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General > General - Laatste dingen 6 > Flashcards

General - Laatste dingen 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Influenza
a. orthomoyxo
b. flavi
c. reo
d. retro

A

a. orthomyxo

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2
Q

AHS
a. orthomoyxo
b. flavi
c. reo
d. retro

A

c. reo

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3
Q

EIA
a. orthomoyxo
b. flavi
c. reo
d. retro

A

d. retro

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4
Q

DNA enveloped
a. herpes, poxi
b. parvo
c. corona, orthomyxo, flavi, retro
d. reo

A

a. herpes, poxi

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5
Q

DNA nonenveloped
a. herpes, poxi
b. reo
c. corona, orthomyxo, flavi, retro
d. parvo

A

d. parvo

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6
Q

RNA enveloped
a. reo
b. herpes, poxi
c. parvo
d. corona, orthomyxo, flavi, retro

A

d. corona, orthomyxo, flavi, retro

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7
Q

RNA nonenveloped
a. herpes, poxi
b. parvo
c. corona, orthomyxo, flavi, retro
d. reo

A

d. reo

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8
Q

Pattern recognition cells on
a. macrophages, dendritic cells
b. lymfocytes, mast cells
c. lymphocytes, mast cells, macrophages
d. dendritic cells, mast cells, macrophages

A

d. dendritic cells, mast cells, macrophages

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9
Q

Complement
a. generation C3 convertase –> C3 cleaved –> C3b released and C3a bound to microbial surfaces
b. generation C3 convertase –> C3 cleaved –> C3a released and C3b bound to microbial surfaces

A

b. generation C3 convertase –> C3 cleaved –> C3a released and C3b bound to microbial surfaces

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10
Q

Lectin pathway
a. Lectins bind carbohydrate on microbial surface
b. C1q binds antibody bound to microbial surface
c. C3 convertase deposited directly on microbial surface

A

a. Lectins bind carbohydrate on microbial surface

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11
Q

Classical pathway
a. Lectins bind carbohydrate on microbial surface
b. C1q binds antibody bound to microbial surface
c. C3 convertase deposited directly on microbial surface

A

b. C1q binds antibody bound to microbial surface

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12
Q

Alternate pathway
a. Lectins bind carbohydrate on microbial surface
b. C1q binds antibody bound to microbial surface
c. C3 convertase deposited directly on microbial surface

A

c. C3 convertase deposited directly on microbial surface

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13
Q

Chemotaxis (complement)
a. Soluble C3a and C5a recruit phagocytic cells to site of infection and promote inflammation
b. Phagocytic cells with C3b receptors engulf and destroy microbes with surface-bound C3b
c. Assembly of components C5-C9 on the microbial surface leads to formation of the membrane attack complex and lysis of the microbe

A

a. Soluble C3a and C5a recruit phagocytic cells to site of infection and promote inflammation

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14
Q

Opsonization (complement)
a. Assembly of components C5-C9 on the microbial surface leads to formation of the membrane attack complex and lysis of the microbea.
b. Soluble C3a and C5a recruit phagocytic cells to site of infection and promote inflammation
c. Phagocytic cells with C3b receptors engulf and destroy microbes with surface-bound C3b

A

c. Phagocytic cells with C3b receptors engulf and destroy microbes with surface-bound C3b

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15
Q

Microbial lysis (complement)
a. Soluble C3a and C5a recruit phagocytic cells to site of infection and promote inflammation
b. Phagocytic cells with C3b receptors engulf and destroy microbes with surface-bound C3b
c. Assembly of components C5-C9 on the microbial surface leads to formation of the membrane attack complex and lysis of the microbe

A

c. Assembly of components C5-C9 on the microbial surface leads to formation of the membrane attack complex and lysis of the microbe

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16
Q

Th1
a. IL-17, IL-22
b. TGF-beta, IL-10
c. IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, IL-10
d. IFN-gamma

A

d. IFN-gamma

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17
Q

Th2
a. IL-17, IL-22
b. TGF-beta, IL-10
c. IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, IL-10
d. IFN-gamma

