Gas Facts Flashcards

1
Q

Explain what happens when NSAIDs inhibitor the enzyme COX

A

(1) NSAIDs inhibit the activity of the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX).
(2) COX is responsible for converting arachidonic acid into prostaglandins, including prostaglandin E (PGE)
(3) By inhibiting COX, NSAIDs prevent the synthesis of prostaglandins, including PGE.
(4) PGE is known to have a protective effect on the gastric mucosa and also inhibits gastric acid secretion
(5) Without the presence of PGE, the inhibition of gastric acid secretion is diminished.
(6) This leads to an increase in gastric acid production by the parietal cells in the stomach
(7) The reduction in PGE formation and subsequent increase in gastric acid secretion can contribute to the development of gastric ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding, which are known side effects of NSAID use

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2
Q

How do NSAIDs like aspirin or ibuprofen cause upset to your stomach?

A

Your stomach lining has a special layer of mucus that protects it from stomach acid. NSAIDs mess with this mucus by blocking the production of a helpful substance called prostaglandin. Prostaglandin helps keep the mucus layer thick and healthy. Without it, the lining is weak and may become vulnerable to the acid within your stomach

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3
Q

Cholecystitis meaning

A

infammation of th gallbladder

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4
Q

Achalasia meaning

A

a condition in which the muscles of the lower part of the oesophagus fail to relax, preventing food from passing into the stomach.

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5
Q

Norovirus treatment

A

supportive

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6
Q

Where do you usually get norovirus?

A

Common on cruise ships

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7
Q

Hepatitis A treatment and where it usually comes from?

A
  • Increased risk in men who have sex with men
  • Treatment → supportive
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8
Q

What is a Hookworm?

A

Enters through the skn and causes GI disease

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9
Q

Explain Schistosoma.

A

Usually found in lakes abroad

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10
Q

Explain Giardia Lamblia

A

Flagellated protozoa

Swimming in pools, lakes, rivers or where there is untreated water/sanitation issues

Person to person spread
Causes large volume foul smelling diarrhoea
- Explosive and intermittent
- Also associated with ‘eggy burps’

Most common in south/southeast asia

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11
Q

Explain Entamoeba Histolytica

A

Amoebiasis

90% of people are asymptomatic
- Linked to travel to warm country
- Can cause colitis and liver issues
- Associated with bloody diarrhoea, weight loss and pain

One to three-week onset

Liver onset can be years after exposure

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12
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica?

A

Associated with pigs

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13
Q

Vibrio cholerae?

A

Profuse watery diarrhoea and causes electrolyte issues

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14
Q

Aeromonas?

A

Water-associated and infects immunosuppressed people

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15
Q

Bacillus cereus?

A

associated with reheated foods

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16
Q

Explain Enterobacteriaceae

A

Gram negative coliform

53 genera, 26 of which cause human infection

Facultative anaerobes mostly

Ferment sugars

17
Q

Explain C. diff

A

Gram-positive

Heavily associated with previous antibiotic exposure via the 4 deadly C’s

Treatment is with vancomycin

Prevention is with handwashing as it is spore-forming
- Important not to hand gel as it won’t clean well enough

18
Q

Explain Salmonella

A

Non-typhoidal salmonella

Typically self-limiting

Commonly foodborne

In immunocompromised people, it can also cause endocarditis and other infections

Can be linked to ownership of reptiles, change in GI flora and eating undercooked meat

19
Q

Explain Enterobius

A

Pinworm

Causes an itch in the bum

Worms typically come out at night to lay their eggs

20
Q

Explain Cryptosporidium

A

Prolonged diarrhoea in immunosuppressed

Contaminated oocysts ingested in water

Inhalation can cause disease in immunosuppressed

21
Q

Explain Cytomegalovirus

A

Colitis in very immunosuppressed

Other invasive illnesses associated

Bloody diarrhoea

Biopsy is the best diagnostic method

22
Q

Explain Lysteria

A

Gram-positive rods

Undergoes cold enrichment → grows at the same temperature as a fridge is kept at

Often causes meningitis or bacteraemia

23
Q

Peritonitis is treated with what?

A

(1) Gentamicin - for gram negatives (coliforms)
(2) Metronidazole - anaerobic cover
(3) Amoxicillin - enterococcus

24
Q

INVESTIGATIONS for H. Pylori

A
  1. bedside - stool test or carbon-13 urea breath test
  2. If at OGD, a rapid urease test (CLO) can be done

Patients should not be taking PPI for at least 2 weeks prior as could indicate false negative results

25
Q

Management for H. Pylori

A

(1) 1st episode, 1st line - amoxicillin, clarithromycin and a PPI twice daily for seven days - so-called triple therapy.

Treatment should only be initiated in cases of documented H. Pylori infection.

(2) After 4-8 weeks patients can be re-tested for H. pylori to check it has been eradicated with a urea breath test

(3) If still present, NICE recommend another course of triple therapy with metronidazole or clarithromycin (whichever was not used in the initial course) amoxicillin and a PPI

(4) If the patient has taken two courses of eradication therapy, they should be referred to a Gastroenterologist

26
Q

Differentiate between gastric and duodenal ulcer

A

pain, milk

27
Q

Prehepatic jaundice is what

A

gilberts, haemolytic anaemia, newborn, trauma

28
Q

Intrahepatic jaundice is what?

A

viral hepatitis, alcoholic hep, autoimmune hep,
decompensated cirrhosis, PBC, PSC

29
Q

Post hepatic jaundice is what?

A

gall stone, head of pancreas cancer, gallbladder cancer

30
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis antibodies

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA)

31
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis antibodies

A

Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)

32
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis antibodies

A

(ANCA) (cANCA)

33
Q

Pancreatitis antibodies

A

Raised amylase, lipase, vomiting, pain

34
Q

Coeliac disease antibodies

A

Anti-transglutaminase antibody, anti
endomysial antibody

35
Q

Diffuse stomach cancer antibdoies

A

Signet ring cells seen on biopsy