Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

My own Pharma > General pharma > Flashcards

General pharma Flashcards

1
Q

Simple diffusion passive

A

Non-ionized drugs
Acidic: Aspirin/barbiturates
Basic: Amphetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Max drug absorption?

A

Small intestine (if oral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pK value

A

pH at 50% ionized and 50% non-ionized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

first pass metabolism in liver

A

only oral route all rest bypass liver (IV bypasses 100% and rectal 50% bypass)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

drugs with high FPM (nigga phak lakisha)

A

Nitroglycerin - angina sublingual
Propranolol - tachycardia control - do no give to asthma pt)
Lignocaine - arrythmia V. tachycardia digoxin toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T max

A

rate of absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

C max

A

max plasma concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AUC - area under curve

A

extent of absorption (bioavailability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bioavailability
Depends on absorption and 1/FPM

A

IV 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bioequivalence
allowed 80-120

A

Same Bioavailability
exception: phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Drug with highest vol of distribution

A

Chloroquine - malaria - 15000L - bulls eye maculopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Plasma protein binding of acidic drugs

A

Albumin - barbiturates - sulphonamide highest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Plasma protein binding of alkaline drugs

A

Alpha-1 acid glycoprotein - opioids, LA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

weak acidic drug poisoning

A

forced alkaline diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

forced alkaline diuresis done by

A

Na bicarbonate (acetazolamide also)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

weak alkaline drug poisoning
(amphetamine)

A

forced acidic diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

forced acidic diuresis done by

A

ammonium chloride (cranberry juice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

alkaline drugs

A

I-N-E suffix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

kernicterus

A

bilirubin deposition in brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

sulfonamides (or any sulfa drug) can cause which brain disorder in neonates?

A

kernicterus by displacing bilirubin from albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Amphetamine antidote
Forced acidic diuresis

A

amm. chloride or cranberry juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

verapamil (CCB) antidote

A

Ca gluconate/chloride
gluconate by IV best 10% 10 min 10 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

warfarin antidote

A

vit k1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

organophosphate antidote

A

atropine + oxime pam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

digoxin antidote

A

digibind, lignocaine, KCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

benzodiazepine antidote

A

flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

opioids antidote

A

naloxone - best

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

methanol/ethylene glycol antidote

A

fomepizole, ethanol, folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

belladona/dhatura antidote

A

phystigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

TCA/amitrypthaline antidote

A

sod. bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

propranolol (b-blocker) antidote

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

fluoxetine active form?

A

nor-fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

allopurinol active form?

A

oxypurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

diazepam active form?

A

oxazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

spironolactone active form?

A

canrenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

codeine active form?

A

morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

primidone active form?

A

phenobabitone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Universal inhibitors

A

AMAs - macrolides, quinolones, azoles, cimetidine, grape fruit juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Universal Inducers

A

rifampicin - TB
antiepileptic
chronic alcoholics and smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

antiepileptic inhibitor

A

valporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Estrogen + rifampicin

A

CYP3A4 - OCP fail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cisapride erythromycin/ketoconazole
Astemizole +
Terfinadine

A

CYP3A4 - QT increase = arrythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

erythromycin/ketoconazole

A

inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

clopidogrel

A

antiplatelet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

clopidogrel + omeprazole

A

CYP2C19 - MI/stroke because of antiplatelet failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

omeprazole

A

inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Best antiplatlet

A

aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Tamoxifen + fluoxetine
Breast ca antigen?

A

CYP2D6 - Metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Fastest receptors

A

Ionotropic receptors - nn and nm
GABA-A
Glutamate
Nicotinic
5-HT3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

GABA a

A

barbi and benzo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

GPCR
Metabotropic receptors

A

most common receptor
muscarinic
histamine
5-HT
GABA b
Alpha-Beta
serotonin
ACh
C-AMP
Ca
Most pituitary and hypothalamus hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Protein kinase receptors

A

Tyrosine - insulin
JAK - growth and prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

intracellular receptors

A

cytoplasmic - Glucorticoids, mineralocorticoids, sex steroids, vit d, androgens

nuclear - vit a, PPAR, thyroxine, estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

First order kinetics

A

elimination depending on PC
constant fraction eliminated
half-life constant
clearance constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Zero order elimination

A

elimination - constant
constant amount
half-life depending on PC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Loading dose

A

volume of distribution * target concentration
chloroquinoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Maintenance dose

A

clearance * target concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

t1/2 (half-life)

A

0.693/K = 0.693*vd/cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

physiological antagonist feature

A

receptor different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

pharmacological antagonist feature?