A

c. IL-4, IL-5, IL-3, IL-10

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18
Q

Th17
a. IL-17, IL-22
b. TGF-beta, IL-10
c. IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, IL-10
d. IFN-gamma

A

a. IL-17, IL-22

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19
Q

Treg
a. IL-17, IL-22
b. TGF-beta, IL-10
c. IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, IL-10
d. IFN-gamma

A

b. TGF-beta, IL-10

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20
Q

Leads to macrophage activation
a. Th1
b. Th2
c. Th17
d. Treg

A

a. Th1

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21
Q

Leads to IgG
a. Th1
b. Th2
c. Th17
d. Treg

A

a. Th1

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22
Q

Leads to IgA, IgE, IgG
a. Th1
b. Th2
c. Th17
d. Treg

A

b. Th2

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23
Q

Type I hypersensitivity
a. IgA, IgG
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. T-lymphocytes

A

b. IgE

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24
Q

Type II hypersensitivity
a. IgA, IgG
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. T-lymphocytes

A

b. IgG

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25
Q

Type III hypersensitivity
a. IgA, IgG
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. T-lymphocytes

A

a. IgA, IgG

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26
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity
a. IgA, IgG
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. T-lymphocytes

A

d. T-lymphocytes

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27
Q

Systemic anapylaxis
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

a. Type I hypersensitivity

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28
Q

Cullicoides hypersensitivity
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

a. Type I hypersensitivity

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29
Q

Blood transfusion reactions
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

b. Type II hypersensitivity

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29
Q

ERU
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

d. Type IV hypersensitivity (Th1)

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29
Q

Pemphigus
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

b. Type II hypersensitivity

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29
Q

Penicillin
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

a. Type I hypersensitivity

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30
Q

IMHA
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

b. Type II hypersensitivity

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30
Q

Contact dermatitis
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

d. Type IV hypersensitivity

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30
Q

Purpura hemorrhagica
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

c. Type III hypersensitivity

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31
Q

RAO
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

a. Type I hypersensitivity

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31
Q

RAO
a. Th1
b. Th2

A

b. Th2

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31
Q

NI
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

b. Type II hypersensitivity

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31
Q

SLE
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

type II and III

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31
Q

drug-associated IMHA or IMTP (penicillin)
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

b. Type II hypersensitivity

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32
Q

Serum sickness
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

c. Type III hypersensitivity

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32
Q

Does not occur before 9-11 months, adult levels at 18 months
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

b. IgE

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32
Q

Chronic Cullicoides hypersensitivity
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

d. Type IV hypersensitivity (Th2)

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32
Q

SCID
a. lack of DNA protein kinase
b. lack of RNA protein kinase
c. lack of DNA polymerase
d. lack of RNA polymerase

A

a. lack of DNA protein kinase

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32
Q

Detected in minor concentrations at birth
a. IgA, IgG
b. IgA, IgM
c. IgG, IgM
d. IgE, IgM

A

c. IgG, IgM

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32
Q

FIS
a. GYS-1
b. SCLN
c. SLA5A3
d. RYR

A

c. SLA5A3

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32
Q

Less allergies
a. Th1 –> Th2
b. Th2 –> Th1

A

b. Th2 –> Th1

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32
Q

FIS
a. increased IgG/IgM
b. low IgG/IgM
c. low IgG
d. low IgM

A

b. low IgG/IgM (IgM decline compared with controls)

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33
Q

SCID
a. no IgA
b. no IgE
c. no IgG
d. no IgM

A

d. no IgM (SOME AFTER COLOSTRUM)

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33
Q

X-linked
a. transient hypogammaglobulinemia
b. agammaglobulinemia

A

b. agammaglobulinemia

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33
Q

Selective … deficiency
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

d. IgM (TWO CONDITIONS, FOALS (MANY DIE) AND 2-5 YO)

