A

bone, teeth and cartilage defect

70
Q

valporate

A

spina bifida

71
Q

z-injection technique

A

iron, haloperidol (anti-psychotic)

72
Q

schedule H

A

prescription drugs

73
Q

schedule G

A

given under medical supervision

74
Q

schedule X

A

Narcotics and psychotropic (ketamine)

75
Q

phase 1, who is involved? Open or closed label? What is tested? Number of patients?

A

humans - healthy - open label - max tolerable dose - 10-50 patients

76
Q

phase 2 drug testing features?

A

exploratory, 100-500 patients, RCT + blinding, proof of concept

77
Q

phase 3

A

therapeutic, 1000-5000 patients, RCT + blinding, confirm actual dose

78
Q

phase 4

A

post marketing surveillance, open label, rare/missed adverse effects + interactions + newer indications

79
Q

phase 0

A

micro-dosing, non-mandatory

80
Q

What is pharmacovigilance? HQ in India and world?

A

monitor adverse drug reaction (vigiflow)
Ghaziabad - Sweden upsala

81
Q

therapeutic index

A

TD50/ED50
more than 2 = broad
less than 2 - narrow

82
Q

therapeutic index indicator for?

A

safety

83
Q

Narrow therapeutic index drugs?

A

Phenytoin, digoxin, theophylline, lithium

84
Q

Lithium dosage and toxicity?

A

0.5-1.2 safe
toxic - more than 1.5
coarse tremors - more than 2
severe/dialysis - more than 5

85
Q

tensilon test is used for?

A

for myasthenia gravis, drug improves the condition

86
Q

tensilon test drug used?

A

edrophonium - ameliorative test (neostigmine also)

87
Q

myasthenia gravis TOC?

A

cholinergic - pyridostigmine, neostigmine
surgery - thymectomy

88
Q

acute myasthenia gravis/crisis DOC?

A

IV immunoglobulins

89
Q

Alzheimer’s/dementia receptor?

A

muscarinic receptors M1

90
Q

cholinergic drugs for dementia/Alzheimer’s
memory enhancers

A

Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine - patch
and DO NO USE ANTI-Cholinergic drugs - dhatura

91
Q

most common muscarinic receptor in brain

A

M1 - dimag
M2 - dil

92
Q

NDMA drug for memory enhancing

A

Memantine

93
Q

Anti-smoking drugs

A

varenicline - partial nicotine receptor agonist

94
Q

Rotigotine patch for?

A

Parkinson’s

95
Q

Anti-smoking drug used as patch/gum

A

Nicotine

96
Q

Smoking anti-depressant

A

Bupropion - Dopamine + nor-adrenaline reuptake therapy, decreases suicide risk, Risk = seizures

97
Q

Smoking anti-epileptic

A

Topiramate

98
Q

Drug for cardiac stress test

A

Dobutamine - IV - Acts on B1

99
Q

drug for Cardiogenic shock with oliguria

A

Dopamine - IV - Acts on D1B1A1

100
Q

Drug for Anaphylactic shock

A

Epi/Adrenaline - 0.5 mg 1:1000 IM - histamine

101
Q

Drug for overactive bladder

A

Beta-3 agonist - mirabegron

102
Q

Drug for Hypertension in pregnancy

A

Labetalol, both oral and IV (3rd gen beta blocker-vasodilation)

103
Q

Drug for Hypertension in pregnancy + asthma

A

Nifedipine (ca-cannel blocker)

104
Q

Drug for congestive heart failure

A

Carvedilol, nebivolol (3rd gen beta blocker-vasodilation)

105
Q

drug for Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, akathisia and performance anxiety

A

Propranolol

106
Q

DOC ADHD

A

Methylphenidate

107
Q

Narcolepsy DOC

A

Modafinil

108
Q

Which anti-epileptic drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Zonisamide and Topiramide

109
Q

Which anti-depressant drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Bupropione (+Naltrexone)

110
Q

Which anti-diabetic drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Liraglutide and Simaglutide

111
Q

Which melanocortin receptor stimulant drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Setmelanotide - only for diabetic obese patient

112
Q

Which lipase inhibitor drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Orlistat - fat in stool

113
Q

Which Sympathetic stimulant drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Phentermine + Topiramide combination used

114
Q

DOC Atrial fibrillation

A

Rate controller
Beta blocker - esmolol
CCB - Verapamil/Diltiazem
Digoxin

115
Q

DOC Normal Sinus Rhythm

A

Ibutilide - Best
Dofetilide
Amiodarone
Vernakalant
Class 3 drugs

116
Q

DOC anti-coagulant post AF

A

Oral = DTI + Xa inhibitor
Dabigatran + rivaroxaban
or warfarin

117
Q

TOC Atrial fibrillation

A

DC shock

118
Q

Acute SVT DOC

A

Adenosine injection
CCBs (Verapamil)

119
Q

Prevention of Recurrence SVT DOC

A

Verapamil

120
Q

WPW syndrome DOC

A

Flecainide

121
Q

WPW syndrome drugs to avoid

A

Beta blockers
CCBs
Digoxin

122
Q

VD/VF (monomorphic)

A

Lignocaine or Lidocaine
also used for MI and digoxin toxicity

123
Q

VD/VF DOC (monomorphic)

A

Amiodarone
DC shock

124
Q

Blue man syndrome

A

Amiodarone

125
Q

DO NOT USE Amiodarone for?

A

Torsades de pointes or polymorphic VT

126
Q

Polymorphic VT sign

A

Long QT

127
Q

Amiodarone side effect

A

Thyroid issue, lungs, myocardium, liver

128
Q

Amiodarone half life

A

3-8 weeks (56 days)

129
Q

Torsades de pointes or polymorphic VT DOC

A

IV mg. sulphate

130
Q

Mg. Sulphate antidote

A

Ca gluconate

131
Q

DOC congenital QT

A

Propranolol (beta blocker)

132
Q

First sign of Mg sulphate toxicity

A

loss of knee tendon jerk

133
Q

DOC sinus bradycardia

A

Atropine IV

134
Q

DOC first degree Heart block

A

Atropine IV

135
Q

DOC second degree Heart block

A

Atropine IV

136
Q

DOC second degree Heart block - Mobitz type 2

A

Pacemaker

137
Q

DOC complete heart block

A

Pacemaker

138
Q

Atropine not effective in?

A

Denerved heart or transplanted heart

139
Q

Hyperkalemia DOC emergency

A

Insulin + glucose
Ca gluconate
Salbutamol

140
Q

Chronic Hyperkalemia DOC

A

K binders

141
Q

Benign Prostatic hyperplasia with hypertension DOC

A

Tamsulosin

142
Q

DOC pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

143
Q
A

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