Fundamentals of electrophysiology Flashcards

Arms the student with basic E.P. and electrical concepts. All pacemaker theory is built upon the understanding of these principles. Currently weighted 3% in the CCDS exam.

1
Q

Define ‘Automaticity’.

A

The cells ability to spontaneously depolarise or the ability to initiate an impulse.

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2
Q

What is the resting membrane potential of a P-cell?

A

-50 to -60mV.

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3
Q

Is progression of SND to CHB considered likely or unlikely?

A

Unlikely.

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4
Q

Sarcoidosis / Giant cell myocarditis accounts for what % of unexplained AV block in <55yr old pts?

A

25%.

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5
Q

Which type of 2nd degree AVB is most likely to progress to CHB?

A

2nd Degree Mobitz II.

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6
Q

List 4 examples of reversible AV block.

A
  1. Lyme Carditis disease
  2. Drug toxicity
  3. Vagotonia
  4. Hypoxia
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7
Q

What is the strongest predictor of whether bifascicular block will advance to CHB?

A

Symptoms are the strongest predictor of disease progression.

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8
Q

Will pacing for bifascicular block improve mortality?

A

No.

It only improves symptoms.

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9
Q

Define ‘Resting Membrane Potential’.

A

Intracellular charge is more negative than extracellular charge.

Due to the cell membrane being more permeable to both K and NA+.

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10
Q

Define cellular ‘Depolarisation’.

A

Intracellular charge becomes less negative than extracellular charge due to the exchange of ions across the cell membrane.

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11
Q

Define ‘Repolarisation’.

A

Intracellular charge to return to a more negative state than extracellular charge due to re-exchange of ions across the cell membrane.

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12
Q

Phase 0 is otherwise known as?

A

Rapid Depolarisation.

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13
Q

Phase 1 is otherwise known as?

A

Early Repolarisation.

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14
Q

Phase 2 is otherwise known as?

A

Plateau Phase.

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15
Q

Phase 3 is otherwise known as?

A

Rapid Repolarisation.

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16
Q

Phase 4 is otherwise known as?

A

Resting Phase.

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17
Q

During Phase 0 (Rapid Depolarisation), which ions flow into the cell and how quickly?

A

Sodium moves rapidly in.

Calcium moves slowly in.

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18
Q

During Phase 1 (Early Repolarisation), which ions flow in/out of the cell?

A

Sodium channels close - Membrane is impermeable to sodium.

Calcium moves slowly in.

Activation of transient outward potassium current (Ito)

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19
Q

During Phase 2 (Plateau Phase), which ions flow in/out of the cell?

A

Calcium moves slowly in.

Potassium moves slowly out.

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20
Q

During Phase 3 (Rapid Repolarisation), which ions flow in/out of the cell?

A

Calcium channels close - Membrane is impermeable to calcium (& sodium still).

Potassium moves rapidly out.

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21
Q

During Phase 4 (Resting Phase), which ions flow in/out of the cell?

A

Active transport pumps Potassium in.

Active transport pumps Sodium out.

Membrane still impermeable to both Calcium & Sodium.

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22
Q

What phase of the cardiac cycle is responsible for myocardial contraction?

A

Phase 0.

The cellular charge changing from negative to positive triggers contraction.

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23
Q

When combined, which phases equate to the Absolute Refractory Period?

A

Phases 0, 1, 2 and early phase 3.

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24
Q

When combined, which phases equate to the Relative Refractory Period?

A

Late phase 3 and phase 4.

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25
The following statement best defines which refractory period? 'The cell cannot accept a stimulus no matter the strength'.
Absolute Refractory Period (AKA Effective Refractory Period). ## Footnote *The cell cannot accept a stimulus due to cellular supersaturation of ions.*
26
The following statement best defines which refractory period? 'The cell can be stimulated but requires a greater than normal stimulation strength'
Relative Refractory Period. ## Footnote *This is due to cellular saturation of ions returning to baseline but isnt yet at true baseline.*
27
Define **'Excitablity'**.
Threshold at which a cell will respond to a stimulus / Cells ability to respond to an impulse.
28
Define **'Conductivity'**.
How well the cell passes on a stimulus / Cells ability to transmit an impulse.
29
Under normal resting conditions, what is the automatic firing rate of the SA Node?
60-100bpm.
30
Below what heart rate is considered Sinus Bradycardia?
\<60bpm.
31
Above what heart rate is considered Sinus Tachycardia?
\>100bpm.
32
How many internodal tracts are there in the Right Atrium?
x3 (Anterior, Middle, Posterior).
33
Define the purpose of the Bachmanns Bundle.
To provide rapid impulse conduction to the **Left Atrium**. ## Footnote *This facilitates synchronous contraction of both the left and right Atria.*
34
Define where the AV Node is located.
Inferior Right Atrium near osmium of Coronary Sinus. ## Footnote *Apex of Triangle of KOCH.*
35
What does the AV Node do to the impulse it receives from the Atria and why?
Delays the signal for approximately 120 msec. This allows for ventricular filling respondent to atrial contraction.
36
What is the secondary purpose of the AV Node with regards to rate control?
AVN has decremental conduction properties, which prevents rapid impulses originating in the atria from reaching the ventricles. ## Footnote *E.g. 250bpm Atrial-Flutter conducted 1:1 would prevent adequate ventricular filling. AVN blocks these impulses in a typically 2:1 or 3:1 fashion, which facilitates stable haemodynamics.*
37
What electrical anatomical structure follows the AV Node?
The bundle of HIS follows the AV Node.
38
What is the automatic firing rate of the bundle of HIS.
40-60 bpm.
39
# True / False The left bundle branch divides into two arms vs. the right bundle branch's one arm.
True. ## Footnote *The left has both the Anterior and Posterior Fascicle.*
40
# True / False Left bundle branch conduction velocity exceeds that of the right bundle branch.
True. ## Footnote *In order to deploarise the greater amount of tissue comprising the left ventricle, while maintaining synchronousity to the smaller right ventricle.*
41
What is the final structure of the electrical conduction system.
Purkinje Fibres. ## Footnote *Responsible for innervating deep into the ventricular wall.*
42
What is the automatic firing rate of the Purkinje Fibres?
15-40bpm.
43
What is the most likely type of arrhythmia described below. 'Re-entry circuits within the atrium, AVN excluded, fires between 150-250bpm'.
Atrial Flutter.
44
What structure within the Right Atrium precipitates the majority of Atrial Tachycardias?
Crista Terminalis.
45
Describe the Crista Terminalis structure.
Endocardial ridge that divides smooth atrial tissue and the trabeculated appendage. ## Footnote *The meeting of different tissues with differing conduction properties forms the substrate for the majority of tachycaridas.*
46
# Increase / Decrease Predominant sympathetic SA node innervation will result in which HR response?
Increased Heart Rate.
47
# Increase / Decrease Predominant parasympathetic SA node innervation will result in which HR response?
Decreased Heart Rate.
48
What is the most common type of SVT treated today?
**A**trio-**V**entricular-**N**odal-**R**e-entrant-**T**achycardia (AVNRT).
49
What is the most likely type of arrhythmia described below? 'Re-entrant circuit of two anatomically & physiologically separate pathways confined to the AV node'.
**AVNRT**.
50
Structurally, what is the major way AVNRT differs from AVRT?
AVNRT is a micro re-entry pathway encased within the AV Node. ## Footnote *AVRT involves accessory pathways located outside the AV node and is known as a macro circuit.*
51
In the context of AVNRT, which pathway is described below? 'Has a relatively short **A**bsolute **R**efractory **P**eriod and conducts slowly'.
The slow pathway.
52
In the context of AVNRT, which pathway is described below? 'Has a relatively long **A**bsolute **R**efractory **P**eriod and conducts quickly'
The fast pathway.
53
For AVNRT to propagate, a person is said to have what type of nodal physiology?
Dual Nodal Physiology. ## Footnote *i.e. Both a Fast and Slow Pathway are present and functional.*
54
What is the **typical** route for AVNRT?
**Antegrade** down the slow pathway. **Retrograde** up the fast pathway.
55
What is the **atypical** route for AVNRT?
**Antegrade** down the fast pathway. **Retrograde** up the slow pathway.
56
# True / False No P-wave is visible during **typical** AVNRT due to simultaneous firing of the Atria and Ventricles.
True. ## Footnote *P-wave is usually buried in the QRS complex and thus invisible on a surface ECG.*
57
# True / False No P-wave is visible during **atypical** AVNRT due to simultaneous firing of the Atria and Ventricles.
False ## Footnote *P-wave is usually visible in the T-wave.*
58
Delta-waves on an ECG are typically indicative of what congenital condition?
Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome (WPW).
59
What structures must be present to facilitate AVRT.
Accessory Pathways.
60
# True / False If an Accessory Pathway conducts retrograde only, a delta wave will be observable on the ECG.
False. ## Footnote *Any electrical activation will be buried by the QRS complex. Only Antegrade AP conduction will show delta waves.*
61
If an Accessory Pathway conducts retrogradely only, it is said to be what type of pathway?
Concealed. ## Footnote *As there are no ECG markers visible. They are 'concealed' by the QRS complex.*
62
# True / False Pre-excitation highlights early activation of the ventricular myocardium respondent to conduction through an accessory pathway ahead normal conduction through the AV Node.
True. ## Footnote *A slurred upstroke on the QRS shows early activation in the region of the AP. As conduction through the AV Node occurs, the QRS 'catches up' as the remainder of the ventricular myocardium depolarises.*
63
What are 3 common ECG hallmarks of Wolff Parkinson White.
1. Short PR Interval (\<120ms) 2. Broad QRS due to delta wave (\>120ms) 3. Abnormal T-waves
64
# Yes / No Can delta waves be seen during **Orthodromic** AVRT?
No. ## Footnote *The impulse is travelling **antegrade** through the AV Node and **retrograde** up the AP. Thus any ECG signals are concealed by the QRS.*
65
# Yes / No Can delta waves be seen during **Antidromic** AVRT?
Yes. ## Footnote *The impulse is travelling **retrograde** up through the AV Node and **antegrade** down the AP. Thus pre-excitation of the QRS will be seen.*
66
Is Orthodromic AVRT considered Typical or Atypical?
Typical. ## Footnote *It's the most common type.*
67
Is Antidromic AVRT considered Typical or Atypical?
Atypical. ## Footnote *It's the less common type.*
68
What arrhythmia is best described below? 'Atrial Rhythm is regular at a rate of 250-350bpm'.
Atrial Flutter.
69
# True / False Atrial Flutter is a Micro re-entrant circuit contained predominantly within the left atrium.
False. ## Footnote *It is a **Macro** re-entrant circuit most commonly contained within the right atrium.*
70
# True / False Typical Flutter gives rise to a sawtooth baseline pattern on an ECG.
True.
71
# True / False Atypical Flutter is commonly negative in inferior leads II, III, and AVF.
False ## Footnote *Typical Flutter will commonly be negative in the inferior leads II, III, and AVF.*
72
# Typical / Atypical The following statement best describes which flutter type? 'Substrate is an anatomically distinct area of delayed conduction located between the IVC, CSos and and Tricuspid Valve Annulus'.
Typical Flutter. ## Footnote *Atypical Flutter commonly forms around other areas of block to conduction.*
73
Which ECG leads are best for observing a sawtooth baseline respondent to flutter?
Typically V1 or Inferior leads II, III, and AVF.
74
Which is commonly faster: Typical or Atypical Flutter?
Atypical Flutter is generally faster than Typical.
75
What arrhythmia is best described by the following statement? 'Irregular firing of the Atria and resultantly irregular contraction of the Ventricles'.
Atrial Fibrillation (with intrinsic conduction).
76
What arrhythmia is best described by the following statement? 'Impulse originates in the Ventricles and regularly fires between 100-200bpm'.
Ventricular Tachycardia.
77
List the 3 categories associated with structural based VT.
1. Automatic 2. Re-entrant 3. Triggered
78
List the 2 categories associated with idiopathic non-structural VT.
1. RVOT (most common) 2. Fascicular VT ## Footnote 10% of all VT occurs in pts. with no apparent structural heart disease
79
# True / False Automatic based VT is most commonly associated with myocardial scarring.
False. ## Footnote Automatic VT = Acute metabolic crisis (Dialysis) or post MI reperfusion. Re-entry VT = Myocardial Scarring.
80
# True / False Re-entrant VT is most commonly associated with myocardial scarring.
True. ## Footnote *Scarring post MI is the most common substrate for re-entrant VT.*
81
# Automatic / Triggered Which VT type is described best by the following statement? 'VT caused by leakage of IONS during the action potential and occurs spontaneously'.
Automatic. ## Footnote *Triggered is also caused by leakage of IONS during AP, however rarely occurs spontaneously. It almost always requires a premature impulse.*
82
# Automatic / Triggered Which is described best by the following statement. 'VT caused by leakage of IONS during the action potential and occurs following a premature beat'.
Triggered. ## Footnote *Automatic is also caused by leakage of IONS during AP, however doesn't require a premature impulse. It almost always occurs spontaneously.*
83
What arrhythmia is best described by the following statement? 'Chaotic irregular impulses that originate in the Ventricles'.
Ventricular fibrillation.
84
The statement below best defines what quantity? 'Unit of electric current (flow of 1 coulomb per sec)'.
The Ampere.
85
The statement below best defines what quantity? 'Unit of electric charge'.
The Coulomb.
86
The statement below best defines what quantity? 'Unit of electric resistance'.
The Ohm.
87
The statement below best defines what quantity? 'Unit of electric potential and electromotive force'.
The Volt.
88
The statement below best defines what quantity? 'Unit of frequency'.
The Hertz.
89
The statement below best defines what quantity? 'Unit of capacitance' (Ability of body to store charge).
The Farad.
90
The statement below best defines what quantity? 'Unit of Energy'.
The Joule (1J per second = 1 Watt)'.
91
V = I x R describes what law?
OHMS Law. ## Footnote *V = Power in Voltage / I = Current in Amperes / R = Impedance in Ohms.*
92
E = V x I x T describes what?
The Energy Equation. ## Footnote *E = Energy in Joules / V = Power in Voltage / I = Current in Amperes / T = Time in seconds.*
93
# True / False E = V x I x T can also be written E = V x Q.
True. ## Footnote *Charge (Coulomb) = Current (Ampere) x Time **Thus** I x T = Q.*
94
What is the equation used to calculate battery longevity?
(114 x Battery capacity in Ampere hrs) / Current drain in micro Amperes (uA).
95
What is the formula required in order to calculate energy usage of a device?
(Voltage squared / resistance) x pulse width.
96
# True / False Doubling the output voltage equates to a four fold increase in energy drain.
True. ## Footnote *Hence setting a lower voltage and higher pulse width is almost always desirable.*
97
# True / False Doubling the output pulse width equates to a four fold increase in energy drain.
False. ## Footnote *Doubling the pulse width **only** doubles the energy drain. Hence setting a lower voltage and higher pulse width is almost always desirable.*
98
With respect to electronics, what does the following symbol pertain to? 'A'
The Ampere. ## Footnote *The unit of electrical current.*
99
With respect to electronics, what does the following symbol pertain to? 'C'
The Coulomb. ## Footnote *The unit of electrical current.*
100
With respect to electronics, what does the following symbol pertain to? 'Ω'
The Ohm. ## Footnote *The unit of electrical resistance.*
101
With respect to electronics, what does the following symbol pertain to? 'V'
The Volt. ## Footnote *The unit of electrical potential.*
102
With respect to electronics, what does the following symbol pertain to? 'Hz'
The Hertz. ## Footnote *The unit of Frequency.*
103
With respect to electronics, what does the following symbol pertain to? 'F'
The Farad. ## Footnote *The unit of electrical capacitance.*
104
What is the resting membrane potential of a Cardiomyocyte?
-90mV. ## Footnote *Remember a P-cell is -50 to 60mV.*
105
Which of the 5 Phases of Action Potential is considered 'Repolarisation'?
Phase 3. ## Footnote *Outward flow of Ions exceed inward flow of Ions.*
106
# True / False Cells capable of spontaneous automaticity exhibit gradual upward drift in transmembrane potential until threshold is reached.
True. ## Footnote *Examples of such cells are SA and AV Nodal Cells.*
107
# True / False The resting voltage of P-Cells is more negative than that of Cardiomyocytes.
False. ## Footnote *P-Cell = -50 to -60mV / Cardiomyocyte = -90mV.*
108
Why is the resting voltage of Cardiomyocytes is more negative than that of P-Cells?
P-Cells posses fewer inward rectifier K+ channels than cardiomyocytes. ## Footnote *More channels = larger voltage drop.*
109
# True / False During Phase 0, Sodium (NA+) flows rapidly out of the cell.
False. ## Footnote *During Phase 0 Sodium Flows **inwards**.*
110
# True / False During Phase 2, Calcium (Ca) flows rapidly into the cell.
True.
111
Which of the 5 Phases of Action Potential is considered the start of 'Diastolic Depolarisation'?
Phase 4.
112
# True / False In a circuit, electrons always leave via the Anode.
True. ## Footnote *Anode = Away.*
113
# True / False In a circuit, electrons always enter via the Cathode.
True. ## Footnote *Cathode = Come towards.*
114
The rapid upstroke of the purkinje fiber AP (phase 0) is related to which of the following currents? 1. ICa 2. IKr 3. IKs 4. INa
4 - INa ## Footnote *Rapid influx of sodium ions.*
115
What is the current that flows to the myocardium for the following? 'Output is 2.5V and lead resistance is 565 Ohms'
V = IR thus I = V/R 2.5V / .565Kohm = 4.4mA ## Footnote *Remember ohms must be changed to Kohms to give answer in mA.*
116
If one halves the output of a generator from 2V to 1V - the energy delivered is what? 1. Halved 2. Quadrupled 3. Doubled 4. Quartered
4 - Quartered. ## Footnote *E = (V2/R)\*T*