Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

4th Year > Gen Med > Flashcards

Gen Med Flashcards

1
Q

T2DM Diagnostic Criteria

  • HbA1c
  • Fasting blood glucose
A

HbA1c > 6.5 (48mmol)

Fasting glucose > 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is B12 absorbed?

A

Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is folate absorbed?

A

Duodenum & Jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Reference ranges for Anaemia

A

FBC <130 in men, <120 in women AND children 12-14

MCV <80 = Microcytosis (iron deficiency more likely)
MCV >100 = Macrocytic

Ferratin - correlates to total body iron stores. Low ferritin suggests low iron except in pregnant people (2nd&3rd trimester)

Serum ferritin <30 = iron deficiency
however it is an inflammatory marker so can be raised despite iron deficiency in acute or chronic inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Term that describes velocity dependent increased tone?

A

Spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Term that describes increased tone not dependent on velocity?

A

Rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what visual disturbance is likely to be reported in acromegaly?

A

Pituitary adenoma –> Impinges on optic chasm causing bitemporal hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Symptoms of Horners syndrome

A

ptosis - drooping eyelid
miosis - constricted pupil
anhrdrosis - can’t sweat

ON IPSILATERAL SIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Biochemistry suggestive of AKI?

A

Increase in serum creatinine >26.4
or increase >50%
or reduced urine output

within 48 hour period and after fluid resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Indications for acute dialysis

A 
Acidosis
Electrolytes (raised K+)
Intoxication (Salicylic acid, Lithium, isopropanol, magnesium laxative, ethylene glycol)

Overload (fluid)
Uraemia complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Muddy brown casts

A

acute tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

H.Pylori eradication?

A

PPI + Amox + Clarithromycin

PPI + Met + clarithromycin if PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is smoking protective for?

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pseudopolyp & crypt abscess

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cobblestoning & skip lesions

A

Crohns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Radio-lucent stones

A

urate + xanthine stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Radio-dense stones

A

Cystine stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Does raised urea favour upper GI or lower GI pathology?

A

Upper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Major inspiratory muscles

A

Diaphragm (C3,4,5) and external intercostals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Accessory muscles of inspiration

A

SCM, scalene’s,pectoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Muscles of ACTIVE expiration

A

Abdominals and internal intercostals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Side effect of isoniazid

A

Drug induced lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Side effect of ethambutol

A

Optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Side effects of rifampicin

A

Hepatitis
Orange secretions
Flu like symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When is methyldopa contraindicated

A

Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is hairy leukoplakia associated with?

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Rotterdam criteria

A

Oligo/amenorhoea
Hyperandrogenism
Polycystic ovaries (TVUS)

2 required for diagnosis of PCOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Drug management of peripheral arterial disease

A

Atorvastatin

Clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is treatment with pyrazinamide associated with?

A

Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ECG changes in PE

A

S wave in lead I, a large Q wave in lead III and an inverted T wave in lead III - ‘S1Q3T3’

RBBB
RAD
Sinus tachy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Commonest cause of ascending cholangitis?

A

E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Differentiating between seizures/pseudoseizures

A

Prolactin raised after genuine seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What causes Scarlet fever?

A

GAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Are statins contraindicated in pregnancy

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Side effects of nitrates

A

Hypotension
Headaches
Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Drug that reduced INR?

A

Pheonobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What should be prescribed with goserelin and why?

A

Anti androgen for first 2 weeks

prevents flare of symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Peripheral Arterial Disease management

A

QUIT SMOKING
Exercise training - claudication
Atorvastatin 80mg
Clopidogrel 75mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

BP targets > 80 y/o

A

Clinic 150/90 mmHg

ABPM 145/85 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cutaneous signs in dermatomyositis?

A

Gottrons papules, shawl sign, heliotrope rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Lab findings for polymyositis/dermatomyositis

A

Raised CK

Anti Jo-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Definitive investigation and treatment of poly/dermatomyosisis

A

Muscle biopsy = definitive investigation

Prednisolone 40mg plus MTX or AZT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which drugs exacerbate psoriasis?

A

Propanolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is secreted from zone glomerulosa of adrenal?

A

Mineralocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is secreted from zone fascicularis of adrenal?

A

Glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is secreted from zone reticularis of adrenals?

A

Androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is secreted from the adrenal medulla?

A

Adrenaline and noradrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Function of mineralocorticoid?

A

Increase BP by retaining fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Example of mineralocorticoid?

And antimineralocorticoid?

A

Fludrocortisone

Sprironolactone and eplerenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Inheritance of MODY

A

AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Early diastolic murmur post endocarditis - worse when making a fist and collapsing pulse

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

On HRT but needing contraception - period control

A

Progestogen only methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

COCP increases risk of ….. and …. cancer but is protective against … and …. cancer

A

Increased risk of breast & cervical

Decreased risk of endometrial & ovarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Inverted t waves =

A

Ischaemia

e.g. inverted t waves and no raised trop then angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Management of heart block

A
  1. 500micrograms atropine up until 3mg
  2. Transcutaneous pacing
  3. Adrenaline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

1st line treatment for prolactinoma?

A

cabergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What tumours is MEN2 associated with?

A

Medullary thyroid
Parathyroid
Phaeochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What drug is contraindicated in VT?

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What differentiates diffuse and limited systemic sclerosis?

A

Trunk only affected in diffuse

Antibodies:
Limited = anti centromere antibody
Difffuse = anti scl-70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Treatment for raynauds?

A

CCB/iloprost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Warfarin his teratogenic.

True or false?

A

True

LMWH instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Risk factors for gout

A

Genetics, diet high in red meat, alcohol and seafood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Acid build up in gout

A

Uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pseudogout =

A

Calcium pyrophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Knee jerk nerves

A

L2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Malignancy + raised CK?

A

Polymyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Hypertension in systemic sclerosis with renal complications?

A

ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How long is antibiotic therapy in septic arthritis?

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Hoffman’s test

A

suggests ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

cannot close his left eye or wrinkle the left side of his forehead

A

Left CN VII LMN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

CN VII lower face =

A

Contralateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Location & function of brocas area

A

Inferior frontal gyrus

Motor function of speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Location and function of wernickes area

A

Superior temporal gyrus

Comprehension and planning of speech - cannot understand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Murphys sign

A

Pain on palpation of right subcostal area on expiration after deep inspiration due to inflamed gallbladder coming into contact with body wall

Diagnosis = acute cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Anticoagulant of choice in AKI

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Contraindication to triptans

A

CVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

RA, splenomegaly and low WCC

A

Feltys syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Shortened, adducted and internally rotated leg.

What’s the diagnosis and which nerve is most at risk of damage?

A

Posterior hip dislocation

Sciatic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pneumothorax <2cm

A

Discharge and review - normally self limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Biceps reflex nerves
Triceps reflex nerves
Supinator reflex nerves

A

C5/6
C6/7
C5/6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

4 most common causes of liver cirrhosis?

A

Alcohol
NAFLD
Hep B
Hep C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Antidote for opioid overdose?

A

Naloxone

100micrograms at a time up to 1200mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Antidote for benzos?

A

Activated charcoal if within 1 hour

Flumazenil (caution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Antidote for MDMA/cocaine (uppers)

A

None - slow them down with benzos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Pupils in MDMA/cocaine OD?

A

Dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Pupils in opiate OD?

A

Pinpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Pupils in benzo OD?

A

Normal/dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Presentation in anticholinergic OD?

and examples of common causes?

A

Everything is dry - Dry skin

Antihistamines, TCAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Presentation of cholinergic OD (organophosphates/nerve agent)

A 
Salivation 
Lacrimation 
Urination 
Diarrhoea
GI
Emesis

Manage with atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Antidote for b-blocker OD?

A

Glucagon/insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Antidote for CCB OD?

A

Ca chloride or Ca gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Antidote for iron OD?

A

Desferrioxamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

antidote for digoxin?

A

Digibind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Cholecystitis vx cholangitis

A

Inflammation of gallbladder vs inflammation of the bile ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

tinkling bowel sounds

A

obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Haustra vs valvular conniventes

A

Haustra - large bowel - lines do not cross width

Valvulae conniventes - small bowel - visible lines across entire width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

3 main causes of bowel obstruction

A

Adhesions
Hernias
Malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Classification of haemorrhoids?

A

1st degree: no prolapse
2nd degree: prolapse when straining and return on relaxing
3rd degree: prolapse when straining, doesn’t return on relaxing, but can be pushed back
4th degree: prolapsed permanently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Classification of haemorrhoids?

A

1st degree: no prolapse
2nd degree: prolapse when straining and return on relaxing
3rd degree: prolapse when straining, doesn’t return on relaxing, but can be pushed back
4th degree: prolapsed permanently

99
Q

What is required for thorough examination of haemorrhoids?

A

Proctoscopy

100
Q

Differentials for rectal bleeding?

A 
Anal fissures
Diverticulosis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Colorectal cancer
Haemorrhoids
101
Q

When would you consider admission for thromboses haemorrhoids?

A

within 72 hours

102
Q

Management of haemorrhoids?

A

increase fibre and fluid intake
topical therapy - anusol

Non surgical - Rubber band ligation

                  - Injection sclerotherapy (injection into the haemorrhoid to cause sclerosis and atrophy)
                  - Infra-red coagulation   
                  - Bipolar diathermy

Surgery - Haemorrhoidal artery ligation

          - Haemorrhoidectomy
          - Stapled haemorrhoidectomy
103
Q

teardrop RBCs?

A

Myelofibrosis

104
Q

anticoagulant in PE/DVT

A

rivaroxiban, apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, lmwh

105
Q

What is JAK2 associated with?

A

Myelofibrosis

106
Q

3 signs of polycythaemia vera?

A

Ruddy complexion
Splenomegaly
red conjunctiva (plethora)

107
Q

Which type of anaemia occurs in aplastic anaemia?

A
107
Q

Which type of anaemia occurs in aplastic anaemia?

A

Normocytic

108
Q

When is irradiated and CMV negative blood required

A

Intrauterine transfusion
Granulocyte transfusion
Neonates up to 28 days post due date

109
Q

When is irradiated blood required?

A

Immunocompromised - chemo/radio
Current or previous Hodgkins lymphoma
Bone marrow/stem cell transplants

110
Q

When is prothrombin complex concentrate used?

A

Emergency reversal of anticoagulant in severe bleeding or suspected intracranial haemorrhage

111
Q

What does cryoprecipitate replace?

A

Fibrinogen & factor VIII

112
Q

Universal donor for FFP?

A

AB

113
Q

What is the transfusion threshold for anaemia?

A

70 or 80 if acute coronary syndrome

114
Q

How long is a unit of RBCs transfused over?

Non emergency

A

90-120 minutes

115
Q

Warfarin reversal

A

Vitamin K - takes 6 hours
FFP - need a lot of fluids
Human prothrombin complex - much quicker (60 mins) but short half life so given with bit k

116
Q

What initial investigations may you perform for suspected myeloma?
What is required for definitive diagnosis?

A

B – Bence–Jones protein (request urine electrophoresis)
L – Serum‑free Light‑chain assay
I – Serum Immunoglobulins
P – Serum Protein electrophoresis

bone marrow biopsy

117
Q

What is the child-pugh classification used to assess?

A

Liver cirrhosis

118
Q

ECG features of WPW

A

short PR interval

wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke - ‘delta wave’

119
Q

Causes and symptoms of SVCO?

A

Lung cancer - medical emergency, lymphoma,
Presentation
- Dyspnoea is the most common symptom
- Swelling of the face, neck and arms - conjunctival and periorbital oedema may be seen
- Headache: often worse in the mornings
- Visual disturbance
- Pulseless jugular venous distension

120
Q

Which thyroid cancer secretes calcitonin?

A

Medullary thyroid cancer

121
Q

What are the 3 types of colon cancer?

A

Sporadic (95%)
Hereditary non polyposis colorectal cancer (5%)
Familial adenamatous polyposis (<1%)

122
Q

what is the most common hereditary cause of colon cancer?

A

HNPCC - Lynch syndrome

Autosomal dominant

123
Q

What is the next most common cancer associated with HNPCC?

A

endometrial

124
Q

Tumour marker for colorectal cancer?

A

CEA

125
Q

Most common cause of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

E.coli

126
Q

What conditions must you inform the DVLA of?

A

Epilepsy
Stroke
Mania
insulin dependent diabetes

127
Q

Most common benign tumour of bone?

A

Osteochondroma

128
Q

Immature bone surrounded by sclerotic halo

A

Osteoid osteoma

129
Q

What is the most common age for presentation of sarcoma?

A

50-70

130
Q

patchy sclerosis

A

AVN

131
Q

Presentation of achondroplasia

A

Disproportionately short limbs
Prominent forehead
Widened nose
Normal mental status

132
Q

Main features of marfans

A 
Autosomal dominant 
Pectus excavatum 
Long bones - ligament laxity 
Aortic aneurysm/dissection/regurgitation
Mitral valve: prolapse/regurgitation
133
Q

Beckers muscular dystrophy

A

Mild version of DMD
Boys can walk in their teens
Survival to 30s

134
Q

Is a positive babinski an UMN or LMN sign?

A

UMN

135
Q

mildest form of spina bifida

A

Spina bifida occulta

- tuft of hair or dimple

136
Q

What is associated with spina bifida?

A

Hydrocephalus

137
Q

What is the more sever form of spina bifida?

A

Spina bifida cystica

  • meningocele normally no motor impact
  • myelomeningocele affects nerves below area
138
Q

What is the most common congenital malformation of the limbs?

A

Sclerodactyl

two digits fused

139
Q

When should you suspect primary amenorrhoea?

A

No period by 13 if no secondary sexual characteristics.

No period by 15 if sexual characteristics present

140
Q

What is required for home O2 therapy to be allowed?

A

2x pO2 <7.3

141
Q

What drug class is ipatropium?

A

SAMA

142
Q

Antibiotic in bacterial infective exacerbation of COPD?

A

Amox

Doxy or clarithromycin if PA

143
Q

Management of PBC?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid is the first-line medication for primary biliary cholangitis

144
Q

Investigation for PSC?

A

MRCP

145
Q

Metabolic alkalosis + hypokalaemia ?

A

→ prolonged vomiting

146
Q

How do you diagnose spontaneous bacterioalperitonitis?

A

Pericentesis

147
Q

Medical cardioversion in AF?

A

Amiodarone or flecanide

148
Q

Murmur most associated with connective tissue disease (Marfans etc)

A

Mitral regurgitation

Pansystolic

149
Q

What is the ligament of Treitz

A

Junction between upper and Lower GIT

Duodenal jejunal junctiom

150
Q

Antibody in GPA?

A

cANCA

151
Q

Antibody in goodpastures?

A

Anti GBM

Linear IgG

152
Q

Antibody in microscopic polyangitis?

A

pANCA

153
Q

Features of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Proteinuria > 3.5g/24 hours
Peripheral oedema
Hypoalbuminaemia
Hypercholesterolaemia

154
Q

4 infrarenal causes of acute renal failure

A
  1. Acute glomerulonephritis
  2. Acute tubular necrosis
  3. Acute interstitial nephritis
  4. Vascular
155
Q

What is the difference between acute renal failure and AKI?

A

AKI doesn’t require reduced urine output

156
Q

When should a statin be taken?

A

More effective at night

157
Q

spike wheel on CT

A

Oncocytoma - benign renal tumour

158
Q

indications for dialysis?

A

eGFR<7
Urea >40
Resistant hyperkalaemia/acidosis

159
Q

What is required to make a diagnosis of CKD?

A

Two samples, 90 days apart

160
Q

eGFR = 50

What stage CKD?

A

3a (45-59)

161
Q

eGFR 15-29

What stage CKD?

A

4

162
Q

eGFR measurement in CKD 5

A

<15

163
Q

how long should patients be monitored after AKI?

A

2-3 years as risk of CKD

164
Q

Treatment of hyperkalaemia?

A

10ml 10% calcium gluconate (stabilises myocardium)

10 units insulin + 50ml 50% dextrose (moves K into cellss decreasing serum K)

165
Q

Treatment of chronic hyperkalaemia?

A

Calcium resonium

166
Q

Why do ACEi/ARBs/NSAIDs cause AKI/CKD?

A

Renal hypoperfusion

167
Q

What is the most common cause of AKI?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

168
Q

Triad seen in HUS?

A

Haemolytic anaemia
Low platelets
AKI

169
Q

How high is CK in rhabdo?

A

1000s

170
Q

Treatment of rhabdomyolysis?

A

IV fluids

Treat hyperkalaemia

171
Q

Side effect of tamsulosin?

A

HYPOtension

172
Q

Treatment of ascites

A

Spironolactone

Aldosterone antagonist

173
Q

ABG in hyperaldosteronism?

A

Metabolic alkalosis due to increased acid secretion
Low K+
High Na+

174
Q

What is cord prolapse commonly associated with?

A

Artificial rupture of membranes

175
Q

Commonest type of ovarian cancer?

A

Serous

176
Q

Fever + Jaundice + RUQ pain

A

Charcots triad - ascending cholangitis

177
Q

Most common causative organism in pneumonia after influenza?

A

staph aureus

178
Q

inguinal hernias in children ?

A

urgent surgery - risk of strangulation

179
Q

Hyper or hypocalcaemia in severe pancreatitis

A

HYPOCALCAEMIA

  • lipase leaks from damaged pancreas and mops up calcium to make soap –> decreased serum calcium
180
Q

Outcome of Na valproate and warfarin?

A

Na Val is an enzyme inhibitor which Increases warfarin efficacy

181
Q

How is metformin excreted?

A

Renally

182
Q

What should not be prescribed with methotrexate?

A

Trimethoprim

Co-trimoxazole

183
Q

Encephalopathy + jaundice + coagulopathy?

A

acute liver failure

184
Q

Where to check for pulse on child < 1y/o

A

Brachial or femoral

185
Q

electrolyte abnormality that would give prolonged QT?

A

Hypocalcaemia

186
Q

Electrolyte abnormality that would give prolonged PR

A

Hypermagnesemia

187
Q

Electrolyte abnormality that would give a shorted QT or ST segment?

A

Hypercalcaemia

188
Q

Contraindictaions to a laryngeal airway?

A

Not fasted

Obese

189
Q

Management of reactive arthritis ?

A

NSAIDs

190
Q

Initial management of spinal cord compression

A

8mg dexamethasone

191
Q

What can be used if treatment with haloperidol causes dystonia?

A

Procyclidine should reverse

192
Q

Fluid resus in children?

A

20ml/kg NaCl over <10mins

193
Q

Management of an acute exacerbation of COPD?

A
  1. 30mg Prednisolone daily
  2. Consider antibiotic therapy
    Amox/doxy/clarithromycin 1st line
    If no response within 2 days then send sputum sample
  3. consider co-amox if high risk of treatment failure (prev resistance etc)
194
Q

Treatment of cor pulmonale?

A

Loop diuretic

Home oxygen if suitable

195
Q

What is the criteria for LTOT?

A

pO2 <7.3

or 7.3-8 with oedema, anaemia, pulmonary hypertension

196
Q

Name some LABAs

A

Salmeterol

Formoterol

197
Q

Name a SAMA

A

Ipatropium

198
Q

Name some LAMAs

A

Tiotropium

Glycoperonium

199
Q

Non invasive ventilation in COPD

A

BiPAP

200
Q

Jelly like stool

A

Intusussception

201
Q

Management of thyrotoxic storm?

A

Propanolol
Propylthiouracil
Hydrocortisone

202
Q

Management of phaeochromocytoma

A

A blocker - phenoxybenzamine
B-blocker after initiated on a-blocker
Adrenalectomy = definitive however medical management 1st reduces risk from surgery

203
Q

what is conn’s

A

primary aldosteronism

204
Q

When should a GLP-1 be added to diabetes management?

A

If triple therapy unsuitable/ineffective or contraindicated and BMI >35

GLP-1 causes weight loss

205
Q

What is the pathophysiology of metabolic acidosis in DKA?

A

Increased glucose causes increased urination
Increased urination results in increased electrolyte loss
Electrolyte loss = acidosis
Kaussmaul breathing to reduce CO2 in blood

206
Q

Difference between DKA and hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar syndrome

A

HHS more likely to be T2DM
Associated with diuretics/fizzy drinks/steroids resulting in hypovolaemia and resultant hyperglycaemia

Less acidotic - ketones not raised

207
Q

How do you calculate insulin dose?

A

0.3 units/kg
Divide 50% basal and 50% meals
The 50% meals further divided by 2/3

208
Q

What is Addisons disease?

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency

Decreased aldosterone - decreased Na&H20 retention = decreased BP

Decreased glucocorticoid (cortisol) = weight loss, hyperpigmentation

Decreased androgens

209
Q

Management of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

15-25mg Hydrocortison

50-200micrograms fludrocortisone

210
Q

Diagnostic test for Cushings?

A

DST

211
Q

Diagnostic test for acromegaly?

A

OGTT

IGF-1

212
Q

Diagnostic test for adrenal insufficiency/addisons?

A

Short synACTHen

213
Q

Diagnostic test for Conns/aldosteronism?

A

aldosterone:renin ration

High aldosterone : low renin

214
Q

what’s diabetes insidious?

A

Lack of ADH
= unconcentrated urine
= lots of dilute urine
= hypernatraemia because salt not excreted in urine

215
Q

Causes of nephrogenic diabetes insidious?

A

Lithium
Kidney disease
Genetic

216
Q

Management of SIADH?

A

Fluid restriction

Tolvaptan (ADH receptor blocker) - 6hr sodium required

217
Q

What is the action of PTH?

A

Increases Ca2+

Decreases PO4-

218
Q

Which diabetes medication should not be used in heart failure?

A

Pioglitazone

219
Q

Difference between primary and secondary prevention for lipid modification?

A 
Primary = Qrisk>10% = Atrovastatin 20mg
Secondary = known CVD/IHD/PAD = Atorvastatin 80mg
220
Q

What type of pain do c-fibres produce?

A

Dull, difffuse pain

221
Q

What type of pain do a-delta fibres produce?

A

Fast, sharp, localised pain

222
Q

First line options for neuropathic pain?

A

Amitriptyline
Duloxetine
Gabapentin
Pregabalin

all 4 can be tried in turn but only 1 at a time

223
Q

Daily requirement of K+, NA+ and H2O?

A 
k+ = 1mmol/kg
Na+ = 4-5mmol/kg
H2O = 25-30ml/kg
224
Q

T score for osteoporosis?

A

<-2.5

225
Q

T score for osteopenia?

A

-1 to -2.4

226
Q

Movement affected by de quervains tenosynovitis?

A

thumb & wrist abduction

227
Q

DAS 28 <2.6?

A

Remission

228
Q

DAS 28 >5.1?

A

Active disease

Consider biologic if already on MTX

229
Q

Onion skin appearance?

A

Ewings sarcoma

230
Q

Loss of red reflex?

A

Retinal detachment
cataracts
retinoblastoma (children)

231
Q

Normal cup:disc ratio?

A

0.3-0.5

232
Q

cup:disc ratio >0.5

A

Glaucoma

233
Q

No cup visible (ophthalmoscopy)

What must you do?

A

Papilloedema

Examine the other eye - raised iCP?

234
Q

central vision loss

A

ARMD

Optic neuritis

235
Q

Painful eye movements, colour destination, RAPD,central scotoma

A

Optic neuritis

High dose steroids

236
Q

cycloplegic or mydriatic eye drops?

A

They will dilate the pupil –> relieves pain

e.g. used in uveitis

237
Q

Management of diabetic retinopathy?

  • non proliferative
  • proliferative
A

Non proliferative - good glycemic control and frequency montoring

Proliferative - pan retinal photocoagulation +/- anti VEGF

238
Q

Peripheral vision loss + haloes around lights

worse at night

A

Glaucoma

239
Q

How is intraocular pressure measured?

A

Non contact tonometry (screening)

Goldmann applanation tonometry - gold standard

240
Q

Drug treatment of glaucoma (prostaglandin analogue)

A

Latanoprost - increases uveoscleral outflow
SE - browning of iris,eyelash growth

Timolol
Carbonic anhydrase

241
Q

Causes of RAPD

A

Optic neuritis

retinal. detachment

242
Q

What is papilloedema?

A

cupping of dic due to raised ICP - always bilateral

243
Q

Long term treatment of SBP?

A

Antibiotic prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin

244
Q

Signs of lung cancer + gynaecomastia?

A

Adenocarcinoma

4th Year (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions