Gastrointestinal Flashcards
1
Q
What is oropharyngeal dysphagia?
A
Problem of initiating swallowing
2
Q
What is the treatment for oral HSV?
A
Acyclovir
3
Q
What is the treatment for oral CMV?
A
Ganciclovir
4
Q
What is the treatment for oral thrush?
A
Fluconazole PO and/or nystatin mouth rinses
5
Q
What worsens and improves s/sx of esophageal spasms?
A
Worse with hot/cold foods, better with NTG
6
Q
What are the typical s/sx of esophageal spasms?
A
Chest pain
GERD
Dysphagia
Odynophagia
7
Q
What are the diagnostic test of choice for esophageal spasms? What do they reveal?
A
Ba swallow–Corkscrew shaped esophagus
Manometry–High amplitude, simultaneous contractions in greater than 20% of swallows
8
Q
Corkscrew shaped esophagus on Ba swallow = ?
A
Esophageal spasm
9
Q
What is the pharmacologic treatment for esophageal spasms? (3)
A
CCBs
TCAs
Nitrates
10
Q
What is the treatment for severe esophageal spasms?
A
Esophageal myotomy
11
Q
What is achalasia?
A
Impaired relaxation phase of the lower esophageal sphincter and loss of peristalsis
12
Q
What is the etiologic of achalasia?
A
Degeneration of the inhibitory neurons in the myenteric plexus
13
Q
What are the s/sx of achalasia?
A
Progressive dysphagia for solids and liquids
Regurgitation of food
14
Q
What are the tests to diagnose achalasia?
A
EGD to r/o structural causes
Ba swallow
15
Q
What will a Ba swallow show with achalasia?
A
Bird’s beak tapering of the distal esophagus
16
Q
What will manometry show with achalasia?
A
Increased resting pressure of the LES
Incomplete LES relaxation
17
Q
What is the short term pharmacologic treatment for achalasia?
A
Nitrates
CCBs
Endoscopic injection of botulinum toxin
18
Q
What is the definitive treatment for achalasia?
A
Pneumatic balloon dilation or surgical myotomy
19
Q
Is a Zenker diverticulum a true or false diverticulum?
A
False
20
Q
Where does a Zenker diverticulum occur?
A
Through the cricopharyngeus muscle
21
Q
What is the treatment for a Zenker diverticulum?
A
Myotomy
22
Q
What is the most common type of esophageal cancer worldwide?
A
SCC
23
Q
What is the most common type of esophageal cancer in developed nations?
A
Adenocarcinoma
24
Q
What is SCC of the esophagus associated with?
A
EtOH
Smoking
Nitrosamines
Hot tea
25
What is the role of CT and endoscopic US in the workup of esophageal cancer?
Stagins
26
What is the treatment for esophageal cancer?
Chemoradiation and surgical resection
27
What is the prognosis for esophageal cancer in general?
Poor
28
Where in the esophagus does SCC vs adenocarcinoma generally occur?
SCC in the upper and middle thirds
| Adenocarcinoma in the lower third
29
Why does esophageal cancer metastasize early?
Because the esophagus lacks a serosa
30
What is the cause of GERD?
Transient relaxation of the LES
31
True or false: GERD is a result of infection with H.Pylori
False--from relaxation of the LES
32
When is an EGD indicated in the workup of GERD? (3)
Refractory to medical treatment
Long standing
Associated with alarm s/sx
33
What is the definitive test for GERD?
24 hours pH monitoring with impedance
34
What is a sliding hiatal hernia?
GE junction and a portion of the stomach are displaced above the diaphragm
35
What is a paraesophageal hiatal hernia?
Just fundus herniates into the thorax
36
What are the symptoms of a hiatal hernia when symptomatic?
GERD
37
What is the treatment for a sliding hiatal hernia?
Medical therapy and lifestyle modifications
38
What is the treatment for a paraesophageal hernia?
Surgical gastropexy
39
What is type A chronic gastritis?
Autoantibodies to the parietal cells, causing pernicious anemia
40
What is type B chronic gastritis?
H/ Pylori infection
41
What are the s/sx of chronic gastritis, if present? (4)
Epigastric pain
N/v
Hematemesis
Melena
42
What are the components of triple therapy for H. pylori infection?
