General Overview Flashcards

1
Q

What is the 787 know best for?

A

First all Composite fuselage in Commercial aviation (50% Composites total)
Permits higher cabin pressure and lower maximum cabin altitued 6,000 ft

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2
Q

What are some of the major innovations of the 787?

A

All electric architecture
5,000 psi Hydraulic system
no Pneumatic system

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3
Q

What is the Req for FA’s

A

1 for every 50 passengers

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4
Q

What are some of the cost benefits of the 787

A

20% more fuel efficient
30% less maint costs
20% reduction in emissions
60% noise reduction

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5
Q

How many passenger cabin exits?

A

8

1L 1 R
2L 2R
3L 3R
4L 4R

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6
Q

How many cargo compartments and where are they

A

3
FWD and AFT cargo compartments on the right side
Bulk cargo compartments on the left rear

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7
Q

What is EICAS

A

Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System

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8
Q

What do ALL cargo compartments have?

A

All pressurized and heated

smoke detection and extinguishing systems

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9
Q

What is the volume of each cargo compartment?

A

Containerized cargo only in FWD and AFT
FWD - 3 16L ULD
AFT - 3 12L ULD
Bulk - loose cargo for baggage and live animals and has additional ventilation

(ULD universal loading devices)

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10
Q

Where is Refueling accomplished

A

only on the left wing

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11
Q

What are the two equipment compartments

A

FWD

AFT

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12
Q

Where are the Ext Power Receptacles and what sources do they supply?

Why Two?

A

Both on the LEFT side

FWD External Power Receptacles - accepts two power sources left and right

AFT External Power Receptacles - only accepts one power source

(Normally the FWD is used. The AFT is added only to assist in starting the right eng with the APU is Inop.)

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13
Q

What is the CCS?

A

Common Core System
a network which allows all of the different computing functions and remote inputs to be centrally processed

Left and Right CCR Common Computing Resource both located in the FWD E/E

(Reset located next to FD door power buttons)

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14
Q

When does the CCS boot up?

A

When the Ext power is AVAIL

Left boots up first (2-3 Min) then right

if only Batter pwr available Left CCR only

to start the APU Left CCR has to be booted up

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15
Q

How long does it take to boot up a CCR?

How do you know its finished?

A

2-3 Min

Captains inbd display and Lower display (both CDU’s) are available

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16
Q

How do you know both CCR’s are on line?

A

All Flight deck Displays and both HUD’s on

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17
Q

Describe the Passenger oxygen system

A

Gaseous Hight pressure bottle system that delivers O2 to the PSU passenger service units

oxygen is provided for 22 min

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18
Q

What is a POB?

A

Portable Oxygen Bottle

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19
Q

What is the only system that uses bleed air?

A

Engine Anti Ice

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20
Q

How is the conditioned zoned in the plane?

A

5 Zones
1 FLT deck
4 Cabin

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21
Q

How is air supplied to the aircraft?

A

CAC’s

each Pack is equipped with 2 air compressors ecause there is no pneumatic system

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22
Q

How is Cabin Pressurization controlled?

A

Through 2 identical outflow valves
AFT
FWD

(half of the outflow is discharged through each valve)

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23
Q

How is Cabin Pressure operated

A

Fully automatic and operated by the Flight Management Computer FMC

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24
Q

What Protection systems do we have for the pressurization system

A

2 Positive Pressure Relief Valves

2 Negative Pressure Relief Vents

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25
Q

Where is the ice protection on the 787?

A
Wing anti-ice
Engine anti-ice
Pack Inlet anti-ice 
Probe Heat
Window Heat
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26
Q

Can Wing Anti ice operate on the ground?

How is it heated?

A

Yes above 75 kts

Heated by 4 electric heating mats per wing along the mid wing slats

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27
Q

Can engine anti-ice operate on the ground?

How is it heated?

A

Yes
Hot bleed air is delivered to the inlet cowl and the engine core
OFF/AUTO/ON

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28
Q

When and how are the CAC’s heated?

