fundamentals Flashcards

1
Q

home health care is what level of health care

A

restorative

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2
Q

rehabs are what level of health care

A

restorative

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3
Q

skilled nursing facilities are what level of health care

A

restorative

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4
Q

emergency departments are what level of health care

A

secondary

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5
Q

diagnostic centers are what level of health care

A

secondary

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6
Q

urgent care centers are what level of health care

A

secondary

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7
Q

level of health care that diagnoses and treats acute illnesses and injuries

A

secondary health care

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8
Q

oncology centers are what level of health care

A

tertiary health care

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9
Q

intensive care are what level of health care

A

tertiary health care

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10
Q

burn centers are what level of health care

A

tertiary health care

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11
Q

level of health care in which a patient is treated for a brief but severe episode of illness, for conditions that are the result of disease or trauma, and during recovery from surgery is called?

A

acute care

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12
Q

end of life care is what level of health care

A

continuing health care

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13
Q

palliative care is what level of health care

A

continuing health care

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14
Q

hospice is what level of health care

A

continuing health care

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15
Q

adult day care is what level of health care

A

continuing health care

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16
Q

assisted living is what level of health care

A

continuing health care

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17
Q

in home repsite care is what level of health care

A

continuing health care

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18
Q

level of health care that addresses long term or chronic health care needs over a period of time

A

continuing health care

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19
Q

fullfilment of promises is what ethical principle

A

fidelity

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20
Q

what type of law protects individual rights?

A

civil law

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21
Q

negligence is what type of tort

A

unintentional

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22
Q

professional negligence is also called

A

malpractice

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23
Q

confidentiality breaches are what type of tort

A

quasi intentional

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24
Q

defamation is what type of tort

A

quasi intentional

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25
Q

what type of tort is assault

A

intentional

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26
Q

conduct that makes another person fearful and apprehensive is which intentional tort

A

assault

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27
Q

threatening to place an NG tube in a pt who refuses to eat is which intentional tort

A

assault

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28
Q

what type of tort is battery

A

intentional

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29
Q

intentional and wrongful contact with a person that involves an injury or offensive contact is which intentional tort

A

battery

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30
Q

restraining and giving an injection against a pts wishes is which intentional tort

A

battery

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31
Q

which type of tort is false imprisonment

A

intentional

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32
Q

what to do if a dnr pt has no pulse but there is no provider dnr prescription in pts medical record

A

start cpr

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33
Q

which sentence documents a clients behavior accurately, “client is agitated” or “client pacing back and forth in the room, yelling loudly”.

A

“client pacing back and forth in the room, yelling loudly” (shows what nurse sees and hears)

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34
Q

can you pre chart an assessment, intervention or evaluation?

A

no

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35
Q

should advance directives be included in transfer reports?

A

yes

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36
Q

should medication routine from medication administration record be included in transfer reports?

A

no unless there is a significant change in the routine (they can read it themselves in the chart)

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37
Q

should an upcoming bone scan be included in transfer report?

A

yes because nurse might have to modify care to accommodate leaving unit

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38
Q

is. talking about a pt at a nursing station a HIPAA violation?

A

no

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39
Q

should an incidence report be done for an omitted prescription?

A

yes

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40
Q

can an AP apply a condom catheter?

A

yes

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41
Q

what are the 5 rights of delegation

A

right task
right circumstance
right person
right direction and communication
right supervision and evaluation

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42
Q

can an AP administer a nebulizer treatment to a pt with pneumonia?

A

no

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43
Q

can an AP measure vitals of stable post op pt?

A

yes

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44
Q

can an AP give enteral feedings?

A

no

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45
Q

what does right direction and communication include?

A

what data to collect
method/timeline for reporting
specific tasks and client specific instructions
results, timelines and follow up communication expectations

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46
Q

making choices without help from others and fully assuming responsibility for choices is what level of critical thinking?

A

commitment

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47
Q

increasing IV fluid infusion when pt BP shows hypovolemic shock 24 hrs after surgery is what level of critical thinking?