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33
Q

Dex
a. reduced lymphocytes
b. increased lymphocytes

A

a. reduced lymphocytes

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33
Q

FIS/agammaglobulinemia
a. both no/reduced T-lymphocytes
b. both no/reduced B-lymphocytes
c. FIS no/reduced B-lymphocytes, agammaglobulinemia no/reduced T-lymphocytes
d. FIS no/reduced T-lymphocytes, agammaglobulinemia no/reduced B-lymphocytes

A

b. both no/reduced B-lymphocytes

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34
Q

GCs receptors
a. cytoplastic
b. membrane bound

A

a. cytoplastic

35
Q

Penicillin
a. low VD
b. medium VD
c. high VD

36
Q

Cephalosporines
a. low VD
b. medium VD
c. high VD

37
Q

Aminoglycosides
a. low VD
b. medium VD
c. high VD

38
Q

NSAIDs
a. low VD
b. medium VD
c. high VD

39
Q

Prednisolone
a. low VD
b. medium VD
c. high VD

A

b. medium VD

40
Q

Rifampine
a. low VD
b. medium VD
c. high VD

A

b. medium VD

41
Q

Ionized drug
a. hydrophobic
b. hydrophilic

A

b. hydrophilic

42
Q

Weak base in plasma
a. nonionized
b. ionized

A

a. nonionized

43
Q

Weak acid in plasma
a. nonionized
b. ionized

A

b. ionized

44
Q

Weak acids
a. low Vd
b. medium Vd
c. high Vd

45
Q

Weak bases
a. low Vd
b. medium Vd
c. high Vd

A

c. high Vd

46
Q

Penicillins
a. acidic
b. basic

47
Q

Cephalosporins
a. acidic
b. basic

48
Q

Sulfonamides
a. acidic
b. basic

49
Q

NSAIDs
a. acidic
b. basic

50
Q

Macrolides
a. acidic
b. basic

51
Q

TMP
a. acidic
b. basic

52
Q

Metronidazole
a. acidic
b. basic

53
Q

Aminoglycosides
a. acidic
b. basic

54
Q

Drug that bind predominantly to albumin
a. acidic
b. basic

55
Q

Tubular reabsorption
a. active for drugs, passive for endogenous compounds
b. passive for drugs, active for endogenous compounds

A

b. passive for drugs, active for endogenous compounds

56
Q

Weak base in urine
a. nonionized
b. ionized

A

a. nonionized

57
Q

Weak acid in urine
a. nonionized
b. ionized

A

b. ionized

58
Q

Weak base in urine
a. less reabsorption
b. more reabsorption

A

b. more reabsorption

59
Q

Weak acid in urine
a. less reabsorption
b. more reabsorption

A

a. less reabsorption

60
Q

Allelic heterogenity
a. different mutations in a single gene cause the same disease or condition.
b. single gene effects lot of different traits

A

a. different mutations in a single gene cause the same disease or condition.

61
Q

Pleiotropy
a. different mutations in a single gene cause the same disease or condition.
b. single gene effects lot of different traits

A

b. single gene effects lot of different traits

62
Q

HERDA
a. GBE1
b. PPIB
c. SCN4A
d. RYR1

63
Q

Glanders
a. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosum
b. Streptococcus equi equi
c. Streptococcus zooepidemicus
d. Burkholdeira mallei

A

d. Burkholdeira mallei

64
Q

Thyroid hormones higher in
a. mares
b. geldings
c. stallions

65
Q

Endurance
a. decrease TH
b. increase TH

A

a. decrease TH

66
Q

Transport
a. decrease TH
b. increase TH

A

b. increase TH

67
Q

High carbohydrate or fat
a. decrease TH
b. increase TH

A

b. increase TH

68
Q

Adiponectin
a. no risk for laminitis
b. if increased risk for laminitis
c. if decreased risk for laminitis

A

c. if decreased risk for laminitis

69
Q

(Levo)thyroxine
a. induce weight loss
b. reduce weight loss

A

a. induce weight loss

70
Q

SGLT2
a. increase secretion glucose from urine
b. inhibit uptake glucose from urine

A

b. inhibit uptake glucose from urine

71
Q

Metformine in
a. hyperinsulinemia
b. obesitas

A

a. hyperinsulinemia

72
Q

Fermentation sorbitol and lactose
a. S. equi
b. S. zooepidemicus

A

b. S. zooepidemicus

73
Q

No Strep vaccination
a. >12,800
b. >6,400
c. >3,200
d. >1,600

74
Q

Higher BALF neutrophils
a. IL-2, IL-3
b. IL-4, IL-5
c. IL-17, IL-23
d. IL-20, IL-21

A

c. IL-17, IL-23

75
Q

Mastocytic IAD
a. IL-2, IL-3
b. IL-4, IL-5
c. IL-17, IL-23
d. IL-20, IL-21

A

b. IL-4, IL-5

76
Q

IAD
a. lower V4
b. lower V200
c. lower V4/V200

A

c. lower V4/V200

77
Q

Higher in IAD
a. SP-A
b. SP-B
c. SP-C
d. SP-D

A

d. SP-D (BUT NO CORRELATION WITH BALF CYTOLOGY IN RACEHORSES)

78
Q

Interferon alpha racehorses IAD
a. less neutrophils
b. more neutrophils
c. less mast cells
b. more mast cells

A

a. less neutrophils (ALSO REDUCED LIKELIHOOD OF RELAPSE)

79
Q

Inhaled nanoparticles CpG
a. decrease neutrophils/mucus/clinical signs, increase lung function, induce Th2/Th1 shift
b. decrease neutrophils/mucus/clinical signs, increase lung function, induce Th1/Th2 shift

A

a. decrease neutrophils/mucus/clinical signs, increase lung function, induce Th2/Th1 shift

80
Q

Modified soluble curcunim derivate in RAO
a. less neutrophils
b. more neutrophils
c. less mast cells
d. more mastcells

A

a. less neutrophils

81
Q

Predisposition
a. Standardbreds ESGD
b. Standardbreds EGGD
c. Thoroughbreds ESGD
d. Thoroughbreds EGGD

A

c. Thoroughbreds ESGD

82
Q

ESGD > decreased performance
a. Thoroughbreds
b. Standardbreds
c. both

83
Q

Rhino
a. D752 > EHM, N752 > abortion
b. D752 > abortion, N752 > EHM

A

a. D752 > EHM, N752 > abortion

84
Q

Grade 4 EIPH
a. no influence on career
b. shorter career in Thoroughbreds
c. shorter career in Standardbreds

A

b. shorter career in Thoroughbreds

85
Q

Benefits furosemide higher in
a. females <6yo
b. females >6yo
c. males <6yo
d. males >6yo

A

c. males <6yo

86
Q

Placenta transfer possible
a. Neospora hughesi
b. Sarcocystis neurona
c. both

A

a. Neospora hughesi

87
Q

EPM
a. horse definitive host
b. opossum intermediate host
c. sarcosyts ingested
d. sporocysts ingested

A

d. sporocysts ingested

88
Q

Higher risk EPM in
a. female Thoroughbreds (1-5yo, >13yo)
b. male Thoroughbreds (1-5yo, >13yo)
c. female Standardbreds (1-5yo, >13yo)
d. male Standardbreds (1-5yo, >13yo)

A

d. male Standardbreds (1-5yo, >13yo)

89
Q

Reduce risk aminoglycoside –> AKI
a. Mannitol
b. DMSO
c. Calcium + vitamin C
d. Selenium + vitamin B

A

c. Calcium + vitamin C

90
Q

Type IV RTA
a. impaired hydrogen excretion
b. impaired K excretion
c. impaired HCO3 absorption
d. impaired HCO3 excretion

A

b. impaired K excretion

91
Q

Fanconi syndrome
a. type I RTA
b. type II RTA
c. type IV RTA

A

b. type II RTA (with widespread proximal tubular dysfunction causing loss of glucose, phosphate, uric acid, amino acids and protein)

92
Q

RTA
a. metabolic acidosis and hyperchloremia with normal anion gap
b. metabolic acidosis and hypochloremia with normal anion gap
c. metabolic acidosis and hyperchloremia with increased anion gap
d. metabolic acidosis and hypochloremia with increased anion gap

A

a. metabolic acidosis and hyperchloremia with normal anion gap

93
Q

Adipose dysregulation
a. low adiponectin/leptin
b. high adiponectin/leptin
c. high adiponectin, low leptin
d. low adiponectin, high leptin

A

d. low adiponectin, high leptin

94
Q

Insulin in old horses
a. higher
b. lower

95
Q

Adiponectin in older animals
a. lower
b. higher

A

a. lower (CONSISTENT WITH AGE ASSOCIATION WITH ID, IMPROVES INSULIN SENSITIVITY)

96
Q

SGLT-2
a. PT
b. DT
c. CD

97
Q

C1-C5
a. rear limbs severly affected
b. tail weakness, bladder atony, perineal hypalgesia
c. rear limbs more affected
d. front limbs more affected
e. rear limbs mildly affected, normal fore limbs

A

c. rear limbs more affected

98
Q

C6-T2
a. rear limbs severly affected
b. tail weakness, bladder atony, perineal hypalgesia
c. rear limbs more affected
d. front limbs more affected
e. rear limbs mildly affected, normal fore limbs

A

d. front limbs more affected

99
Q

T3-L4
a. rear limbs severly affected
b. tail weakness, bladder atony, perineal hypalgesia
c. rear limbs more affected
d. front limbs more affected
e. rear limbs mildly affected, normal fore limbs

A

e. rear limbs mildly affected, normal fore limbs

100
Q

L4-S2
a. rear limbs severly affected
b. tail weakness, bladder atony, perineal hypalgesia
c. rear limbs more affected
d. front limbs more affected
e. rear limbs mildly affected, normal fore limbs

A

a. rear limbs severly affected

101
Q

> S2
a. rear limbs severly affected
b. tail weakness, bladder atony, perineal hypalgesia
c. rear limbs more affected
d. front limbs more affected
e. rear limbs mildly affected, normal fore limbs

A

b. tail weakness, bladder atony, perineal hypalgesia

102
Q

Lolitrem
a. stimulation acetylcholine
b. reduction acetylcholine
c. stimulation GABA
d. reduction GABA

A

d. reduction GABA

103
Q

Mydriasis
a. lolitrem
b. botulism
c. tetanus

A

b. botulism

104
Q

HENDRA
a. flies
b. fruit bat
c. Culicoides
d. Culex

A

b. fruit bat

105
Q

SDF
a. alkalosis
b. acidosis

A

a. alkalosis

106
Q

Diet inducing nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
a. high nitrate
b. high oxalate

A

b. high oxalate

107
Q

Suppression 1alpha-hydroxylase activity
a. increase 1,25(OH)2D3
b. decrease 1,25(OH)2D3

A

b. decrease 1,25(OH)2D3

108
Q

Calcitrol
a. reduced Ca/PO4 absorption
b. increased Ca/PO4 absorption

A

b. increased Ca/PO4 absorption

109
Q

Cortisol formation
a. zona fasciculata
b. zona semimata
c. zona hurata
d. zona slamata

A

a. zona fasciculata

110
Q

Hypercalcemia
a. Mg toxicosis
b. Cantharidin toxicosis
c. nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
d. MH

111
Q

Hypoalbuminemia
a. total Ca / ionary Ca decreases
b. total Ca / ionary Ca increases
c. total Ca increases / ionary Ca stable
d. total Ca decreases / ionary Ca stable

A

d. total Ca decreases / ionary Ca stable

112
Q

Anhidrosis
a. reduction B1
b. stimulation B2
c. reduction a1
d. stimulation a2

A

b. stimulation B2

113
Q

Does NOT stimulate physis closure
a. estrogen
b. testosterone
c. cortisol
d. thyroxine

A

d. thyroxine

General (18 decks)

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