PPI
Amoxicillin
Clarithromycin
43
What are curling ulcers?
educed plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis
44
What are cushing ulcers?
Increased ICP causes vagal stimulation, leading to increased H+ output
45
What is the downside of using H/pylori antibody test for H. pylori infection?
Once infected, alway positive
46
A gastric adenocarcinoma that metastasizes to the ovary is called what?
Krukenberg tumor
47
What is the gold standard test for H. Pylori infection?
Endoscopic bx
48
What is the test that has both a high sensitivity and specificity for H. Pylori?
Stool antigen test
49
What is the only malignancy that can be cured by abx?
MALT lymphoma (from H. Pylori)
50
What cancer develops from chronic H. pylori infection?
MALT lymphoma
51
What is the most common type of gastric cancer, and what are the predisposing factors for it?
Adenocarcinoma
| Diet high in nitrates and salt, low in fresh veggies
52
What is the definitive test for gastric cancer?
Bx
53
What is the treatment for gastric cancer?
Surgical resection
Very poor prognosis if metastasized
54
What are the two PE findings that classically suggest gastric cancer?
Virchow's node
| Sister mary joseph node
55
If you suspect a ulcer perforation 2/2 PUD, what study should you order?
AXR
56
What study should be done to r/o bleeding PUD?
Serial hematocrits
57
What is the treatment for an actively bleeding PUD? (4)
NG lavage
IVFs
IV PPIs
Urgent EGD
58
PUDs on the posterior aspect of the stomach risk which artery?
Gastroduodenal artery
59
How do you diagnose Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
Increased fasting serum gastrin levels
| Increased gastrin with administration of secretin
60
What is the treatment for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
high dose PPIs
| Surgical resection
61
What drug can help patients with PUD who need an NSAID?
Misoprostol
62
What is the technical definition of diarrhea?
Production of more than 200g of fecal matter per day, along with liquidity of stool
63
What is the equation for stool osmotic gap? Normal range?
290 - 2*(Stool Na + stool K)
| 50-100
64
What are the three viruses that commonly cause pediatric diarrhea?
Rotavirus
Norwalk virus
Enterovirus
65
What defines *chronic* diarrhea?
Insidious onset over 4 weeks in duration
66
What are the two major, non-infectious causes of secretory diarrhea?
VIPomas
| Carcinoid tumors
67
When does acute diarrhea warrant a further workup? (3)
Over 4-5 days
Bloody
Associated with a high fever
68
Watery or bloody diarrhea: Vibrio cholera
Water
69
Watery or bloody diarrhea: rotavirus
Watery
70
Watery or bloody diarrhea: Cryptosporidium
Watery
71
Watery or bloody diarrhea: norovirus
Watery
72
Watery or bloody diarrhea: Salmonella
Bloody
73
Watery or bloody diarrhea: Shigella
Bloody
74
Watery or bloody diarrhea: campylobacter
Bloody
75
Watery or bloody diarrhea: giardia
Watery
76
Low stool osmotic gap suggest what etiology of diarrhea?
Secretory diarrhea
77
High stool osmotic gap suggest what etiology of diarrhea?
Osmotic diarrhea
78
What is the most common etiology of bacterial diarrhea?
Campylobacter
79
What is the treatment for campylobacter diarrhea?
Supportive, then fluoroquinolones if severe
80
What is the abx that is often associated as the cause of C.diff?
Clindamycin
81
What is the major complication of C.Diff?
Toxic megacolon
82
Flask-shaped ulcers on endoscopy = ?
Entamoeba histolytica
83
Steroids + entamoeba histolytica = ?
Perforation
84
What is the treatment for entamoeba histolytica?
Metronidazole
85
What are the s/sx of entamoeba histolytica infection?
Fever and bloody diarrhea
86
What is the treatment for E.coli O157:H7?
Supportive--abx may precipitate HUS
87
What classically causes salmonella infection?
Ingestion of uncooked eggs
88
What are the prodromal s/sx of salmonella infection?
Abdominal pain, Fever, n/v
89
What complication may sickle cell patients get from a salmonella infection?
Osteomyelitis
90
What is the treatment for Salmonella?
IVFs
| Treat bacteremia with TMP-SMX
91
How contagious is shigella?
Extremely
92
What is the treatment for shigella?