A

commitment

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48
Q

what are the 3 levels of critical thinking?

A

basic
complex
commitment

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49
Q

does turning away from a sterile field contaminate it?

A

yes

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50
Q

time between infection and first symptom

A

incubation

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51
Q

time between general findings to distinct findings in an infection

A

prodromal stage

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52
Q

when findings specific to infection occur

A

illness stage

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53
Q

time between acute symptoms stop and total recovery

A

convalescence

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54
Q

an increase in what over 20mm/hr indicates active inflammatory process or infection?

A

ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)

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55
Q

what are protective encironments used for

A

patient’s who are immunocompromised

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56
Q

what kind of airflow should be used in a protective environment

A

positive airflow 12

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57
Q

what does positive airflow do?

A

prevent airborne pathogens from entering

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58
Q

what airflow should be used in airborne precautions

A

negative pressure airflow

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59
Q

how many exchanges per hr should negative pressure airflow be used

A

6-12 exchanges/hr

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60
Q

is ibuprofen an antipyretic?

A

no

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61
Q

what pts should you keep side rails up?

A

sedated
unconcious
compromised

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62
Q

what rescue equipment should be at bedside for seizure precautions?

A

O2
oral airway
suction equipment
side rail padding

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63
Q

how many hrs of restraint does a prescription allow for an adult

A

4 hrs

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64
Q

how many hrs does a restraint prescription allow for a pt 9-17 yrs old

A

2 hrs

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65
Q

how many hrs does a restraint prescription allow for pt younger than 9 yrs old

A

1 hr

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66
Q

what class of fire extinguishers are for combustibles?

A

class A

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67
Q

what are examples of combustibles?

A

paper
wood
rags

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68
Q

class of fire extinguishers for flammable liquids and gas fires?

A

class b

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69
Q

class of fire extinguishers for electrical fires?

A

class c

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70
Q

should you go to the nurses station for help when a pt is having a seizure?

A

no stay with pt and use call light to call for help

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71
Q

what position to place pt having seizure

A

side lying (prevent choking on tongue)

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72
Q

what should you place along base of door to contain fire and smoke?

A

wet towels

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73
Q

how should infant be placed to rest?

A

on their back (back to sleep)

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74
Q

can you leave a mobile toy over a infants bed if they’re able to push up?

A

no

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75
Q

what kind of bed should climbing toddler be put in?

A

low bed

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76
Q

how should infants/toddlers under 2 yrs old car seats be placed?

A

rear facing

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77
Q

what kind of harness should be used for infant/children?

A

5 point harness

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78
Q

what should be used after a child outgrows a forward facing car seat?

A

booster seat

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79
Q

what spf of sunscreen should be used for toddlers

A

30 spf or higher

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80
Q

who should use booster seats?

A

children less than 4’9
weigh less than 40lbs
4-8 yrs old

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81
Q

children under what age should sit in backseat

A

under 12

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82
Q

where should bullets be stored

A

different location from guns

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83
Q

water heaters should not be higher than what temperature

A

120 degrees Fahrenheit

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84
Q

where should ice packs be placed for heat stroke pt

A

axillae
chest
groin
neck

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85
Q

should a burn pt be NPO?

A

yes

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86
Q

how does CO2 reduce the oxygen

A

binding to hemoglobin

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87
Q

can nail polish be used near pt receiving oxygen?