A

receptor same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

thalidomide during pregnancy cause what deformity in baby?

A

phocomelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

lithium during pregnancy caused which anomaly in baby?

A

ebstein anomaly, cardiac malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ACE inhi

A

renal agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Warfarin causes what anomaly in new born if given during pregnancy?

A

chondroplasia punctata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Carbimaszole causes which congenital defect?

A

aplasia cutis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Tetracyclines cause what defect?

A

bone, teeth and cartilage defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

valporate

A

spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

z-injection technique

A

iron, haloperidol (anti-psychotic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

schedule H

A

prescription drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

schedule G

A

given under medical supervision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

schedule X

A

Narcotics and psychotropic (ketamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

phase 1, who is involved? Open or closed label? What is tested? Number of patients?

A

humans - healthy - open label - max tolerable dose - 10-50 patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

phase 2 drug testing features?

A

exploratory, 100-500 patients, RCT + blinding, proof of concept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

phase 3

A

therapeutic, 1000-5000 patients, RCT + blinding, confirm actual dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

phase 4

A

post marketing surveillance, open label, rare/missed adverse effects + interactions + newer indications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

phase 0

A

micro-dosing, non-mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is pharmacovigilance? HQ in India and world?

A

monitor adverse drug reaction (vigiflow)
Ghaziabad - Sweden upsala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

therapeutic index

A

TD50/ED50
more than 2 = broad
less than 2 - narrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

therapeutic index indicator for?

A

safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Narrow therapeutic index drugs?

A

Phenytoin, digoxin, theophylline, lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Lithium dosage and toxicity?

A

0.5-1.2 safe
toxic - more than 1.5
coarse tremors - more than 2
severe/dialysis - more than 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

tensilon test is used for?

A

for myasthenia gravis, drug improves the condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

tensilon test drug used?

A

edrophonium - ameliorative test (neostigmine also)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

myasthenia gravis TOC?

A

cholinergic - pyridostigmine, neostigmine
surgery - thymectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

acute myasthenia gravis/crisis DOC?

A

IV immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Alzheimer’s/dementia receptor?

A

muscarinic receptors M1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

cholinergic drugs for dementia/Alzheimer’s
memory enhancers

A

Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine - patch
and DO NO USE ANTI-Cholinergic drugs - dhatura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

most common muscarinic receptor in brain

A

M1 - dimag
M2 - dil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

NDMA drug for memory enhancing

A

Memantine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Anti-smoking drugs

A

varenicline - partial nicotine receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Rotigotine patch for?

A

Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Anti-smoking drug used as patch/gum

A

Nicotine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Smoking anti-depressant

A

Bupropion - Dopamine + nor-adrenaline reuptake therapy, decreases suicide risk, Risk = seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Smoking anti-epileptic

A

Topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Drug for cardiac stress test

A

Dobutamine - IV - Acts on B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

drug for Cardiogenic shock with oliguria

A

Dopamine - IV - Acts on D1B1A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Drug for Anaphylactic shock

A

Epi/Adrenaline - 0.5 mg 1:1000 IM - histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Drug for overactive bladder

A

Beta-3 agonist - mirabegron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Drug for Hypertension in pregnancy

A

Labetalol, both oral and IV (3rd gen beta blocker-vasodilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Drug for Hypertension in pregnancy + asthma

A

Nifedipine (ca-cannel blocker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Drug for congestive heart failure

A

Carvedilol, nebivolol (3rd gen beta blocker-vasodilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

drug for Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, akathisia and performance anxiety

A

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

DOC ADHD

A

Methylphenidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Narcolepsy DOC

A

Modafinil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Which anti-epileptic drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Zonisamide and Topiramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which anti-depressant drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Bupropione (+Naltrexone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Which anti-diabetic drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Liraglutide and Simaglutide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Which melanocortin receptor stimulant drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Setmelanotide - only for diabetic obese patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Which lipase inhibitor drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Orlistat - fat in stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Which Sympathetic stimulant drug is DOC for obesity?

A

Phentermine + Topiramide combination used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

DOC Atrial fibrillation

A

Rate controller
Beta blocker - esmolol
CCB - Verapamil/Diltiazem
Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

DOC Normal Sinus Rhythm

A

Ibutilide - Best
Dofetilide
Amiodarone
Vernakalant
Class 3 drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

DOC anti-coagulant post AF

A

Oral = DTI + Xa inhibitor
Dabigatran + rivaroxaban
or warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

TOC Atrial fibrillation

A

DC shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Acute SVT DOC

A

Adenosine injection
CCBs (Verapamil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Prevention of Recurrence SVT DOC

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

WPW syndrome DOC

A

Flecainide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

WPW syndrome drugs to avoid

A

Beta blockers
CCBs
Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

VD/VF (monomorphic)

A

Lignocaine or Lidocaine
also used for MI and digoxin toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

VD/VF DOC (monomorphic)

A

Amiodarone
DC shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Blue man syndrome

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

DO NOT USE Amiodarone for?

A

Torsades de pointes or polymorphic VT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Polymorphic VT sign

124
Q

Amiodarone side effect

A

Thyroid issue, lungs, myocardium, liver

125
Q

Amiodarone half life

A

3-8 weeks (56 days)

126
Q

Torsades de pointes or polymorphic VT DOC

A

IV mg. sulphate

127
Q

Mg. Sulphate antidote

A

Ca gluconate

128
Q

DOC congenital QT

A

Propranolol (beta blocker)

129
Q

First sign of Mg sulphate toxicity

A

loss of knee tendon jerk

130
Q

DOC sinus bradycardia

A

Atropine IV

131
Q

DOC first degree Heart block

A

Atropine IV

132
Q

DOC second degree Heart block

A

Atropine IV

133
Q

DOC second degree Heart block - Mobitz type 2

134
Q

DOC complete heart block

135
Q

Atropine not effective in?

A

Denerved heart or transplanted heart

136
Q

Hyperkalemia DOC emergency

A

Insulin + glucose
Ca gluconate
Salbutamol

137
Q

Chronic Hyperkalemia DOC

138
Q

Benign Prostatic hyperplasia with hypertension DOC

A

Tamsulosin

139
Q

DOC pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

140
Q

Name the drugs with high first pass metabolism given orally in high doses?

A

A - antidepressants - Imipramine
B - beta blockers - propranolol
C - CCB - Verapamil
M - morphine
A - Albuterol, Salbutamol
N - Nitrates

141
Q

Name the drugs with high first pass metabolism not given orally?

A

Lignocaine - local anesthetic
Natural steroids like: estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, aldosterone, hydrocortisone

142
Q

Loading dose calculation

A

Volume of distribution/plasma concentration
Depends on volume of distribution

143
Q

Maintenance dose calculation

A

Clearance/plasma concentration
Depends on clearance and half life

144
Q

Dialysis is effective for which drugs?

A

Aspirin, barbiturates, lithium

145
Q

Dialysis is not effective for which drugs?

A

Amphetamines
Verapamil
Organophosphates
Isoniazid
Digoxin
Diazepam

146
Q

What is hoffman’s elimination?

A

Inactivation of the drug in the body by spontaneous molecular arrangements without any enzyme
Atracurium

147
Q

Atracurium drug specifications?

A

It’s a muscle relaxant which blocks signals between nerves and muscles
Used during surgical procedures

148
Q

MC Subtype of CYP450?

149
Q

Theophylline is metabolized by which CY450 enzyme Subtype?

150
Q

Warfarin is metabolized by which CY450 enzyme Subtype?

151
Q

Clopidogrel and PPI (Omeprazole) is metabolized by which CY450 enzyme Subtype?

152
Q

CYP2D6 metabolizes which drugs?

A

(second MC Subtype of cytochrome P450)
Tamoxifen
Beta blockers
Antidepressants - SSRIs
Anti arrhythmic
Anti psychotics

153
Q

PCM is metabolized by which CY450 enzyme Subtype?

