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Level 1/Step 1 > Free 120 > Flashcards

Free 120 Flashcards

1
Q

Sickle Cell Lab values

A
  1. decrease Haptoglobin = intravascular hemolysis (responsible for preventing iron loss and renal damage – acts as an antioxidant)
  2. Increased LDH = intravascular hemolysis
  3. Increase unconjugated bilirubin = pigmented gallstones
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2
Q

1-LP

2-LD b add V

3 is E

4 gets more

A

1-LP = AR type 1 Familial dyslipid-Chylomicron
decrease LPL (cofactor ApoC2) = increased TG = pancreatitis

2-LD b add V = AD type 2 Familial dyslipid-Cholesterol
decrease LDL receptors
b type = increased VLDL
increased cholesterol = xanthomas but in the achilles tendon
Atherosclerosis
corneal arcus

3 is E = AR type 3 Familial dyslipid-Lipoprotein
decrease ApoE = increase remnants in blood
increased cholesterol = xanthomas but in the palms

4 gets more
increased VLDL = increased TG = pancreatitis

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3
Q

TP equation

A

1-a = CI

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4
Q

FP

A

a = significants or probability of making a type 1 error

increase a level = increase statistical significance = more likely to make a type 1 error

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5
Q

TP

A

1-b = power

increase w/ sample size = decrease likelihood of making a type 2 error

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6
Q

MI =

A

decrease CO = increase EDV

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7
Q

Most common cause of viral meningitis in all age groups

A

Enteroviruses =
1. echoviruses
2. coxsackieviruses

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8
Q

reflex functions to maintain blood flow during changes in position (standing, supine, seated)

A

Baro + Stretch receptors = increase in Vagal stimulation

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9
Q

accessory spleens = which origin

A

a thickening of the dorsal mesogastrium

occurs due to an incomplete fusion of mesenchymal buds

spleen initially forms near the urogenital ridge

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10
Q

bilateral parotid gland swelling

fever

malaise

decreased appetite

A

Mumps

Transmission:
1. airborne droplets
2. contaminated saliva
3. respiratory secretions

Disseminates
1. Parotid glands then
2. lacrimal, thyroid, mammary glands, ovaries, testes, pancreas and/or central nervous system

invasion (e.g., facial nerve compression and palsy), systemic signs (e.g., weight loss, fatigue

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11
Q

chronic myelogenous leukemia phil chromosome =

A

a non-receptor tyrosine kinase that has enhanced enzymatic activity =

  1. inhibition of apoptosis
  2. increased baseline mitotic activity
  3. recombination of chromosomal regions between nonhomologous chromosome
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12
Q

Portal triad

A
  1. hepatic artery
  2. Common Bile duct
  3. Portal vein
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13
Q

Pringle maneuver

A

compression of Hepatoduodenal ligament

control bleeding from hepatic inflow source

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14
Q

Infusion rate =

A

Clearance x Steady state concentration

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15
Q

Paracentric chromosomal inversions

A

two breaks in one chromosome to create an intervening segment

If a crossover event occurs within the loop formed, two disproportionate chromosomal segments are produced

a fetus is conceived with either of these two formed chromosomes = at risk for early spontaneous abortions

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16
Q

Amphetamines cause these symptoms via

A

increased synaptic release

inhibited reuptake of biogenic amines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine)

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17
Q

Major basic protein

A

is an eosinophilic protein = host defense against parasites

It is produced in response to IgE antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

Release leads to destruction of pathogens via cytotoxic mechanisms as well as the release of
1. histamine from mast cells + basophils
2. recruitment of neutrophils + macrophages

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18
Q

Keratosis pilaris (KP)

A

keratinized hair follicles that are most commonly found on the extensor surfaces of the arms and thighs

nonpruritic and nonpainful erythematous bumps

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19
Q

absolute polycythemia

A

appropriate increase in RBC mass due to increased EPO stimulation from chronic oxygen desaturation

ex: OSA

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20
Q

lack of cardiac neural crest cell development

A

improper spiraling of the aorticopulmonary septum = persistent truncus arteriosus

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21
Q

cystic artery is a terminal branch of the

A

right hepatic artery

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22
Q

2 weeks of a generalized prodromal symptom complex, including
1. fever
2. exudative pharyngitis
3. tachycardia
4. hypotension
5. diffuse lymphadenopathy
6. Pancytopenia = anemia + leukopenia + thrombocytopenia

A

HIV

a mononucleosis-like syndrome

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23
Q

exposure to naphthylamine (an antioxidant in the rubber industry)

A

urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma

most common malignancy of the bladder, ureter, and renal pelvis

painless hematuria throughout micturition & flank pain

24
Q

Adolescent F

Chest Pain post fever
SOB
Friction rub

A

Coxsackievirus B infection can cause pleurodynia (Bornholm’s disease, Devil’s grip)

fever + flu-like symptoms + painful spasms of the chest and upper abdominal quadrants due to pleural and muscular irritation

Dx = viral culture or PCR and serological testing

pericarditis w/ the development of a pleural friction rub

25
Q

ACEi effects to kidney

A

Increase RBF = decreased blood pressure due to decreased vasoconstrictive effects of ATII

decrease GFR

decrease PCT pressure

26
Q

ambiguous genitalia

increased 17-hydroxyprogesterone

46, XX karyotype

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency = congenital adrenal hyperplasia

27
Q

ambiguous genitalia

HTN

46, XX karyotype

A

11b-hydroxylase deficiency

28
Q

Factor V Leiden

A

Mutation where Protein C can’t do its job –> clots

more common than Protein C deficiency

tx: tPA

29
Q

When will you see deficiency in Protein S

A

Prego

OCPs

30
Q

Increase in Va & VIIIa post warfarin

A

Tranisently at the start of warfarin tx

pt are at a hypercoagualative state due to a decrease in Protein C/S

31
Q

recurrent episodes of muscle weakness that typically develop after certain triggers

1.strenuous exercise (e.g., football)
2. alcohol ingestion
3. dietary changes
4. medication use
5. stress

A

autosomal dominant disorder

mutations in sodium and calcium channel genes = intracellular shifting of serum K+ –> muscular paralysis/weakness

32
Q

symptomatic syringomyelia, we should screen for

A

TRAUMA

33
Q

Tanner Stage 1

A

no hair
flat chest
raised nipple

34
Q

Tanner Stage 2

A

8+
Pubarche = pubic hair

BOYS: testicular enlargement

GIRLS: Thelarche = breast buds
mount forms

35
Q

Tanner Stage 3

A

12+
Coarsen pubic hair

Increase penis size/length

Breast enlarges

36
Q

Tanner Stage 4

A

Spares thigh

Penis width/glands increase

Breast enlarges
areola, mound on mound

37
Q

Tanner Stage 5

A

hair on thigh

penis + testis enlarge

breast contour areola flattens

38
Q

Biopsy reveals diffuse epidermal keratinocyte necrosis with minimal lymphocytic infiltration in the dermis

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)

toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)

39
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer rxn

A

acute, systemic rxn

response (shock sx) to release of bacterial endotoxin-like substance release after initiation of abx

spirochete infections
1. Borrelia = Lyme
2. Treponema
3. Leptospira

40
Q

veins within the portal venous system

A
  1. left gastric –> esophageal
  2. paraumbilical –> small gastric
  3. superior rectal –> middle/inferior rectal
  4. Splenic

IVC is outside PLEASE DO NOT GET THIS WRONG AGAIN

41
Q

A major risk factor for bone loss and the development of osteoporosis is

A
  1. Smoking
  2. malabsorption
  3. malnutrition
  4. anorexia
  5. Rx = anticonvulsants + corticosteroids + PPIs + anticoagulants
42
Q

In a kid

knee pain (referred)

reduced hip range of motion on IR + abduction + flexion

anterior hip tenderness

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

risk factor = obesity

43
Q

postpartum thyroiditis

A

follicular cell damage with lymphocytic infiltration, leading to the release of preformed thyroid hormone

44
Q

Hamartomatous polyps

A

Sx:
1. mild anemia
2. occult blood in his stool

Dx: Biopsy
normal findings for location on histopathologic analysis

  1. smooth muscle hyperplasia (bands of light pink cells)
  2. glandular hypertrophy w/o distorted architecture

Association:
1. Juvenile polyposis syndrome
2. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
3. Cowden syndrome

45
Q

Hyperplasia of glands = serrated appearance on microscopy
left colon = rectosigmoid

A

Hyperplastic polyps

46
Q

neoplastic proliferation of glands

A

Adenomatous polyps

47
Q

Osteoid osteoma

A

Cortex of long bones (femur)

resolves w/ aspirin

radiolucent core (osteoid)

48
Q

Osteoblastoma

A

arises in vertebra

DOES NOT respond to aspirin

49
Q

Osteochondroma

A

EXT1/2 mutation

Cartilage cap

affects growth plate (metaphysis)

50
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

associations: Rb + Pagets + radiation exposure

Destructive mass = sunburst appearance + lifting periosteum (Codman triangle)

51
Q

Giant cell tumor

A

multinucleated giant cells + stromal cells
epiphysis of long bones
soap bubble appearance

52
Q

Ewing Sarcoma

A

poorly differentiated neuroectoderm (PNET)

Onion skin appearance

small, round blue cells = resemble lymphocytes (PAS+)

11;22 translocation

53
Q

Chondroma

A

radiodense core

medulla of small bones of hands + feet

54
Q

Chondrosarcoma

A

medulla = pelvis or central skeleton

Cartilage-forming tumor

55
Q

Incomplete penetrances

A

Trait or condition is SOMETIMES produced

Ex: mainly found in autosomal dominant disorders i.e.: Rb + Osteogenesis imperfecta + BRAC1

Level 1/Step 1 (15 decks)

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