A

no (its flammable)

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88
Q

what material of clothing and bedding should a pt receiving oxygen use

A

cotton (*wool/synthetic create static electricity/fires)

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89
Q

HOB elevated 15-45 degrees is what position

A

semi fowlers

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90
Q

HOB elevated 45-60 degrees is what position

A

fowlers

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91
Q

what position for NG tube insertion and suctioning

A

fowlers (45-60 degrees)

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92
Q

what position to prevent regurgitation and aspiration for dysphagia pts

A

semi fowlers

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93
Q

position for pts with dyspnea or receiving mechanical ventilation

A

semi fowlers

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94
Q

pt lying supine with HOB elevated 60-90 degrees

A

high fowlers

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95
Q

position for severe dyspnea and prevents aspiration during meals

A

high fowlers

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96
Q

supine is also known as

A

dorsal recumbent

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97
Q

which position prevents hip flexion contractions after lower extremity amputation

A

prone

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98
Q

position for COPD

A

orthpneic

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99
Q

pt sitting with arms resting on pillow on overbed table across their lap is what position

A

orthopneic

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100
Q

position for hypovolemia

A

modified trendelenburg

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101
Q

when should you take a break from repetitive movements to flex/stretch joints and muscles

A

every 15-20 mins

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102
Q

how should knees be when sitting for long periods of time

A

higher than hips

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103
Q

how to treat anthrax inhalation

A

cipro & doxy plus 1 or 2 additional antibiotics

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104
Q

how to treat cutaneous anthrax

A

just cipro and doxy

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105
Q

how to treat mass casualty tularemia

A

cipro or doxy

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106
Q

how to treat general tularemia

A

streptomycin or gentamicin

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107
Q

what to do for bed confined pts during tornado

A

place blankets over them

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108
Q

should u apply water to a dry chemical exposure?

A

no (could activate chemical)

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109
Q

how to get dry chemical off

A

use brush to remove from skin and clothing

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110
Q

how often should dental assessments be done

A

every 6 months

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111
Q

how often should TB skin tests be done

A

every 2 years

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112
Q

how often should skin assessments be done for ages 20-40

A

every 3 yrs

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113
Q

how often should skin assessments be done for ages 40+

A

annually

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114
Q

how much weight do newborns gain a week in the 1st 6 months

A

5-7 oz

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115
Q

when should an infant demonstrate a head lag

A

1 month

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116
Q

when should an infant have a strong grasp reflex

A

1 month

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117
Q

what should a 1 month old infant have

A

head lag
strong grasp reflex

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118
Q

when should infant be able to lift head off mattress when prone

A

2 months

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119
Q

when should infant hold hands in open position and grasp reflex fade

A

2 months

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120
Q

when should infant raise head and shoulders off matress when prone

A

3 months

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121
Q

when should infant have only a slight head lag

A

3 months

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122
Q

when should an infants grasp reflex disappear

A

3 months

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123
Q

when should infant keep hands loosely open

A

3 months

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124
Q

when should an infant roll from back to side

A

4 months

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125
Q

when should infant be able to grasp objects w both hands

A

4 months

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126
Q

when should infant be able to put objects in mouth

A

4 months

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127
Q

when should infant roll from back to front

A

6 months

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128
Q

when should infant hold bottle

A

6 months

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129
Q

when should infant bear full weight on feet

A

7 months

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130
Q

when should infant sit leaning forward on both hands

A

7 months

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131
Q

when should infant be able to move objects from hand to hand

A

7 months

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132
Q

when should an infant be able to sit unsupported

A

8 months

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133
Q

when should infant start using pincer grasp

A

8 months

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134
Q

when should infant be able to pull to a standing position

A

9 months

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135
Q

when should infant have crude pincer grasp.

A

9 mo

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136
Q

when should infant dominant hand be evident

A

9 months

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137
Q

when should infant be able to change from prone to sitting position

A

10 mo

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138
Q

when should infant grasp rattle by its handle

A

10 mo

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139
Q

when should infant be able to walk while holding onto something

A

11 mo

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140
Q

when should infant be able to place object into container

A

11 mo

141
Q

when should infant develop neat pincer grasp

A

11 mo

142
Q

when should infant be able to sit down from standing w/o help

A

12 mo

143
Q

when should infant be able to walk with one hand held

A

12 mo

144
Q

when should infant be able to attempt to build 2 block tower

A

12 mo

145
Q

when should an infant be able to turn pages in a book

A

12 mo

146
Q

according to piaget birth to 2 yrs is what stage

A

sensorimotor stage

147
Q

when does object permanence develop according to Piaget

A

9 mo

148
Q

when will newborn regain birth weight?