A

Operated only in flight and is fully automatic

uses electric heater for the leading edge of the ram air inlets

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29
Q

When and how is Probe heated?

A

Auto when either engine is running

(TAT probe is not heated on the ground)

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30
Q

When and how is window heat provided?

A

window heat is provided by electrical resistance coatings normally in AUTO, but can be selected to on.

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31
Q

What are the Hydraulic systems

A

Left
Right
Center

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32
Q

What systems are controlled on the LEFT HYD

A

1/3 Flight controls/spoilers

left eng thrust reverser

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33
Q

What systems are controlled on the RIGHT HYD

A

1/3 Flight controls/spoilers

Right eng thrust reverser

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34
Q

What systems are controlled on the Center HYD

A
1/3 Flight controls/spoilers
Leading edge slats
Trailing edge slats
Landing Gear
Nose Gear Steering
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35
Q

How are the LEFT and RIGHT HYD SYS pressurized?

A

Primary - By their side Engine Driven Pump

Secandary - Electric motor pump as a Demand pump

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36
Q

How is the Center HYD SYS presurized?

A

2 Electical motor pumps

One as a primary and the other as s demand pump

Role of Primary alternated based on calendar day

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37
Q

What is the RAT?

A

Ram Air Turbine Hydraulic pump

Emergency source of Pressure to operate the Center HYD SYS 1/3 share of the flight controls

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38
Q

How are the brakes operated and controlled?

A

Multiple disc carbon brakes

electrically controlled

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39
Q

What mode for autobrake do we select for T/O

A

RTO

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40
Q

With the electrical panel showing AVAIL on both FWD EXT PWR, what is the status of the CCS?

A

Both left and right Common Computing Resources (CCR) are powered

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41
Q

How is fuel divided?

A

Three tanks

Left wing and Right wing and Center tanks

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42
Q

How is fuel moved?

A

Each tank has 2 AC pumps

wing FWD and AFT
Center L & R

(center pumps have a higher output pressure)

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43
Q

Cross feed is where?

A

between the L & R

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44
Q

Where does the APU normally receive fuel

A

L Tank

but it can receive fuel from either tank, R Tank if crossfeed is open

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45
Q

What supplies the APU when no AC power is available?

A

DC Fuel pump

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46
Q

How does the fuel balance system work?

A

When Balance is turned on and the engines are running it operates in flight and on grd.
If eng are not running it will work if the APU is on

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47
Q

Where and when dose the fuel jettison syst work?

A

Jettisons fuel from all tanks

Does not work on the ground

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48
Q

What is the Max altitude the APU can be started

A

43,100 ft

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49
Q

How is the APU started?

A

From one of two starter generators

50
Q

How can you monitor the APU Perameters?

A

The SYS button and STAT page

51
Q

When does the APU Automatically start?

A

When there is a loss of three or more Generators in flight

Starts regardless of the position of the APU selector

52
Q

Where are the ground controls for the APU Located

A

Back of the nose gear

53
Q

What kind of engines do we have?

A

General electric GEnx 1B67

67,000 lbs Thrust rating

54
Q

What are the danger zones for the Eng at idle and T/O

A

Idle
15’ in front
6’ behind intake

45 degree 175’ Behind

T/O
63’ in front
11 behind intake

45 degree 2100’ behind

55
Q

What style of eng are the GEnx 1B67?

A

Dual Rotor Axial Flow Turbofans with hight compression and Bypass Ratios

N1 and N2 rotors are Mechanically independent

N2 drives the Accessory gear box

56
Q

What are the Accessory gear box (AGB) components

A
FWD:
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger
HYD Engine driven pump
Lube and Scavenge pump
Permanent magnet alternator
AFT:
VF Starter Generator
Main fuel pump
Fuel metering unit
Flow split valve
57
Q

How is Reverse Thrust provided?

A

Cascading Vane system

Cover slides back and forces air forward

(provides reversal of the Fan airflow while the primary airflow continues normally)

58
Q

What is the EEC

A

Electronic Engine Controller

which monitors the Thrust lever position to automatically control the engines to provide limit protection

59
Q

What system has a detection system but no extinguishing system?

A

Main Gear Wheel wells

The have a detection system and overheat detection

60
Q

What is the Bottle location and how is it powered?

A

2 ENG
7 Cargo
1 APU

powered by the Hot Battery Bus

61
Q

What does the Lav have for fire extinguishing

A

Automatic extinguisher in the waste container

62
Q

Describe the Flight control systems in the 787

A

2 Fly-by-wire systems

Primary control system
HYD actuated
operating modes : Normal-Secondary-Direct

Flaps and Slats system
HYD actuated Electrical if HYD not avail
Primary-Secondary-Alternate

Stabilizer and 2 spoiler pairs are Electrically actuated

all have artificial feel

63
Q

Describe the electrical system

A

115 VAC
28 VDC

6 - 235 VAC Starter generators (2 each eng and 2 for apu)

64
Q

How is it controlled and managed

A

Bus Power Control Unit (BPCU)

65
Q

How is 28 VDC power provided?

A

Converting the 235 VDC using power conversion devices

66
Q

Where does the Primary flight controls fly-by-wire system get its power source?

A

it uses Permanent Magnet Generators (PGM’s) in the engine starter generators

67
Q

What is the Mode Control Panel

A

the panel used to manually control the aircraft flight path

68
Q

What is a TCP?

A

Tuning and Control Panels

69
Q

What is the ATP

A

Alerting and Transponder control panel

70
Q

What are the dimentions of the aircraft

A

186’1” Length
197’3” Wingspan
32’2” Main gear width
55’6” Height

71
Q

What is the min pavement for a 180 degree turn

A

138’4” no Diff Braking

(determined by the wing tip as it is the biggest ark no diff braking)

never make a turn with objects 15 ft from wing tip and 55 from nose.

72
Q

What is the seating arrangment for the 787

A

20 Business
21 Premium Economy
210 Economy

73
Q

Which door have single or dual escape slides

A

Even numbers have Dual (2L, 2R, 4L, 4R)

Odd have single

74
Q

What are the compartment designators for the cargo

A

FWD - 1 and 2
AFT - 3 and 4
BULK - 5

75
Q

Desribe the FWD and AFT cargo doors

A

Non plug type door
HYD operated with and electric power pack
manually locked and unlocked
power pack can be manually operated

76
Q

Describe the BULK cargo door

A

Plug type
Manually operated
gas spring counter balance with HYD snubber

(animals stored here)

77
Q

What are the OFCR and OFAR

A

OFCR - Overhead flight crew rest
OFAR - Overhead Flight attendant rest

Second level in front (1L & 1R) and back of aircraft (4L &4R)

May only be occupied for flight

Smoke detection but no extinguishing system

78
Q

What does the Light on the OFCR mean

A

Smoke detected
or
attendant call button on a PCU has been pushed

79
Q

In the OFCR what dose the Horn shut off switch mean and do

A

illuminates during a decompression or smoke in the OFCR

pressing the switch silences the horn but lite stays on

80
Q

What is the EICAS for OFCR smoke and OFAR

A

SMOKE REST UPR DR 1

SMOKE REST UPR DR 4

81
Q

What is unique about the OFAR

A

no ventilation below 15,000 ft

82
Q

Where is the Escape hatch for the OFCR

A

Under the right side bunk

83
Q

What powers the Dome lights

A

Stby Battery

84
Q

When normal electrical power is lost what lighting and DU are powered and how

A

Primary DU

aisle stand flood
FWD panels flood
Glare shield flood
FWD Dome

STORM

85
Q

What does the Contrast (inner knob) on the outboard inboard and lower DU’s do

A

Adjust the brightness of the Weather Radar and Terrain Display

86
Q

What lights are controlled by the Master Bright switch

A

DU’s

Internal panel

87
Q

What lights are controlled by the storm switch

A

Flood lights
Dome
indicator lights

88
Q

The 2 taxi lights are illuminated

A

anytime the nose gear landing light is illuminated

89
Q

When do the passenger seatbelt sign come on automatically even in the off position

A

When cabin Oxygen is deployed

90
Q

when seatbelt sign is in Auto, when does it illuminate

A
Gear up not locked
>/= Flap 5
< 10,000 ft
> 10,000 ft Cabin Altitude 
Oxygen on
91
Q

How long does the emergency lighting last

how is it charged

A

10 min

remote batteries charged by the airplane

92
Q

The FA’s EMER LIGHTS at 1L turns on the emergency lights:

A

regardless of Flight Deck EMER switch position

93
Q

Describe the pottable water

A

270 gallon tanks
in the tail empanage behind the bulk cargo
Two water pumps

94
Q

Describe the limits of the Flight Lock on the doors

A

engages when > 80 kts

Disengages when < 70 kts

95
Q

How do you enter the Flight deck door chime

A

1, ENT

96
Q

How can you vent the Flight deck on the ground

A

Vent open in the Escape hatch

97
Q

When do you have to apply TLim to approaches

A

When outside the operating range

when inside range only DA temp comp required

98
Q

Where can we find the list of RNP approaches Air Canada can fly

A

10-10 pages

99
Q

Is there any special MEL requirements above the usual RNAV for RNP approaches

A

EGPWS can not be MEL’d

100
Q

Where can we get the list of equip required to conduct a RNP approach if a system is failed

A

QRHN

101
Q

When is DA for an RNAV approach not authorized

A

RNP < 0.3

Higher than standard missed approach climb gradient
2.5%

102
Q

What category are we for Missed approach

A

Cat D

103
Q

What has to be turned off for RNAV RNP approaches

A

VOR/DME - POS REF 3/4

104
Q

What are the speed limits on a RNAV RNP approach

A

IAF - FAF 250
FAF - DA 165
MAP 265

(CAT D)

105
Q

Why are there specific speeds on a RNAV approach

A

to fly the RF leg without exceeding bank limits

106
Q

If conducting a Missed Approach just after the FAF

what is you max speed and for how long

A

165 until past the DA

flap retraction may need to be delayed

107
Q

Where can you get details about RNP approaches

A

QRHN

RNAV (RNP)

108
Q

Can you go direct to an RF originating WYPT

A

NO

109
Q

How do you know your ANP is higher than RNP

A

Yellow Bar on NPS

110
Q

On an RNAV approach what is checked at the FAF

A

PF - FAF name

PM - Passing altitude

Checking for difference in altitude of < 100 ft

111
Q

What do you have to do if LNAV/VNAV TLIM is out of the rang specified on the plate

A

revert to LNAV minimums

112
Q

What are RF curved approaches

A

RF - Radius to fix

curved approaches

113
Q

Do you need to monitor the underlying navigation aid to fly an overlay approach

A

no

114
Q

What is Terps and Pan Ops

A

Terps - Terminal Instrument Procedures

Pan Ops - Procedures for Air Navigation services

115
Q

What is the Z mean

A

Z for the lowest minimums

Y next lowest etc

116
Q

LNAV means what

A

Lateral NAVigation

CDA approaches only

MDA + 50

117
Q

Where can you find the GPA for most Canadian RNAV GNSS approaches

A

No GP available

found in the ground speed knots portion of the approach plate

118
Q

What is CDFA

A

continuous descent final approach

119
Q

Can Air Canada aircraft conduct RNAV RNP or RNAV AR approaches

A

NO

120
Q

Is there a limit to NAIFR

A

Yes you cant do it to airfields with only RNAV approaches available

121
Q

Can you use airports as alternated for T/O or enroute if the only have GNSS

A

yes

if it meets the requirement FOM 8.1.8.3 Alternate with GNSS Approach

122
Q

How can you do a pa without the crew bunks being bothered

A

Use PA - ALL