154
Q

Acetylation drugs

A

Sulphonamide
Hydralazine
IHN
Procainamide
These drugs and cause SLE

155
Q

Fast acetylators can cause?

A

Hepatotoxicity

156
Q

Drug prescription criteria?

A

Safety
Tolerability
Efficacy
Price

157
Q

When is Iron dose given?

A

Before meal or 30 minutes after
milk deceases ferrous sulphate absorption

158
Q

Why don’t we give sulpha drugs to neonates?

A

Causes unconjugated bilirubin deposition in brain because no blood-brain barrier causing seizures - Kernicterus

159
Q

Which anti-TB is inducer?

A

Rifampicin

160
Q

Which anti-epileptic is inhibitor?

161
Q

Receptor for Aldosterone?

A

Cytoplasmic

162
Q

Receptor for Spironolactone?

A

Cytoplasmic

163
Q

Receptor for Adrenaline?

A

GPCR - alfa, beta

164
Q

Receptor for TSH?

A

GPCR - pituitary gland hormone

165
Q

Receptor for Thyroxine?

166
Q

Purinergic receptors act via?

167
Q

Opoid receptor?

168
Q

Angiotensin receptor?

169
Q

If ED50 is low means?

A

Drug is more potent
ED50 is marker for potency

170
Q

Therapeutic index is marker for?

A

Drug safety

171
Q

Neurotransmitter and receptor for skeletal musles?

A

Ach
Receptor NM
under somatic n. system

172
Q

Efferent nerve fibers are found in?

A

Both sympathetic and parasympathetic n. system

173
Q

Sympathetic pathway’s location in spinal cord?

A

Dorso-lumbar/Thoraco-lumbar
T1 to L2/L3
Ganglia are away from organs

174
Q

Parasympathetic pathway’s location in spinal cord?

A

Cranio-sacral (bohot upar and bohot neeche)
Cranial nerves (3, 7, 9, 10) and S2-S4
Ganglia are near the organs

175
Q

Sympathetic preganglionic neurotransmitter?

A

ACh - NN
Nicotinic receptor = Ionotropic

176
Q

Parasympathetic preganglionic neurotransmitter?

177
Q

Sympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitter?
Stress hormones

A

ACh - Nor adrenaline (main)
Dopamin: Vasodilation
ACh: Sweat glands secretions
Adr: Adrenal medulla

178
Q

Parasympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitter?

179
Q

In stress and fear which pathway?

A

Sympathetic
Pupils dilated, fight or flight

180
Q

In relax and digest which pathway?

A

Parasympathetic

181
Q

Precursor of Ach and its blocker drug?

A

Choline
Blocker Hemicolinium - decreases ACh production - rate limiting step

182
Q

Drug which breaks storage vesicles of ACh?

A

Vesamicole

183
Q

Drug which blocks release of ACh?

A

Botulinum toxin

184
Q

Drugs for receptor ACh blockers?

A

Agonists and antagonists

185
Q

5 levels where we can block function of ACh?

A
  1. stop production of ACh
  2. Break the storage vasicles of ACh
  3. Stop release of ACh - botulinum toxin
  4. Block ACh receptors
  5. Block ACh-esterase enzyme that breaks ACh
186
Q

M1 receptors present in?

A

Stomach - acid secretion
brain - memory and cognition

187
Q

M2 receptors present in?

A

Heart (bradycardia action)

188
Q

M3 receptors present in?

A

Smooth muscles
secretory glands
sweat glands
blood vessels (vasodilation action)

189
Q

M4 receptors present in?

A

Pre-synaptic or rate limiters

190
Q

Which muscarinic receptors are stimulatory?

191
Q

Which muscarinic receptors are inhibitory?

192
Q

Name the nicotinic receptors

193
Q

Antibody against which receptor causes myasthenia gravis?

A

Nicotinic NM
present in skeletal muscle NM junction and stops contraction/depolarization

194
Q

NN receptors are present on?

195
Q

Use and receptor of Bethanechol?

A

Receptor M3 which means it works on bladder and intestine and used in cases of atonic bladder or atonic ileus

196
Q

Why is ACh not used?

A

Very short acting

197
Q

Which drug is used in challenge test for bronchial asthma?

A

Methacholine
Now not used, now we use salbutamol

198
Q

Where do we get Muscarine cholinergic drug from?

A

Mushroom alkaloid
Antidote is Atropine

199
Q

DOC dry mouth (Xerostomia) and its receptor?

A

Cevimeline, M3
works on secretory glands and increases salivation

200
Q

Use of Pilocarpine?

A

acts on M3 and causes Miosis so used in glaucoma

201
Q

Side effects of Pilocarpine

A

Pain and accommodation spasm - ciliary muscle spasm
Peripheral retinal detachment (long term)
Punctum blockage
Decreased vision due to miosis

202
Q

DOC ACh/Atropine/belladonna/dhatura overdose?

A

Physostigmine
crosses blood brain barrier because its lipid soluble

203
Q

Name Tough DGR drugs (anticholinesterase)?

A

Tacrine
Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine

204
Q

Tough DGR drug which is hepato-toxic?

A

Tacrine - NOT USED

205
Q

Which tough DGR drug is available as patch?

A

Rivastigmine

206
Q

Uses of tough DGR drugs?

A

Alzheimer’s disease, increase memory and cognition

207
Q

Which anticholinesterase drug is an NMDA blocker?

208
Q

Name lipid soluble anticholinesterase drugs

A

Physostigmine - DOC Atropine, dhatura, belladona toxicity
Tacrine - not carbamate, rest all are carbamates
Donepezil DOC Dementia/Alzheimeir’s
Galantamine
Rivastigmine - available at patch

209
Q

Name water soluble anticholinesterase drugs

A

Edrophonium/Tensilon
Pyridostigmine - DOC myasthenia gravis
Neostigmine - DOC cobra bite given with atropine

ALL HAVE DIRECT NM ACTION

210
Q

Drug used for diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium/Tensilon - because its short acting

211
Q

Which water soluble anticholinesterase drug is longest acting?

A

Pyridostigmine
that’s why DOC for Myasthenia gravis

212
Q

Which drug is used for Ameliorative test?

A

Edrophonium/Tensilon

213
Q

Name nicotinic uses of Neostigmine

A

Myasthenia gravis
Cobra bite - Neurotoxic - given along side atropine
Reversal of NM blockers

214
Q

Name muscrinic uses of Neostigmine

A

Atonic bladder and ileus

215
Q

Why is atropine given along with neostigmine in cobra bite?

A

to stop muscarinic side effects

216
Q

Signs of OP and carbamate poisioning?

A

increased secrestions (sweat, tears, saliva)
Miosis - pinpoint pupil
Low HR - M2 receptor stimulation

217
Q

DOC OP and carbamate poisioning?

A

Atropine - M blocker
Repeat till atropinization which means till you see signs of mucosal dryness and pupil dilation

218
Q

When do we see best effect of Oximes in OP poisoning?

A

In early poisoning within 30 min

219
Q

Name some oximes

A

Pralidoxime PAM - used in India
Diacetyl monoxime DAM - in foreign
Obidoxime

220
Q

Name the drug we get at patch behind ear for motion sickness?

A

Hyoscine (scopolamine)

221
Q

Where do we get hyoscine from?

A

Hyoscyamus Niger

222
Q

Other uses of hyoscine?

A

Truth serum in narco test

223
Q

Uses of Atropine?

A

OP poisoning
carbamate poisoning
early mushrooms poisoning

224
Q

Name natural alkaloid anticholinergic drugs?

A

Atropine and hyoscine

225
Q

Name semisynthetic anticholinergic drugs?

A
  • Homatropine - eyedrops for mydriasis
  • Hyoscine butyl bromide - SM relax, antispasmodic
  • Ipratropium bromide and Tiotropium bromide - DOC COPD and asthma
226
Q

Rx Parkinsons drug?

A

THP - benzhexol, procyclidine and biperiden
Central anticholinergics

227
Q

Synthetic anticholinergics for mydriasis eyedrops?

A

cyclopentolate and tropicamide

228
Q

Which Synthetic anticholinergic is used as preanesthetic to decrease secretions?

A

Glycopyrrolate

229
Q

Which Synthetic anticholinergic is used as DOC for peptic ulcers?

A

Pirenzepine and telenzepine - works on M1and decreases acid secretion

230
Q

6 drops given to newborns with colic, which drug?

A

Dicyclomine - antispasmodic

231
Q

Name all SOFT synthetic anticholinergic drugs

A

Solifenacin
Oxybutynin
Flavoxate - UTI/uretheral spasms
Tolterodine
Trospium
All used for Bladder detrussor muscles in overactive bladder or urge incontinence

232
Q

Name 3 nerve gases

A

Tabun, Sarin, Soman

233
Q

Drug used for obesity?

A

Simaglutide

234
Q

EMERGENCY acute heart failure, which drug is used to improve cardiac function?

A

Dobutamine - 2-5 mcg/kg/min IV drip/ infusion

235
Q

A drug which is selective for secretory inhibition and does not go to the brain?

A

Glycopyrrolate

236
Q

DOC to control BP preoperatively?

A

Phenoxybenzamine - pro drug - slower action lasts longer

237
Q

DOC to control BP intra-operatively?

A

Phentolamine

238
Q

First dose hypotension is seen in?

A

Alpha-1 blockers - started low dose - zosin suffix - given at bedtime

239
Q

Dales vasomotor reversal Rx of pheochromocytoma?

A

First Alfa blockers then beta blockers

240
Q

Aldosterone receptor?

241
Q

HTN + Bone pain + older age + pedal edema DOC?

242
Q

DOC Mountain sickness?

A

Acetazolamide

243
Q

DOC Motion sickness?

244
Q

DOC Morning sickness?

A

Doxylamine

245
Q

Dose of primaquine for p. vivax in malaria for G6PD deficiency pts?

A

Weekly dose (because it causes hemolysis)

246
Q

Nature of acidic drugs in stomach?

A

Unionized > Ionized

247
Q

Nature of basic drugs in intestine?

A

Unionized > Ionized

248
Q

Overall max absorption from oral route happens in?

249
Q

Name the substances that inhibit Iron sulphate absorption in stomach?

A

Food - phytates
Tannic acid in tea
Ca in milk
Thats why Iron given either before or 30 min after food with ascorbic acid

250
Q

First pass metabolism mainly occurs in?

251
Q

How to avoid first pass metabolism?

A

Parantral/sublingual

252
Q

Effect of Lignocaine + Adrenaline?

A

decrease Lignocaine absorption = increased LA effect

253
Q

what happens if we give Xylocaine (LA) with epinephrine?

A

Increased risk of dry gangrene due to peripheral vasoconstriction

254
Q

What does AUC indicate?

A

Extent of absorption = Bioavailability

255
Q

Cmax is?

A

Max plasma conc

256
Q

Tmax is?

A

Rate of abs

257
Q

Which blood barrier is stronger?

A

Blood brain barrier

258
Q

Which drugs have highest plasma protein binding?

A

Sulpha drugs = hence not given to children because they can cause unconjugated bilirubin to reach brain and cause Kernicterus (sulpha drugs bind with plasma protein and displace other compounds like aspirin and bilirubin which increase their effect)

259
Q

Use of Thiopentone sodium?

A

Induction of anesthesia - ultra short action duration - example of redistribution

260
Q

Which is the best muscle relaxant drug for intubation?

A

Succinyl choline (2-3 min)

261
Q

Which plasma protein basic drugs bind to?

A

alfa-1 acidic glycoprotein

262
Q

Name extra-hepatic sites of drug metabolism

A

Plasma - esterase enzyme
Eg ACh - esmolol
SCh

263
Q

Suffix -ium/-curium means?

A

Muscle relaxant

264
Q

Which muscle relaxant can be given to liver and kidney pt?

A

Atracurium

265
Q

Which drugs show phase 1 metabolism?
Catabolic/nonsynthetic/functionalization

A

Lipophilic
CYP450 dependent -
Oxidation-Reduction-Hydrolysis-Cyclization and Decyclization

266
Q

Which drugs show phase 2 metabolism?
Synthetic/conjugation

A

Hydrophilic/water soluble
MC Glucuronidation
also sulfation, acetylation etc

267
Q

Name 3 methods of drug metabolism?