A

2nd week of life

149
Q

when does the anterior fontanel close?

A

12-18 months (toddler)

150
Q

toddler age range

A

1-3 years

151
Q

infant age range

A

2 days-1 year

152
Q

how many hrs does a toddler sleep a day

A

15 hrs

153
Q

when does the posterior fontanel close

A

2-3 mo (infant)

154
Q

when should birth weight double

A

4-6 months

155
Q

when does birth weight triple?

A

end of 1st year

156
Q

how much does infant head circumference increase per month in 1st 3 months

A

2 cm per month

157
Q

how much does infant head circumference increase per month in months 4-6

A

1 cm per month

158
Q

young adult age range

A

20-35 yrs old

159
Q

can a pt on bleedng precautions have a rectal temp taken?

A

no

160
Q

a body temp lower than 95 degrees fahrenheit is considered?

A

hypothermia

161
Q

what age do female adolescents stop growing

A

16-17 years old

162
Q

adolescent age range

A

12-20 years

163
Q

when do male adolescents stop growing

A

18-20 years old

164
Q

what nutrients are adolescents deficient in

A

iron
calcium
vitamins A & C

165
Q

1st sign of female puberty

A

appearance of breast buds

166
Q

2nd sign of female puberty

A

pubic hair growth

167
Q

3rd sign of female puberty

A

menstration

168
Q

1st sign of male puberty

A

increase in testes & scrotum size

169
Q

2nd sign of male puberty

A

pubes

170
Q

3rd sign of male puberty

A

rapid genitalia growth

171
Q

4th sign of male puberty

A

armpit hair

172
Q

5th sign of male puberty

A

mustache

173
Q

6th sign of male puberty

A

change in voice

174
Q

age appropriate activities for adolescents

A

video games
music
movies
caring for pet
career training program
reading

175
Q

adolescent immunizations

A

HPV
Hep A & B
measles
mumps
rubella
varicella
seasonal influenza
meningococcal & polio

176
Q

young adult age range

A

20-35 yrs old

177
Q

what age group does physical senses peak

A

young adults

178
Q

what age range do muscles function optimally

A

25-30

179
Q

how to position ear when taking tympanic temp of adult

A

up and back

180
Q

how to position ear when taking tympanic temp of child younger than 3 yrs old

A

down and back

181
Q

can u use electronic ear thermometers for infants 3 months and younger

A

no

182
Q

why cant u use electronic ear thermometers for infants 3 months and younger

A

inaccurate readings

183
Q

which nervous system controls heart rate

A

autonomic

184
Q

which nervous system lowers HR

A

parasympathetic nervous system

185
Q

which nervous system raises HR

A

sympathetic

186
Q

what should u grade an absent pulse

A

0

187
Q

what should u grade a weak pulse

A

1+

188
Q

what should u grade a brisk pulse

A

2+

189
Q

what should u grade an increased/strong pulse

A

3+

190
Q

what should u grade a bounding pulse

A

4+

191
Q

how does hypothermia affect HR

A

slows it down

192
Q

how does digoxin affect HR

A

slows it down

193
Q

how do beta blockers affect HR

A

slows it down

194
Q

how do calcium channel blockers affect HR

A

slows it down

195
Q

how does goes from standing/sitting to lying down affect HR

A

slows it down

196
Q

how does chronic severe pain affect HR

A

slows it down

197
Q

how does hypothyroidism affect HR

A

slows it down

198
Q

how does changing position from lying down to sitting/standing affect HR

A

speeds it up

199
Q

how does epinephrine affect HR

A

speeds it up

200
Q

how does levothyroxine affect HR

A

speeds it up

201
Q

how do beta-adrenergic agonists affect HR

A

speeds it up

202
Q

how does hyperthyroidism affect HR

A

speeds it up

203
Q

how does anemia affect HR

A

speeds it up

204
Q

how does hypoxemia affect HR

A

speeds it up

205
Q

how does hypovolemia affect HR

A

speeds it up

206
Q

how does shock affect HR

A

speeds it up

207
Q

how does heart failure affect HR

A

speeds it up

208
Q

how does hemorrhage affect HR

A

speeds it up

209
Q

injury to which part of the brain decreases resp rate and rhythm

A

brain stem

210
Q

increased resp rate, reg pattern but abnormally deep is called

A

kussmaul respirations

211
Q

which cranial nerves do you test for the head and neck

A

V, VII, XI

212
Q

the trigeminal cranial nerve is what number

A

V

213
Q

what are u assessing when u check cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

A

face for strength and sensation

214
Q

how to assess cranial nerve V motor function

A

have pt clench teeth and palpate masseter, temporal muscles & temporomandibular joint

215
Q

how to test sensory function of cranial nerve V

A

have pt close eyes and touch face gently with wisp of cotton. pt tells u when they feel touch

216
Q

what cranial nerve is the facial nerve

A

cranial nerve VII

217
Q

what does cranial nerve VII assess

A

symmetrical facial movement

218
Q

how to assess cranial nerve VII

A

have pt smile, frown, puff out cheeks, raise eyebrows, close eyes tightly and show teeth

219
Q

how to asses cranial nerve XI

A

place hands on pts shoulders and have them shrug against resistance

220
Q

which cranial nerve is the optic nerve

A

cranial nerve II

221
Q

what does cranial nerve II asses

A

visual acuity and visual fields

222
Q

which cranial nerve is the oculomotor nerve

A

cranial nerve III

223
Q

which cranial nerve is the trochlear nerve

A

cranial nerve IV

224
Q

which cranial nerve is the abducens nerve

A

cranial nerve VI

225
Q

what does cranial nerve VI asses

A

extraocular movements

226
Q

which cranial nerve is the oculomotor nerve

A

cranial nerve III

227
Q

what does cranial nerve III asses

A

pupillary reaction to light

228
Q

what does cranial nerve V asses

A

corneal light reflex

229
Q

what does a thyroid bruit indicate

A

hyperthyroidism

230
Q

test for color blindness

A

ishihara test

231
Q

which cranial nerve is the olfactory nerve

A

cranial nerve 1

232
Q

what does cranial nerve I assess

A

smell

233
Q

what does cranial nerve VIII asses

A

hearing

234
Q

which cranial nerve is the auditory nerve

A

cranial nerve VIII

235
Q

which cranial nerve is the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

cranial nerve IX

236
Q

which cranial nerve is the vagus nerve

A

cranial nerve X

237
Q

what does cranial nerve X assess

A

the mouth for movement of the soft palate & gag reflex

238
Q

what does cranial nerve XII assess

A

the tongue for movement and strength

239
Q

where do u place vibrating fork during rinne test

A

against mastoid bone

240
Q

where do u place vibrating fork during weber test

A

on top of pts head

241
Q

when is optimal time for breast self exams

A

4-7 days after menses begins or right after menstruation ends

242
Q

where are the occipital nodes

A

at the base of the skull

243
Q

where are the postauricular nodes

A

over the mastoid

244
Q

where are the preauricular nodes

A

in front of the ear

245
Q

where are the tonsillar nodes

A

angle of the mandible

246
Q

where are the submandilar nodes

A

along he base of the mandible

247
Q

where are the submental nodes

A

midline under the chin

248
Q

where are the anterior cervicle nodes

A

along the sternocleidomastoid muscle

249
Q

where are the posterior cervicle nodes

A

posterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle

250
Q

where are the supraclavicular nodes

A

above the clavicles

251
Q

what should you have pt do while u palpate thyroid gland

A

sip water

252
Q

how should you evaluate further if pts thyroid gland is enlarged upon palpation

A

auscultate for bruits

253
Q

what are you assessing when you test pts visual acuity

A

distant and near vision

254
Q

what do snellen/rosenbaum charts test

A

distant vision

255
Q

what do eye covers test

A

distant vision
extraocular movements
visual fields

256
Q

what do ishihara test

A

color blindness

257
Q

what do hand held cards test

A

near vision

258
Q

how to test ocular internal structures

A

ophthalmoscope

259
Q

impaired far vision (nearsightedness) is called what

A

myopia

260
Q

what does a snellen chart screen for

A

myopia

261
Q

how far should pt stand from snellen chart

A

20 ft

262
Q

what does the first number in snellen chart results mean? (ex. the “20” in 20/30 vision)

A

distance pt stands from the chart

263
Q

what does the second number in snellen chart results mean? (ex. “30” in 20/30 vision)

A

distance unimpaired vision can read same line clearly

264
Q

impaired near vision (farsightedness) is called what

A

presbyopia

265
Q

what does the rosenbaum eye chart screen for

A

presbyopia

266
Q

how far should rosenbaum eye chart be held away from pts face

A

14 inches

267
Q

which cranial nerves test for extraocular movements (eye coordination)

A

III, IV, VI

268
Q

what is saccade

A

rapid movement of the eyes between fixation points (sharingan ignore this)

269
Q

what does the trochlear (CN IV) do

A

allows your eye to look down, up and back and forth

270
Q

what does the abducens nerve (CN VI) do?

A

controls lateral movement of eye balls

271
Q

what does the oculomotor nerve (CN III) do?

A

helps adjust/coordinate eye position during movement

272
Q

what does the optic nerve (CN II) do?

A

transmits visual information (retina translates light into electrical signal, optic nerve carries info to brain, brain shows images)

273
Q

which cranial nerve does glaucoma effect?

A

optic nerve (CN II)

274
Q

how to asses visual fields?

A

have pt cover one eye and check peripheral vision by having them tell when they see fingers coming in from up, down, temporally and nasally)

275
Q

bulging eyes are called

A

exophthalmos

276
Q

eye crossing is called

A

strabismus

277
Q

what is ptosis

A

eyelid drooping

278
Q

where are the lacrimal glands

A

upper outside of eyelids

279
Q

what is the sclera

A

white of the eye

280
Q

what is conjunctiva

A

inside of eyelids and covers sclera

281
Q

what color will sclera be in pts with dark complexions

A

light yellow with possible brown macules

282
Q

what causes brown spots on sclera

A

melanin

283
Q

cloudy are in eye lens is called

A

cataracts

284
Q

how big should pupils be

A

3-7 mm

285
Q

what does the olfactory nerve (CN I) do

A

controls sense of smell

286
Q

which cranial nerve controls facial expressions

A

facial nerve (CN VII)

287
Q

which cranial nerve controls tears

A

facial nerve (CN VII)

288
Q

which cranial nerve enables swallowing

A

glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

289
Q

what does the auditory/vestibular nerve (CN VIII) control

A

hearing and balance

290
Q

which cranial nerve controls taste

A

glossopharyngeal nerve CN IX)

291
Q

what does the vagus nerve (CN X) do

A

controls parasympathetic nervous system (digestion, HR, BP, mood, speech etc)

292
Q

what does the accessory nerve (CN XI) do

A

controls shoulder/neck muscle movement

293
Q

what does the trigeminal nerve (CN V) do

A

controls jaw muscles (biting, chewing), facial, cheeks and scalp sensations

294
Q

what does the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) do?

A

controls tongue

295
Q

which cranial nerve helps you taste food in the back of your tongue?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve (CN XI)

296
Q

which cranial nerve controls the muscle that lifts the larynx and pharynx to allow swallowing

A

glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

297
Q

which cranial nerve controls the gland that decreases saliva production when you’re done eating

A

glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

298
Q

where is the soft palate

A

muscular, non bony part of mouth roof

299
Q

where is the hard palate

A

bony front part of mouth roof

300
Q

which cranial nerves does the gag reflex test

A

glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) & vagus nerve (CN X)

301
Q

should otoscope speculum be touching the ear canal

A

no

302
Q

how far into ear canal should otoscope speculum be inserted in ear canal

A

1-1.5 cm

303
Q

what color should tympanic membranes be

A

pearly gray

304
Q

how should tympanic membranes look

A

intact, taut and free from tears

305
Q

asian and native american cerumen will look

A

dry

306
Q

what color is moist cerumen

A

light brown to gray

307
Q

which cranial nerve does the whisper test assess

A

auditory nerve (CN VIII)

308
Q

glare intolerance is an expected change with?

A

aging

309
Q

delayed pupillary reaction to light is an expected change with?

A

aging

310
Q

thickening of the tympanic membrane is an expected change with

A

aging

311
Q

loss of high frequency tone hearing is called

A

presbycusis

312
Q

loss of all hearing frequencies is called

A

strial

313
Q

loss of hearing at all frequencies but worse with high frequencies is called

A

cochlear conductive loss

314
Q

how does voice pitch change with aging

A

gets higher

315
Q

where do u auscultate the right middle lobe

A

the axillae

316
Q

how many lobes does the right lung have

A

3

317
Q

how many lobes does the left lung have

A

2

318
Q

how to remember intercostal spaces

A

corresponds with number of the rib above it

319
Q

how to treat gastric dilation with NG tube

A

lavage

320
Q

how to treat active bleeding with NG tube

A

lavage

321
Q

how to treat poison ingestio with NG tube

A

lavage

322
Q

washing out stomach with NG tube is called what

A

lavage

323
Q

preventing GI or esophageal hemorrage with an internal balloon is called what

A

compression

324
Q

what NG tube is used for compression

A

sengstaken-blakemore

325
Q

what NG tube is used for lavage

A

Ewald, Levin, Salem sump

326
Q

what should you review in pts history before inserting NG tube

A

nasal problems
anticoagulant use
previous trauma
history of aspiration

327
Q

what sized catheter tipped syringe should be used. forNG tube

A

30-60 mL

328
Q

what is used to measure gastric secretion acidity

A

pH test strips

329
Q

what postion should pt be in for NG tube placement

A

high fowlers

330
Q

what type of gloves should you wear for NG tube placement

A

clean gloves

331
Q

how should you assess abdomen intraprocedure for NG tube placement

A

ausculate for bowel sounds
palpate for distension, pain and rigidity

332
Q

what should you do if pt vomits during NG tube placement

A

clear airway and provide comfort before continuing

333
Q

what is the expected pH of gastric secretions when u check during NG tube placement

A

4 or less

334
Q

what should you assess gastric secretions for during NG tube placement

A

ph, odor, color, consistency

335
Q

how. do you confirm NG tube placement

A

x-ray

336
Q

can you confirm NG tube placement by injecting air into the tube and auscultating over abdomen

A

no

337
Q

where should you secure NG tube after placement verification

A

the nose

338
Q

how far should you advance the tube NG tube if its not in the stomach

A

1-2 in (2.5-5 cm)

339
Q

should you clamp an NG tube

A

yes

340
Q

should you clamp an NG tube if its connected to a suction device

A

no

341
Q

can nurses delegate measuring NG tube output?

A

yes

342
Q

how long is NG tube therapy meant to be

A

short term

343
Q

how long is gastrostomy or jejunostomy therapy meant to be

A

longer than 6 weeks

344
Q

how are gastrostomy or jejunostomy tubes inserted

A

surgically

345
Q

how long are percutaneous endoscopic gastronomy or jejunostony meant for

A

longer than 6 weeks

346
Q

how are percutaneous endoscopic gastronomy or jejunostomy inserted

A

endoscopically

347
Q

eneteral access tube syringe size

A

30-60 mL

348
Q

what equipment should you have available incase of aspiration during enteral feeding

A

suction equipment