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Specialty Revision > Gastrointestinal > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

Does faecal culture identify faecal dysbiosis?

A

No

https://paperpile.com/app/p/ec231630-e39d-0a6d-a1c4-a612523b6bf7

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2
Q

What is the OR for dogs with PLE receiving assisted enteral feeding when treated with dietary and immunosuppressive treatment for a positive outcome?

A

OR = 7 in this group.
N.b. dogs that had dietary treatment alone had an OR of 36.1 when managed with diet alone. Bear in mind that this could reflect animals that had less severe disease process, however.

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3
Q

What dose of oral cobalamin has been shown to be effective at increasing cobalamin concentrations in dogs, what duration of follow up did this occur over?

A

250mcg/10kg, follow up was 20 - 202 days in a retrospective study that looked at this. Mean increase was 794ng/mL

https://paperpile.com/app/p/4ce4bab2-a67d-0c2b-99a3-66b6735ca93c

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4
Q

Which fluoroquinolone has been shown to have reduced oral bioavailability when given with sucralfate? Which one was not affected? How can the affect on oral bioavailability be improved?

A

Ciprofloxacin was affected whilst enrofloxacin was not. Oral bioavailability of ciprofloxacin improved when sucralfate was given 2 hours after ciprofloxacin.

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5
Q

What liver enzyme elevation is associated with increased duration of hospitalisation in canine acute pancreatitis?

A

ALT

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6
Q

What percentages of the following was found in a study of the cytologic findings of canine and feline bile aspirates?

a. Infectious agents
b. inflammation
c. cytologic identification of infection vs. culture

A

30% canine, 22% feline

5% canine, 19% feline

24% for cytology and 21% for culture

https://paperpile.com/app/p/63b4464f-898d-0850-a7ef-8c28c84d273f

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7
Q

What are the most common organisms identified on bile culture?

A

E. coli (14.8%) and Enterococcus (6.7%)

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8
Q

What clfinicopathologic variable is associated with the presence of micro-organisms on canine bile aspirates?

A

Increased cPLI

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9
Q

What is intestinal leiomyositis, what are the presenting signs and prognois?

A

Autoimmune inflammation of the lamina propria of the GIT, casues an acute presentation of intestinal pseudo-obstruction. It has a poor prognosis in the small case series presented (MST 19 days)

https://paperpile.com/app/p/4b9fc22c-d2a4-01ae-96d6-770f2abe5146

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10
Q

What is the potential prevalence of biliary sludge in healthy dogs?

A

58%

https://paperpile.com/app/p/f8e3b5db-f520-0973-8317-6e937bd2893e

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11
Q

What is the effect of omeprazole on serum gastrin in cats? What happens to stomach acidity following discontinuation of therapy?

A

Only variable that was affected was serum gastrin that was significantly increased during omeprazole treatment. Hyperacifity was also noted in cats folowing cessation of omeprazole treatment.

n.b. calcium, Mg, cobalamin, Mg were all unaffected.

https://paperpile.com/app/p/d741b251-c981-0277-9773-ff0900bc25ca

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12
Q

Which diagnostic test is more liekly to detect platynosomum eggs in cats?

A

Cholecystocentesis is superior to faecal egg counts in the number of eggs detected.

https://paperpile.com/app/p/2d7c8031-a90d-0d8c-b2e4-99d7ac65ed8e

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13
Q

What bacterial organism should be considered if neutrophilic enteropathy is noted in a cat that has gastrointestinal biopsies?

A

Campylobacter coli

https://paperpile.com/app/p/25d62d04-45cc-0f64-8248-b60f11ad848c

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14
Q

How many times can reusable endoscopy forceps be used without affecting the quality of biopsy samples?

A

At least 10x

https://paperpile.com/app/p/fa6c0c3a-bf85-033c-aa53-e2c105b5f57d

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15
Q

What is the relationship between complication rate/severity in dogs that have a PEG tube placement who are or are not receiving corticosteroids?

A

Similar complication rate but severe complications more frequent in steroid-treated group

https://paperpile.com/app/p/22e16935-38b2-078c-8524-cc05747695b6

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16
Q

What handling method of endoscopic biopsy samples may be best?

A

USe of a synthetic sponge, this gave less artifacts and histopathology that was more definitive than samples prepared on a cucumber slice or floating in formalin.

https://paperpile.com/app/p/0ccfebc8-feca-0e22-8395-be115690b7e5

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17
Q

What is the most common other organ affected with IBD in feline triaditis?

A

Cholangitis or all three, pancreatitis + IBD is much less common

https://paperpile.com/app/p/e3fb5a0d-213b-069e-b39b-50a0b5b01b0a

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18
Q

Most common bacterial isolates in canine cholangitis

A

E.coli > Enterococcus > Clostridium

https://paperpile.com/app/p/0f83f7e3-c748-06e2-84a0-26bad8db181c

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19
Q

Incidence of biliary tract rupture in canine cholangitis/cholexystitis?

A

1/3 cases

https://paperpile.com/app/p/0f83f7e3-c748-06e2-84a0-26bad8db181c

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20
Q

What factors seem to be predictive of a good response to treatment in cats with EPI?

A
  • TLI <4ug/l
  • Cobalamin supplementation

https://paperpile.com/app/p/f02e1080-2c06-05fa-b598-9952297caf87

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21
Q

Which of the following is associated with increased leptin concentrations in dogs with GB mucocoele

a. Having HAC
b. Having DM
c. Having surgical treatment vs. mnedical
d. Leptin actually lower in GB mucocoele compared to healthy controls

A

c

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22
Q

Feasibility of 99mTc labelled human albumin for diagnosis of PLE in dogs?

A
  • 7 dogs had 99mTc labelled human serum albumin injected and compared to healthy dogs
  • 1 control dog had exudation into the GI tract
  • all 7 dogs with PLE had Tc labelled albumin ecudation into the gut
  • 5 dogs had Tc exudation into the GI tract that was not disputed (2 docal and 3 diffuse)
  • 2 dogs had disagreement as to whether it was focal or diffuse

https://paperpile.com/app/p/56c7b662-7e5e-06e6-8b31-cd7baa989af2

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23
Q

Intestinal histopathology findings that have increased frequency in dogs with PLE (albumin <30g/L)

A
  • Higher WSAVA scores
  • Villous stunting
  • Epithelial injury
  • Crypt distension
  • Lacteal dilation
  • Intraepithelial lymphocytes
  • Neutrophils in lamina propria

https://paperpile.com/app/p/da328fc4-4dad-01a0-acf9-a93e9156f672

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24
Q

Effect of synbiotic supplementation wiht E. faecium, FOS and acacia in sheltered dogs on the incidence of diarrhoea?

A
  • Mean percentage ofdays with diarrhoea was less in the synbiotic group (2%) compared to 3.2% in the placebo group
  • Occurance of diarrhoea within first 14 days was lower in synbiotic group (18.*%) compared to placebo group (27.2%).
  • Occurance of >2 consecutive days of diarrhoe was lower in the synbiotic group (4.6%) compared to 8% in the placebo group

https://paperpile.com/app/p/c8054666-2ecf-0039-8941-b7d04cd305e6

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25
Does age have any impact on changes in swallow metrics in dogs evaluated with videofluroscopy?
No https://paperpile.com/app/p/93ab4725-3e56-0d40-a4f1-f272f340efa0
26
Gastric emptying time in cats
- Ultrasonography was correlated to schintigraphic gastric emptying times in cats - 25% GET was approx. 2 hours - 50% GET was approx 3 - 4 hours - 75% GET was approxx 5 - 6 hours https://paperpile.com/app/p/6eacc625-a931-0c31-bdbf-27995b881fb2
27
Prevalence of GER in cats that have GA
33.% https://paperpile.com/app/p/c4e0de3f-053c-0e71-b3dc-b57701488325
28
Effect of two does of omeprazole in cats on serum gastrin measurement?
None https://paperpile.com/app/p/c4e0de3f-053c-0e71-b3dc-b57701488325
29
What is the order in which administration routes of esomeprazole gives the longest MPT for increased gastric pH?
PO > SQT > IV Possibly this is to do with the T1/2 with these administration routes?? https://paperpile.com/app/p/d374ed86-a3ee-02a9-9d8f-8ae59aec0d2e
30
Percentage of dogs with chronic diarrhoea that have primary enteropathy compared to secondary causes.
- 90% dogs with chronic diarrhoea have primary enteropathy (71% inflammatory, 13% infectious, 4% neoplastic) - 10% had secondary causes (exocrine pancreatic 6%, endocrine (2%) and one each in hepatic, renal and cardiac disease) https://paperpile.com/app/p/371dd0a3-6da6-0979-8930-930af5f92004
31
Serum 3-bromotyrosine conentrations in dogs with chronic enteropathy (SRE vs. FRE)
3-BrY was higher in dogs with SRe compared to FRE and healthy dogs Peripheral eosinophil counts were not useful, 3-BrY di not correlate to CCEAI https://paperpile.com/app/p/0d06e443-3820-03e5-a5fb-36191aac1306
32
Taurine concentrations in cats with diarrhoea?
- Cats with large intestinal diarrhoa hd lower taurine than cats with small intestinal diarrhoea and mixed intestinal diarrhoea https://paperpile.com/app/p/9406c8b3-9f0c-0a5c-bb47-56729bb6b63f
33
Usefullness of synbiotic administration in preventing gastrointestinal sigs in cats receiving clindamycin
- No effect of synbiotic on vomiting statistically (although did trend lower), no effect on faecal scores. - Cats with synbiotic treatment were more likely to complete treatment in the first period - Cats had higher food intake when receiving the synbiotic. https://paperpile.com/app/p/e85e0aea-b24a-0902-8dbf-2f88b2b74471
34
What gastrointestinal abnormality has been demonstrated in cats with chronic gingivostomatitis?
Oesophagitis is present in many cats with gingivostomatitis. https://paperpile.com/app/p/171a4e0e-0c98-0603-846b-b294a28e0ca1
35
Risk factors for death in dogs that have oesophageal foreign body
Increasing number of post-procudural complications, oesophageal perforation, post-procedural haemorrhage. Surgery (OR 20.1) https://paperpile.com/app/p/45896f59-403c-0492-889f-e96b00724d6c
36
Percentage of patients that have oesophageal stricture development following oesophageal foregin body removal
2.1% https://paperpile.com/app/p/45896f59-403c-0492-889f-e96b00724d6c
37
What are the most commonly identified bacteria in dogs with cholecytopathy?
E. coli and Enterococcus spp.
38
What breed is commonly seen in dogs with ductal plate abnormalities and what other congential abnormalities can be expected?
Chihuahuas seem to be commonly affected. PPDH/CPPDH are associated with DP abnormlities
39
What is the use of calprotectin in dogs with CE?
Correlated to activity indices, dogs with SRE have higher concentraitons than FRE/ARE (cut off ≥15.2ug/g). It also decreases in response to treatment
40
What intervention may help in outcomes of dogs/cats with oesophageal strictures?
Indwelling balloon dilation devide that results in a 10 fold reduction in dysphagia scores in these patients and 91.7% animals will improve with this intervention
41
What cup biopsy size is fine to sue for laproscopic liver biopsy?
3mm cups have been shown to have no benefit over 5mm cups in terms of diagnostic accurac but do result in fewer portal triads to examine
42
Which cytokines have been shown to correlate to hepatic fibrosis and necroinflammatory scores?
IL-6 = fibrosis CCL2 = necroinflammation
43
What clincopathologic marker appears to predict recovery from PSS attenuation in dogs?
Albumin
44
What effect does feeding an animal protein-free diet have on dogs with FRE microbial diversity?
It improves biodiversity although flora of these animals may remain persistently differnt from healthy controls
45
What staining technique may be useful for demonstrating eosinophils and eosinophil degranulation in dogs with GI disease?
mAB to eosinophile granule protein eosinophile peroxidase
46
Which C. perfringens toxin genes have been found to be increased in the faeces of dogs wiht AHDS?
NetE and NetF which were present in 48.1% dogs with AHDS, none wiht parcovirus and 12.1% of healthy dogs
47
What histopathologic change on liver biopsy should prompt a hunt for leptospirosis?
Granulomatous inflammation
48
What biopsy forcep size is likely superior in diagnosis of chronic enterpathy in cats?
2.4mm compared to 1.8m
49
What is the predictive value in CCEAI in predicting death in dogs wiht PLE
Each unit increase in CCEAI corresponds to a 22.9% increase in hazards of death and dogs with a CCEAI ≤8 and BUN ≤7 survive longer
50
What percentage of healthy cats have GI biopsies consistent with SCL?
60%
51
What combination of test results is a good way to increase the sensitivity and specificity of diagnosing giardiasis? What is the reference test?
IFA is the reference Combining zinc flotation and ELISA improves sens & spec
52
If you note SI submucosal or muscularis thickening in cats with GI signs what biopsy method is appropriate for diagnosis?
Endoscopy still fine as AUS changes in these layers does not predict histopathologic disease
53
Which enterococcus strain has been shown to reduce the time to resolution of clinical signs of diarrhoea by 15 hours or 1.6x
4b107
54
What drug may be used if standard chelating agents are not available for hepatic copper accumulation
Tetrathiomolybdate
55
What amino acids have been shown to be reduced in dogs wiht IBD
Tryptofan (2x studeis) Methionine, seriene (1 study but not the other)
56
What is the effect of synbiotic treatment in the prevention of GI signs in dogs and cats?
Doesn't necessarily prevent GI signs but does seem to increase food intake
57
In Dobermans, which gene has been associated with increased hepatic copper concentrations?
ATP7Ab
58
What amino acid may be derranged in dogs with HCC compared to healthy dogs and dogs with benign liver disease?
Glutamic acid
59
What is the value in assessing vitamin D in dogs with CE?
Vitamin D is associated with higher CCEAI, lower vitamin E, lower albumin and lower cholesterol although VitD binding protein is not reduced. Histopathology also negatively correlated wiht histopathology scores
60
What proliferation/lymphocyte marker is associated with CE and in what location?
Ki-67/CD3+ ratio in lamina propra crypts. N.B this ratio has also been correlated to CCEAI
61
What marker is prognostic in PLE dogs treated with ULFD?
CCEAI, cut off 8
62
what microbial autoantibody has been asociated with the best diagnostic performance for detecting dogs with IBD vs. controls?
Microbial outer membrane protein C (OmpC)
63
What clinical variables have been correlated to increased MMA concentrations in cats with chronic enteropathy?
HCT and BCS are negatively correlated as is TIBC
64
What percentage of cats with chronic GI signs will only be correctly diagnosed with SCL based on ileal biopsies and not upper GI biopsies?
2.3%
65
What percentage of dogs with CE are hypercoaguable, what does G-value correlate to and what other coagulation abnormalities have been found in CE dogs?
44.7% hypercoaguable and G was not correlated with albumin 28g/L but is negatively correlaated with HCT, albumin concentration and albumin concentration. It is also positively correlated to age. A seperate study has shown that higher MA, longer clot lysis times and lower LY30/60 is present in dogs with CE compared to healthy controls
66
What is the median time to remission of biochemical hepatopathy in dogs treated with ciclosporin alone?
2.5 months
67
What is the most common complication associated with feeding tube placement? What are the risk factors for stoma site infection
35.8 - 44.4% overall complication rate has been reported Most common complication is tube dislodgement discharge at the stoma site, glucocorticoids, oncolytic agents associated with increased risk of stoma infection
68
What is the survival for dogs that experience iatrogenic lower GI perforations following endoscopy
93%
69
What OR do border terriers have of developing GBM compared to other breeds
85x and this is not associated with endocrinopathies in this breed
70
What is the OR of death for dogs with GB rupture secondary to a mucocoele?
2.7x
71
What is the usefullness of AUS in diganosing GB rupture in dogs?
It has a poor sensitivity (56.1%) but good specificity (91.7%)
72
What are the risk factors for not surviving cholecystectomy in dogs?
Mucocoele type, ALP acitivity, serum creatinine and serum phosphorus Detecting GB rupture on AUS is a positive surival factor
73
What is the mortality rate of elective cholecystectomy compared to non-elective and the risk factors for survivial?
2% vs. 20% Risk factors: vomiting, lethargy/anorexia, icters, azotaemia, lower albumin, increased ALT, increased bilirubin
74
What percentage of dogs with GBM have TEG evidence of hypercoaguability and what components of the clotting pathway have been noted to be derranged?
83% dogs with GBM have TEG evidence of hypercoaguability (Pavlick et al. 2021) 87% had increased protein C activity 38% had increased fibrinogen 39% increased PLT count 40% increased D-dimers 41% prolonged aPTT 24% reduced vWF activity
75
What is the OR of risk of GI ulceration in the following treatment groups? a) prednisolone alone b) Prednisolone in combination with aspirin c) Prednisolone & Clopidogrel d) Clopidogrel alone c) Aspirin alone
a) 11.1 b) 31.5 c) 4x risk d) none e) none
76
What drug, given alonside carprofen, may increase faecal calprotectin (conmpared to giving carprofen alone)
Omeprazole
77
What percentage of dogs treated wiht NSAIDs have evidence of GI ulceration?
83%
78
What are the main risk factors (5) for GI ulceration that have been identified in dogs?
NSAIDS Glucocorticoids GI neoplasia GI mechnical disease Being a working dog Other diseases were not found to be assocaited in this study although may just reflect small numbers
79
What are the clinical targets to use when treating GI ulceration?
pH ≥4 for ≥ 16 hours for oesophageal healing (MPT 66%) pH ≥3 for 18 - 20h for duodenal ulcers (MPT 83%)
80
What is the effect of omeprazole on the appetite of cats with CKD?
Increases food intake by 2.7% but this is not a clinically relevant increase as bodyweight and overally appetite scores did not improve
81
Which intravenous gastroprotectants have/have not been shown to meet MPT targets for ulcer healing in dogs?
Have: Famotidine, esomeprazole Have not: pantoprazole
82
Which oral gastroprotectant has been shown to be effective in cats?
Esomeprazole but not lansoprazole or dexlansoprazole (although dexlansoprazole > lansoprazole if you had to pick between these)
83
What percentage of E. coli cultured from dogs with GC may be resistant to fluroquinolones and which genes predicted resistance?
62.5% gyrA and parC mutations, rather than plasmid conferred resistance
84
What is the survival to discharge rate for dogs with AHDS and what factor was associated with non-survival ?
96% Receiving 2 antimicrobials was associated with non-survival
85
What is the most common hiatal hernia in cats and what treatment modality results in better survival times?
Type 1 Medical treatment
86
Key histologic featrues of feline alimentary SCL
Monomorphic lymphocyte population (100% cases) In-depth mucosal infiltration (68% cases) Epithelial nests and plaques (50%) CD3+ apical-to-basal gradient Fibrosis in the superficial lamina propria (94%) Ki-67 >20 - 30% had 95% specificity in the epithelium and the lamina propria All cases are CD3_ pSTAT3-ve and pSTAT5+ve 86% cases have T-cell gamma chain rearrangements but this was also found in 40% LPE cases
87
What CD3 marker pattern is found in cats with SCL?
PSTAT3-VE AND PSTAT5 +VE
88
WHAT PERCENTAGE OF T-CELL GAMMA CHAIN REARRANGEMENTS MAY BE SEEN IN CATS WITH LPE?
40%
89
What 5 clinical features may be more likely in cats wiht alimentary SCL compared to cats with LPE?
- Male - Longer duration of clinical signs - Presence of polyphagia - Rounded jejunal lymph node - Abdominal esffusion
90
What prognostic factors have been identified in dogs wiht GI lymphoma?
- Anorexia - Septic peritonitis - Tumour location
91
What are the most common videofluroscopic features found in dogs wiht LES achalasia-like syndrome?
Megaoesophagus and baseline oesophageal fluid lines or 'bird-break'
92
What bacterial populations are reduced in tylosin treated dogs?
fusobacteriaceae and Veillonellaceae following 7 days of treatment although taxa may normalise by 63 days
93
What biochemical changes are associated with Enterococcus faecium supplementation?
Increased TG and decreased cholesterol, but not chagnes in liver enzymes
94
What is the effect of MTZ treatment on dogs with acute diarrhoea?
May reduce length of clincial signs by 1 day on average and reduce the number of dogs with C. perfringens carriage 7 days after treatment
95
What faecal microbiota changes may be persistent for > 4 weeks following 2 weeks treatment with MTZ?
Increased faecal dysbiosis index Reduced microbial richness Increased faecal lactat and decreased secondary BAs in faeces
96
How does treatment of acute diarrhoea with amoxicillin/clavulanic acid affect clinical signs and what bacterial resistance is noted?
No impact on clincial signs Increase in proportion of amoxicillin/resistant E. coli noted 3 weeks followign treatment
97
How many splenic FNA samples are expected to yield clinically relevant results and what factors increase the chance of finding something clinically relevant>
20% Nodules > 1 - 2cm diameter, peritoneal fluid > 1 target lesion
98
How does PRA and aldosterone concentration change in dogs wiht hepatic disease?
PRA is higher in CH than EH-cPSS and aldosterone is higher in CH and PVH cases than EH-cPS
99
What percentage of clinically healthy dogs have evidence of GER?
100%
100
What drugs have been shown to increase gastric emptying times in healthy cats?
Erythromycin and metoclopramide but NOT exenatide
101
What percentage of dogs with URT signs will have endoscopic GIT abnormalities and/or GI signs?
99% endoscopic changes 52% chronic GI signs
102
How many dogs undergoing ultrasound guided liver biopsy will have a PCV decrease, what is the average value of the decrease and what number are thought to have 'major' haemorrhage?
85.3% will decrease PCV, wiht a mean change of 7.2% 42.4% will have 'major' haemorrhage although this remains clinically silent
103
Which area of the gastrointestinal tract does videocapsule endoscopy best capture?
SI
104
What factors are associated with decreased success of video capsule endoscopy?
Administration of simethicone or opiods Having a chronic enteropathy Capsule transit time > 6 hours
105
What prognostic factor is associated to survival to discharge in cats undergoing choledochal stenting?
Absecne of pleural effusion
106
What percentage of dogs with cholelithiass are successfully managed either surgically or medically?
Around 50%
107
What drug should be administered to dogs undergoing surgery for septic peritonitis to improve OR of survival?
Lidocaine, OR 8.7
108
What breed may be overrepresented in hepatocutaneous syndrome?
Shih Tzu
109
What percentage of GI obstructions diagnosed laporoscopically will subsequently require open surgery to remove them?
25%
110
What percentage of dogs vs. cats require a blood transfusion following liver lobectomy?
17% dogs, 44% cats
111
What are the top two most common diagnoses made in dogs that develop acute onset erytrhroderma?
Drug reactions followed by IBD
112
how long may cobalamin be stable in serum samples for when refridgerated?
5 days
113
What percentage of serum ammonia concentrations correctly classify ammonia levels in dogs using a benchside analyster (Heksa element DC)
97%
114
What is the most common diagnosis found in animals with chyloabdomen?
Neoplasia (45%)
115
What factors are associated with an increased risk of GER under anaesthesia?
male Overweight GI surgery Requirement for dexmdetomidine CRI post-operatively
116
What percentage of dogs receiving IV apomorphine will have their GI foreign bodies successfully emesed?
73% for a single dose, 75% for a second dose
117
What factors increase/decrease the chance of successfully removing a GI FB with apomorphine adminstration
Increase: younger, fabric, leather or bathroom material Decrease: longer time between ingestion and emesis, pre-apo sedatives, opiods or maropitant
118
Why should serum allergy assays against food sensitivities NOT be used?
60 - 100% of healthy dogs will have potivie results
119
In what percentage of cats will constipation recur following subtotal colectomy?
32%

Specialty Revision (13 decks)

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