A

Inactivation
Active metabolite from active drug - long effect
Activation of prodrug

268
Q

Name active metabolites of following drugs:
Diazepam
Fluoxetine
Spironolactone
Amitriptyline
Codeine
Allopurinol
Primidone

A

Diazepam - Oxazepam
Fluoxetine - Nor-fluoxetine - long acting SSRI - 2 weeks
Spironolactone - Canrenone
Amitriptyline - Nor-triptyline
Codeine - Morphine
Allopurinol - Oxypurinol
Primidone - Phenobarbitone

269
Q

Active form of Levodopa?

A

Dopamine - noradrenaline

270
Q

Phase 1 metabolism is dependent on?

271
Q

MC subtype of CYP450?

272
Q

Enzyme in Kriggler najjer syndrome?

A

Glucoronil-transferase

273
Q

Name some Inducer drugs

A

Anti-epileptics: Phenytoin
Phenobarbitone
Carbamazepine
Smokers
Chronic alcoholics
Rifampicin

274
Q

Name some Inhibitor drugs

A
  • Antimicrobial: Ciprofloxacin, erythromycin, ketoconazole, cemtidine
  • Grape fruit juice
  • Valproate
275
Q

Name CAT drugs

A

Cisapiride
Astemazole
Terfendine

276
Q

CAT + _______ increases effect of CAT drugs

A

Ketoconazole/cemtidine
causes CAT toxicity = QT prolonged = arrythmia

277
Q

TOC mild acid drug poisioning?

A

Urine alkalization - sodabicarb
Eg Aspirin

278
Q

TOC mild alkali drug poisioning?

A

Acidify urine - NH4Cl/grapefruit juice
Eg Amphetamine CNS stimulant (MDMA/ecstasy)

279
Q

Soda bi-carb is DOC for toxicity of?

A

Aspirin
Barbiturates
Sulphonamides
Metabolic acidosis

280
Q

How many half lives needed for almost removal of First order kinetic drugs?

A

4-5 half lives

281
Q

Drug that follows true zero order?

282
Q

Drug that follows pesudo zero order?

A

Phenytoin
First then zero

283
Q

Clearance is constant in?

A

First order drugs - safer drugs - exponential curve

284
Q

Rate of elimination is constant in?

A

Zero order - Alcohol

285
Q

Define steady state PC

A

When we keep repeating the drug to achieve a steady state pc
4-5 t1/2 for almost complete elimination

286
Q

Example of physical MOA

A

Osmotic diuretic, bulk laxatives

287
Q

Example of transporter MOA

A

SGLT-1 WHO-ORS
SGLT-2 Glifozin - Used in diabetes and HF

288
Q

Name Enzymatic receptors

A

TK - insulin
GC - Nitric oxide (cyclic GMP)
Growth hormone
Prolactin

289
Q

DOC Heparin toxicity

290
Q

Atropine used of OP and carbamate poisoning, which type of antagonism is this?

A

Pharmacological - same receptor

291
Q

MOA activated charcoal

A

Decreased toxin absorption in stomach - used in gastic lavage

292
Q

Conditions in which activated charcoal is CI?

A

Corrosive - Acid/base poisoning
Kerosene

293
Q

Examples of Physiological antagonism

A

Adrenaline for histamine - DOC
Glucagon for insulin - DOC
Different receptor

294
Q

Best data is collected in which phase?

A

Phase 3 - efficacy and safety is tested

295
Q

Prescription drugs are?

A

Schedule H

296
Q

Schedule G drugs should be taken by?

A

Advise of RMP

297
Q

Vaccines come in which schedule drugs?

A

Schedule C/C1

298
Q

Schedule Y drugs are?

A

Clinical trial

299
Q

Schedule X drugs are?

A

Narcotics and psychotropics

300
Q

No of drugs designated as essential drugs in India?

A

384 drugs - NLEM 2022

301
Q

Orphan drugs are used for?

A

Rare disease
<1/500000
Hard to get and mostly life saving
costly with less profit

302
Q

What type of drug should be given as sustained release?

A

Drugs with short duration of acting requiring prolonged administration

303
Q

DOC HACE

A

Dexamethasone

304
Q

DOC HAPE

A

Nifedipine

305
Q

DOC mountain sickness

A

Acetazolamide

My own Pharma (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions