GENERAL Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum oil quantity for dispatch?

A

12 or 14 quarts depending on aircraft

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2
Q

Maximum drop on oxygen test?

A

100 psi

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3
Q

Below what psi of oxygen pressure requires an AML entry?

A

850 psi

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4
Q

If less than 1000 lb fuel in the center tank, should you operate the center fuel pumps?

A

No

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5
Q

At least one pilot shall have TERR Display selected, unless weather is such that
both pilots need to display weather. True or False?

A

True

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6
Q

When should you request ACARS departure clearance?

A

No earlier than 20 minutes prior to departure

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7
Q

Do you need to hear the oxygen test thru the speaker fir every flight?

A

No. Only required for the first flight on that aircraft

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8
Q

Do you need to check the oxygen pressure drop for every oxygen test?

A

No. Only required once while doing an origination flow oxygen test. Usually done using the observer oxygen mask.

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9
Q

Engine warm up time for takeoff?

A

3 minutes and oil temp above 31c

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10
Q

A comparison of the entered OAT versus sensed OAT occurs
after first engine start. True or False?

A

True

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11
Q

A difference of how many degrees between the sensed and entered temperature in the fmc will cause takeoff speeds to be deleted?

A

6 degrees

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12
Q

What are the recommended thrust limits while taxiing in different areas on the ground?

A

It is recommended to limit thrust to 35% N1 in congested ramp areas,
40% elsewhere on ramps and up to 45% on taxiways. Use the N1 Command
Sector to predict thrust settings during spool-up

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13
Q

Should the nosewheel be turned when the aircraft is static?

A

No

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14
Q

What is a normal taxi speed?

A

20 kts

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15
Q

What speed should you slow to while making large turns on the ground?

A

Under 10 kts

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16
Q

Wingtip radius for a 180 degree turn?

A

75 ft

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17
Q

When should you make a PA prior to takeoff?

A

At least 2 minutes prior to takeoff

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18
Q

When should the captain sound the before takeoff chime?

A

When cleared on to the runway for takeoff

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19
Q

What is the lowest rvr or visibility the first officer can conduct a takeoff?

A

1600 rvr or 1/4 mile visibility

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20
Q

Max wind to operate cargo doors?

A

40 kts

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21
Q

Max cross wind for takeoff and landing on dry runway?

A

33 kts

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22
Q

Max tailwind for landing?

A

10 kts

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23
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff?

A

15 kts

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24
Q

Max wind limit for takeoff?

A

50 kts

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25
Q

What pitch attitude will give you a tail strike on rotation?

A

11 degrees

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26
Q

Is a rolling takeoff recommended for a low visibility HUD takeoff?

A

No

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27
Q

Following a rejected takeoff, you end up in caution zone 1. After how many minutes can you consider an inspection and takeoff again?

A

60 minutes

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28
Q

Following a rejected takeoff, you are in fuse plug melt zone. Should you set the parking brake?

A

No

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29
Q

Following any high speed reject, what should you do?

A

Write it up and contact maintenance.

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30
Q

V2+15 gives you how many degrees of bank protection?

A

40 degrees

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31
Q

Minimum maneuvering speeds give you how many degrees of bank protection?

A

40 degrees

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32
Q

Speeds up to V2 gives you how many degrees of bank protection?

A

15 degrees

33
Q

How far out does the extended runway centerline symbol go?

A

14 miles

34
Q

What is clean speed for each takeoff?

A

VRef40+70

35
Q

Does TPS automatically account fir contaminated runways?

A

No

36
Q

Can you use fmc qrh v speeds or manually calculated v speeds for contaminated runways for takeoff?

A

No

37
Q

Can you takeoff on a contaminated runway with a tailwind?

A

No

38
Q

Can you takeoff from a contaminated runway with inoperative thrust reversers?

A

No

39
Q

What is the recommended flap setting for takeoff on contaminated runways?

A

Flaps 15

40
Q

If econ performance is not available, what speed should you climb and decent at?

A

When ECON performance data is not available from the FMC:
— climb at 300 knots/0.78 Mach.
— cruise at Flight Plan Mach.
— descend at cruise Mach/290 knots minimum.

41
Q

What are the company position reporting criteria?

A

Company position reports which include time abeam waypoint, altitude, and fuel
remaining are required as follows:
— At the first waypoint after top of climb (TOC).
— Between TOC and BOD - at intervals not to exceed 90 minutes.
— At the last waypoint prior to beginning of descent (BOD).
Exception: Domestic flights scheduled for less than 90 minutes air time (OFF to ON)
are not required to provide position/fuel reports unless there are required
communications with dispatch due to fuel deficiencies.

42
Q

What auto brake setting must you use if landing on a wet runway?

A

Minimum auto-brakes 3

43
Q

Runways with 6000 feet or less available landing length, use
an autobrake setting of what?

A

3 or max

44
Q

What flaps should you use while landing on a runway less than 6000 ft?

A

Flaps 40

45
Q

Flap maneuvering speeds are usually how many knots above minimum maneuvering speeds for each flap setting?

A

15-20 kts

46
Q

What category aircraft is the B737?

A

D

47
Q

If landing with flaps 15 and engine anti ice will be used for landing, or wing anti ice has been used during flight, or Icing conditions were encountered during the flight and the landing temperature is colder than 10°C, how many knots should you add to Ref speed?

A

Ref + 10

48
Q

What will the first push of TOGA Vs second push give you during a go around?

A

The first push of the TO/GA Switch will command the autothrottle and FD for a
1000-2000 fpm climb. The pitch FMA will annunciate TO/GA and the N1 limit will
display full go-around N1; actual thrust may be below the limit value.
If full go-around thrust is required, push the TO/GA Switch a second time

49
Q

During a go around, will the mcp speed window be open or closed?

A

Closed

50
Q

Following a go around, when will the mcp speed window open?

A

It will open at altitude acquired at the missed approach altitude and it will be at the maneuvering speed for the existing flap configuration.

51
Q

What happens to thrust during a go around?

A

Thrust will stay at full GA until ALT ACQ or another pitch mode is
selected, so the crew must reduce to climb thrust via the N1 Switch on the MCP,
manually, or by selecting a pitch mode other than TO/GA

52
Q

Flaps must be retracted for a valid hydraulic quantity check. True or False?

A

True

53
Q

Write up the hydraulic quantity if it indicates RF or 106% with the flap retracted. True or False?

A

True

54
Q

The autothrottle should be disengaged in severe
turbulence. True or False?

A

True

55
Q

If the ramp surface is slippery (ice or other material accumulations), engine start is
prohibited during pushback. True or False?

A

True

56
Q

Explain the cold weather engine run up procedure?

A

When in icing conditions and the OAT is at or below 3°C, or if increased fan
vibration due to fan ice accumulation is present, perform an engine runup as needed
using the following procedure:
— Check that the area behind the aircraft is clear.
— Advance the thrust levers to a minimum of 70% N1 for
approximately 30 seconds duration at intervals no greater than 30 minutes

57
Q

After operating prolonged icing conditions, after landing, Do not retract the flaps to less than flaps 15 until the flap areas have been checked to be free of contaminants. True or False?

A

True

58
Q

Should a pilot or flight attendant open a door when arriving at a gate except for in an emergency?

A

No

59
Q

Who is the only person allowed to close the main cabin door?

A

Purser

60
Q

How many life rafts are on the aircraft?

A

3

61
Q

The first officers number two window can be opened from outside or inside. True or False?

A

True

62
Q

What category of cargo compartment is the forward and aft cargo compartments?

A

Catagory C

63
Q

How do you open the cargo doors?

A

Manual

64
Q

Are the cargo areas pressurized?

A

Yes

65
Q

When does the over wing emergency exit doors automatically lock?

A

The overwing emergency exits lock when:
— three of the four Entry/Service doors are closed and
— either engine is running and
— the airplane air/ground logic indicates that the airplane is in the air or both
thrust levers are advanced.

The overwing emergency exits unlock when any one of the above conditions is not met or DC power is lost.

66
Q

V2 gives you how many degrees of bank protection?

A

30 degrees

67
Q

What is ACMS?

A

Aircraft Condition Monitoring System. Collects mandatory and non mandatory aircraft data for airline review. ACMS system uses the DFDAU to collect and send the data to the QAR (airline review purposes) and the FDR (regulatory purposes)

68
Q

What is DFDAU?

A

Digital Flight Data Acquisition Unit. Collects mandatory flight data from various systems and records it.

69
Q

Where is the Accelerometer on the 737 located?

A

In the wheel well behind B system hyd reservoir. It is location closest to the CG of the aircraft so it wont have interference from pitch, roll, yaw etc.

70
Q

What is a Quick Access Recorder QAR?

A

Data is send ACMS data from the DFDAU to the QAR for quick collection.

71
Q

What are the 3 types of data the DFDAU collect?

A

Digital, Discreet and Analog data

72
Q

The V2 speed set in the MCP speed window cannot be changed after
reaching 60 knots. True or false?

A

True

73
Q

How many radio altimeters do we have?

A

2 independent RA
Each RA provides information to each respective FCC

74
Q

How many radio altimeters do we have?

A

2

75
Q

Each radio altimeter provides information to its respective FCC. True or False?

A

True

76
Q

With a radio altimeter inoperative, the autopilot will disengage two seconds after LOC and GS capture. True or False?

A

True

77
Q

When does the flight data recorder start operating?

A

Flight data recorder starts operating when either engine starts. In flight, it records as long as there is some electrical power on the airplane even with both engine shutdown

78
Q

When does the CVR start operating?

A

CVR records anytime there is 115v ac power applied to the airplane