TMP-SMX
93
What are the complications that can arise from shigella infection?
Severe dehydration
| Seizures in children
94
When are antidiarrheal medication contraindicated in the treatment of diarrhea?
If bloody
95
What are the two antibody tests for celiac disease?
IgA anti-transglutaminase or antiendomysial
96
In what part of the intestines are bile salt reabsorbed?
terminal ileum
97
Why do patients with carcinoid syndrome develop pellagra?
Tryptophan is metabolized into serotonin
98
Why do patients with hartnup disease develop pellagra?
Tryptophan needed to make niacin
99
What are the four D's of pellagra?
Diarrhea
Dermatitis
Dementia
Death
100
What is the diagnostic test for lactase deficiency?
hydrogen breath test reveals increase hydrogen
101
Where do carcinoid tumors usually develop?
Ileum
| Appendix
102
What are the s/sx of carcinoid tumors?
```
Cutaneous flushing
Diarrhea
Abdominal cramp
Wheezing
Right sided cardiac valve lesions
```
103
How do you diagnose carcinoid syndrome?
High urine levels of serotonin metabolite 5-HIAA
104
What is the treatment for carcinoid syndrome?
Octreotide, and surgical resection
105
What is the classic presentation of IBS?
Abdominal s/sx that improve with defecation
106
true or false: IBS s/sx usually awaken patients from sleep
False
107
What are the diagnostic criteria for IBS?
At least 3 days in 3 months of episodic abdominal discomfort that is:
1. relieved by defecation
2. associated with a change in stool frequency or consistency
3. associated with a change in stool appearance
108
What is the dietary and pharmacologic treatment for IBS?
high fiber
| SSRIs and TCAs
109
what are the top two causes of SBOs?
Adhesions (60%)
| Hernias (15%)
110
What is the difference between a partial SBO vs a complete SBO
Partial still allows the passage of flatus but no stool
111
What are the s/sx of a SBO?
Crampy abdominal pain every 4-5 minutes
| Vomiting
112
What are the PE findings of an SBO? (4)
Distention
TTP
hyperactive bowel sounds
High pitched tinkles and peristaltic rushes
113
What are the complications of an SBO?
Ischemic necrosis and/or bowel rupture
114
Where does the gallstone lodge in a gallstone ileus?
Ileocecal valve
115
Abdominal plain films in an SBO reveal what?
Stepladder pattern of dilated small bowel loops
Air fluid levels
116
What might a CBC show with an SBO?
Leukocytosis
117
What will a BMP show with an SBO?
Dehydration and metabolic alkalosis
118
What is the treatment for a partial SBO?
IVFs
NPO
NG suction
119
What is the treatment for a complete SBO?
Exploratory laparotomy
120
What is an ileus?
Loss of peristaltic action of the bowel, without obstruction
121
What are the s/sx of an ileus?
n/v
| Absence of flatus or bowel movements
122
What will an ileus show on exam?
Diffuse TTP
Abdominal distention
Decreased or absent bowel sounds
123
What must be done to r/o fecal impaction in elderly patients suspected of having an ileus?
DRE
124
What will plain films show with an ileus?
Distended loops of small and large bowel, with air seen throughout small and large bowel
125
What is the treatment for an ileus?
bowel rest
NG suction
Supportive
126
What is the most common cause of mesenteric ischemia?
Embolism from the heart
127
Which vessel is most commonly affected by thrombosis in mesenteric ischemia?
SMA
128
What is the classic history of mesenteric ischemia?
Pain out of proportion to exam findings
129
How do you diagnose mesenteric ischemia?
AXR and CT
130
What is the classic radiographic findings of mesenteric ischemia?
Thumbprint sign and air within the bowel wall
131
What is the treatment for mesenteric ischemia?
IVFs
Anticoagulation
Resect infarcted bowel
132
What is the most common cause of acute lower GI bleed in patients over 40 yo?
Diverticulosis
133
Where in the bowel are most diverticula found?
Sigmoid colon
134
What type of diet predisposes to diverticular disease?
low fiber
| High fat
135
What is the classic presentation of diverticulitis?
LLQ abdominal pain, fever and bleeding
136
Why is colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy contraindicated in acute diverticulitis?
risk of perforation
137
What is the treatment for uncomplicated diverticulosis?
f/u and prescribe fiber diet
138
What is the treatment for bleeding diverticulitis?
Bleeding usually stops spontaneously. Surgery or colonoscopy if not
139
What is the treatment for acute diverticulitis?
NPO
| Broad spectrum Abx
140
What is the treatment for a perforated bowel?
Surgery
141
Which has more emesis: SBO or LBO?
SBO
142
SBO or LBO: feculent emesis
LBO
143
SBO or LBO: high pitched :tinkling' bowel sounds
Both
144
What is the usual etiology of SBOs?
Adhesions
145
What is the usual etiology of LBOs?
Neoplasms
146
True or false: assume the cause of a LBO is colon cancer until proven otherwise
True
147
What is the treatment for a SBO?
NG decompression
| Surgical correction PRN
148
What is the treatment for a LBO?
Rectal tubes
| Surgery
149
What enema may relieve a bowel obstruction?
Gastrografin
150
How are most right sided colon cancers discovered?
Anemia or occult blood
151
What are the s/sx of left sided colon cancer?
Apple core obstructing lesions
Pencil thin stools
Constipation/obstipation
152
What is the definitive way to diagnose colon cancer?
Colonoscopy
153
Which has a higher propensity to develop colon cancer: UC or CD?
UC
154
What is the order of decreasing cancer risk of colonic lesions?
Villous > tubular; sessile > pedunculated.
155
What is ischemic colitis? What part of the colon is usually affected?
Insufficient blood supply to the colon
Usually the watershed areas of the left colon
156
What are the s/sx of ischemic colitis?
Crampy lower abdominal pain, followed by bloody diarrhea
157
How do you diagnose Ischemic colitis?
CT w/ contrast
| Colonoscopy
158
What will a CT show with ischemic colitis?
Thickened bowel wall,
| artherosclerosis
159
What will a colonoscopy show with ischemic colitis?
pale mucosa with petechial bleeding
160
How often do patients with UC need to get colonoscopies?
every 1-2 years starting 8-10 years after diagnosis
161
How often do patients with first degree relatives with colon cancer need to get colonoscopies?
q5 years starting at age 40
162
What is the treatment for ischemic colitis?
Supportive
| Surgical resection if infarcted bowel
163
What is the treatment for either an upper or lower GI bleed?
Protect airway
| Stabilize with IVFs, and pRBCs PRN
164
What are the boundaries of Hesselbach's triangle?
Inguinal ligament
Inferior epigastric artery
Rectus abdominus
165
What part of the colon is always involved in UC?
Rectum
166
Which has continuous lesions: UC or CD
UC
167
What is the major symptom with UC?
Bloody diarrhea
168
What are the major symptoms with CD?
Abdominal pain, weight loss, water diarrhea
169
What has the association with primary sclerosing cholangitis: CD or UC
UC
170
What are the oral manifestations of UC and CD?
aphthous ulcers
171
What are the colonoscopy findings with UC?
Pseudopolyps
172
What are the colonoscopy findings of CD?
Cobblestoning and skip lesions
173
What is the first line treatment for UC?
5-ASA agents
174
What is the major complication associated with UC?
Toxic megacolon
175
What is the curative treatment for UC?
Total proctocolectomy
176
What is the treatment for UC and CD flares?
Steroids
177
What is the classic immunomodulator for UC?
Azathioprine
178
What is the classic biologic used to treat UC?
Infliximab
179
Which has a higher incidence of associated malignancy: UC or CD?
UC
180
Which is more common: direct or indirect inguinal hernias?
Indirect
181
What is the etiology of indirect inguinal hernias?
Congenital patent processus vaginalis
182
What is the etiology of femoral hernias?
Increased intraabdominal pressure, weakened pelvic floor
183
Pigmented gallstones have what etiology?
hemolysis
184
Are cholesterol gallstones radiopaque or radiolucent?
Radiolucent
185
What are most gallstones comprised of?
Cholesterol
186
What is cholelithiasis?
Stones in gallbladder
187
What is choledocholithiasis?
Stones in the CBD
188
What is cholangitis?
Infection of the CBD, usually 2/2 stone
189
What are the s/sx of cholangitis?
```
RUQ TTP
Fever
Jaundice
Shock
Altered mental status
```
190
What is cholecystitis?
Inflammation of the gallbladder, typically due to stone occluding the cystic duct.
191
What are the s/sx of cholecystitis?
RUQ pain
Fever
Murphy's sign
192
What are labs like with cholecystitis?
Leukocytosis
| Normal bili, alk phos, and amylase
193
What are labs like with choledocholithiasis?
Leukocytosis
Increased bili
Increased Amylase
Increased alk phos
194
What are the labs like with cholangitis?
Increased WBC, bili, alk phos
195
How do you diagnose cholelithiasis?
US
196
How do you diagnose cholecystitis?
US, HIDA scan
197
How do you diagnose choledocholithiasis?
MRCP and ERCP if US negative
198
How do you diagnose cholangitis??
ERCP
199
What is the treatment for choledocholithiasis?
ERCP to remove stone, then cholecystectomy
200
What is the treatment for cholangitis?
ERCP, surgery if patient is toxic
201
What are the components of charcot's triad?
RUQ pain
Jaundice
Fever
202
What are the components of Reynold's pentad?
```
RUQ pain
Jaundice
Fever
Shock
Altered mental status
```
203
What are the two classic x-ray findings associated with gallstone ileus?
SBO + air in the biliary tree
204
What are the labs that are increased in hepatocellular injury?
AST and ALT
205
What are the labs that mark cholestasis?
Increased alk phos
206
Jaundice is present when bilirubin is above what level?
2.5 mg/dL
207
What are the features of fulminant liver failure?
INR more than 1.5
| Hepatic encephalopathy
208
What happens with ALT and AST with chronic hepatitis?
Normal or only slightly elevated
209
What are the two inherited diseases that cause an increase in unconjugated bilirubin 2/2 defective conjugation?
Gilbert syndrome
| Crigler-Najjar syndrome
210
What are the two inherited diseases that cause an increase in conjugated bilirubin 2/2 defective secretion?
Dubin-johnson syndrome
| Rotor syndrome
211
What is the significance of: IgM to HAVAb?
IgM antibody to HAV; the best test to detect acute HAV.
212
What is the significance of: HBsAb
Immunity to HBV. If alone, then vaccinated
213
What is the significance of: HbcAg
Active infection
214
What is the significance of: HbcAb
if IgM, then current infection or window period
| If IgG, then prior or current
215
What is the significance of: HBeAg
Infected, and transmissible
216
What is the significance of: HBeAb
Antibody to e antigen; indicates low transmissibility
217
What are the antibodies that are positive in autoimmune hepatitis?
Anti-smooth muscle
ANA
Anti-liver-kidney microsomal
Anti liver cystosol
218
What happens to urine Cu with Wilson's disease?
Increased
219
What is the treatment for acute hepatitis?
Supportive
220
What is the treatment for chronic HBV infection?
Tenofovir
| Entecavir
221
What is the treatment for HCV?
Two direct active antivirals
222
What is the treatment for fulminant hepatic failure?
Liver transplant
223
What are the histological findings of cirrhosis?
Bridging fibrosis and nodular regeneration
224
What is the most common etiology of cirrhosis in the US?
Chronic HCV
225
What are the extrahepatic causes of cirrhosis?
Biliary tract disease
Right sided heart failure
Budd-Chiari syndrome
226
How is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis diagnosed?
more than 250 PMNs/mL in the ascitic fluid
227
What are the three major labs that are used to determine the synthetic function of the liver, and what will they show in cirrhosis?
Albumin - decreased
PT/INR - increased
bilirubin - Increased
228
What is the equation for the serum-ascites albumin gradient?
Serum albumin - ascites albumin
229
What are the three major etiologies of an increased SAAG?
- Presinusoidal
- sinusoidal
- Postsinusoidal
230
What are the presinusoidal causes of portal HTN? (2)
Splenic or portal vein thrombosis
| Schistosomiasis
231
What is the cause of sinusoidal portal vein HTN?
Cirrhosis
232
What are the three major causes of postsinusoidal portal vein HTN?
Right heart failure
Constrictive pericarditis
Budd-Chiari syndrome
233
What are the causes of ascites with a SAAG less than 1.1? (3)
nephrotic syndrome
TB
Malignancy
234
What are the components of the conservative treatment of ascites?
Na restriction
Diuretics
paracentesis
235
What is the definitive treatment of ascites?
TIPS
236
What are the s/sx of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
Fever
Abdominal pain
Vomiting
237
What is the treatment for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
```
IV abx (3rd gen cephalosporin)
IV albumin
```
238
What is the prognosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
Associated with a poor 1 year prognosis
239
What is hepatorenal syndrome?
Acute prerenal failure 2/2 splanchnic vasodilation and decreased blood flow to the kidneys
240
What is the urinary Na excretion with hepatorenal syndrome?
Less than 10 mEq/mL
| "healthy kidneys in an unhealthy environment"
241
What is the medical prophylaxis of esophageal varices?
Endoscopic surveillance with beta-blockers
242
What is the role of vitamin K in the setting of hepatic coagulopathy?
Will not correct it, since liver doesn't work
243
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is strongly associated with what bowel disorder? Which gender is more often affected?
Ulcerative colitis
| Young men
244
What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Idiopathic disorder of progressive inflammation and resulting fibrosis of the extra and intrahepatic bile ducts
245
Patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis are at risk for developing what malignancy?
Cholangiocarcinoma
246
What are the s/sx of primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Jaundice
Pruritis
Fatigue
247
What are the lab findings of primary sclerosing cholangitis?
- Increased alk phos
| - Increased bili
248
What will an MRCP/ERCP show with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Multiple bile duct strictures and dilatations ("beading")
249
Liver bx of primary sclerosing cholangitis will show what characteristic finding?
onion skinning
250
What is the treatment for primary sclerosing cholangitis?
ERCP with dilation and stenting of strictures
| Liver transplant is definitive treatment
251
What is primary biliary cirrhosis?
Autoimmune disease characterized by destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts
252
Who is most commonly affected with primary biliary cirrhosis?
Middle aged women with other autoimmune diseases
253
What are the lab findings of primary biliary cirrhosis?
Increase alkphos
| Increased bili
254
What antibody is positive in primary biliary cirrhosis?
Antimitochondrial antibody
255
What is the treatment for primary biliary cirrhosis?
Ursodeoxycholic acid
| Cholestyramine for pruritus
256
What is the treatment for nonalcoholic fatty liver disease?
Weight loss and exercise
257
What fungal food toxin is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?
Aflatoxin
258
What marker can be used to help diagnose hepatocellular carcinoma?
AFP
259
What is the pharmacotherapy for metastatic hepatocellular carcinoma?
Sorafenib
260
What is the inheritance pattern and defect in primary hemochromatosis?
AR mutation in HFE gene
261
What happens to the following lab values with hemochromatosis:
- Serum Fe
- % sat Fe
- Ferritin
- Transferrin
- Serum Fe increased
- % sat Fe increased
- Ferritin increased
- Transferrin DEcreased
262
What is the treatment for hemochromatosis , regardless of etiology?
Weekly phlebotomy
| Deferoxamine
263
When do patients with Wilson's disease usually present?
Before age 30
264
What is the treatment for Wilson's disease?
Penicillamine or trientine
| Diet Cu restriction
265
The hallmark PE finding of pancreatic cancer is what?
Nontender palpable gallbladder with jaundice
266
What are the s/sx of a VIPoma? Stool osmotic gap?
Watery diarrhea
| Low stool osmotic gap
267
Why is there achlorhydria in a VIPoma?
VIP inhibits gastrin production
268
What is Courvoisier sign?
nontender gallbladder (pancreatic cancer)
269
What is Trousseau sign?
Migratory thrombophlebitis (pancreatic cancer)
270
What are the typical s/sx of chronic pancreatitis?
Steatorrhea and epigastric pain
271
What are the CT findings of chronic pancreatitis?
"chain of lakes"
alternating stenosis and dilation of the main pancreatic duct
272
What is the treatment for acute pancreatitis?
IVFs
bowel rest
NG suction
273
What is the treatment for chronic pancreatitis?
Pancreatic enzyme replacement
| endoscopic dilation of ducts
274
What are the two major complications of acute pancreatitis?
Fistula formation
| Pseudocyst formation
275
What is the tumor marker for pancreatic cancer?
CA19-9
276
What are the CT findings of chronic pancreatitis?
Calcifications and dilated ducts
277
What is the chemotherapy for pancreatic cancer?
5-Fu
