Foundation Flashcards

1
Q

what is the GDC made up of?

A

12 council, 12 lay and 150 support members

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2
Q

what is the job of the GDC?

A
registration
set conduct and standards
assure quality of education
ensure CPD taking place
help pts with complaints
strenghten pt protection
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3
Q

how much CPD must dentists/dcps do?

A

dentist - 250 hours every 5 years

dcp - 150 hours every 5 years - 50 verifiable. Radiology, decontamination, med emergencies

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4
Q

what are the types of misconduct councils?

A
  • serious professional misconduct - dentist

- professional misconduct - dcp

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5
Q

what do the misconduct councils send someone to after?

A

practice committee
interim order committee
no answer

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6
Q

what do the interim order councils do?

A

can impose sanctions immediately

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7
Q

what are the types of practice committees?

A

professional conduct
professional performance
health committee

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8
Q

what is the professional conduct committee?

A

75 fitness to practice panel
independent from council
decide what action to take
= public admonition, postpone judgement, suspensions, erasure

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9
Q

what does the health committee do?

A

does health affect fitness to practice
suspended >12 months
conditions on registration for up to 24 months

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10
Q

what is the professional performance committee?

A

act when performance slips

suspended or conditions on registration

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11
Q

what are the routes of transmission of infection?

A

direct contact
indirect
droplet inhalation
inoculation

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12
Q

what does disinfection do?

A

kills most organisms

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13
Q

what does steralisation do?

A

kills all microorganisms

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14
Q

what are prions?

A

resistant proteins

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15
Q

what is clinical governance?

A

means by which an organisation ensures provision of quality clinical care by making individuals accountable for setting maintaining and monitoring performance standards

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16
Q

how is clinical governance enforced?

A

QA programmes
education and training plans
risk management policies
procedures to identify and remedy poor performance

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17
Q

what are the main topics QA deals with?

A
infection control
health and safety
radiation protection
CPD
quality issues
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18
Q

what is threshold consent?

A

knowledge of basic nature of tx used as defence of battery claim

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19
Q

what is informed consent?

A

knowledge of risks, benefits and alternatives
consent given voluntarily on information recieved
legal requirement
defence to negligence

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20
Q

what is expressed consent?

A

verbal and written expressed consent

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21
Q

what is implied consent?

A

assumption from pts conduct that they consent

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22
Q

who is legally valid to consent?

A

pt contempt
sufficient tx and alternatives knowledge
voluntarily agreed without influence

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23
Q

who is legally incapable of giving consent?

A

<16s
mentally challenged
unconscious pts

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24
Q

what does a breakage of confidentiality lead to?

A

serious professional misconduct

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25
Q

what act does personal data info follow?

A

data protection act

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26
Q

when is disclosure allowed?

A
legal or statutory requirement
ordered to by court
medical grounds
justified in wider public interest
research purposes
identification of missing/deceased person
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27
Q

what acts do confidentiality follow?

A

data protection act 1984, 1998
access to medical records act 1988
access to health records act 1990

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28
Q

what is negligence?

A

the omission to do something which a reasonable man would do or doing something a reasonable man would not do

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29
Q

where does the burden of proof lie?

A

dominant who must prove in every case - duty of care and breach of that duty, causation, harm/injury

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30
Q

what is the bolam test?

A

dentist assessed by standards others of similar experience = if professional opinion agrees = defended

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31
Q

what is hunter v hanley?

A

prove normal practice and that operator did not accept that practice
course taken was one that professional would have taken
if one dentist agrees = defended

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32
Q

what is causation?

A

balance of probabilities - injury more likely caused by dentist

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33
Q

how is harm or injury proved?

A

must show physical harm or injury

34
Q

what are signs of a vaso vagal attack?

A
dizzy or lightheaded
slow pulse rate low BP
pallor or sweating
nausea or vomitting
loss of conscious
35
Q

how is fainting treated?

A

lie flat give oxygen loosen clothing

36
Q

what might cause a faint?

A

postural hypotension
MI
stroke
epilepsy

37
Q

what are signs of a respiratory obstruction?

A

noisy breathing
cant speak
cyanosis

38
Q

how do you treat a resp obstruction if conscious/unconscious?>

A
  • conscious - encourage couch, 5 back slaps, 5 abdo thrusts

- unconscious - ambulance, on back open airway, BLS

39
Q

what are signs of an MI?

A

pale/clamming
nasuea or vomitting
no conscious oloss
weak pulse or BP may fall

40
Q

how do you treat an MI?

A

semi sitting position

O2 and 300mg aspirin

41
Q

what is angina and how is it treated?

A

central chest pain fast pulse

GTN spray

42
Q

what are signs of cardiac arrest?

A
no pulse
rapid loss of conscious 
resp arrest 
cyanosis
grey/cold/clammy
43
Q

how is cardiac arrest treated?

A

CPR 30:2

5-6cm @ rate of 100-120/min

44
Q

what are signs of a CVA?

A
cerebral haemorrhage/thrombosis
cerebral embolism
dizzy/vertigo
nasuea/vomitting
paralysis/speech defects/convulsions/loss of conscious
comfort/hospital
45
Q

what are signs of anaphylaxis?

A
flusing
itchy
wheezing
abdo pain
nausea
cyanosis
cold and clammy
drowsy
rapud weak pulse
46
Q

how do you treat anaphylaxis?

A

O2 and 0.5mL adrenaline

47
Q

what are signs of adrenal insufficiency?

A
anxious stressed irritable
mental confusion
muscle weakness and fatigue
nasuea and vomitting
low bp, rapid weak pulse
48
Q

what is the treatment of adrenal insufficiency?

A

O2

hydrocortisone

49
Q

what is hypoglycaemia and what is the treatment?

A

bg <3mmol
oral and buccal glucose
unconscious - glucagon

50
Q

what is the treatment of epilepsy?

A

oxygen and 10mg midazolam

51
Q

what is the tx of asthma?

A

salbutamol >10 activations

oxygen

52
Q

what is cross infection?

A

microorganisms from person to object causing infection

53
Q

what is cross contamination?

A

may or may not cause infection

54
Q

what is the mode of infection?

A

1 - infectious agent
2 - reservoir - where it reproduces
3 - portal of exit -
4 - mode of transmission - how it moves from one thing to another
5 - portal of exit - entry into host
6 - susceptible host - person who cant resist invading host

55
Q

how is herpes transmitted?

A

cross infection by direct contact with saliva

56
Q

how is hep b transmitted?

A

via percutaneous inoculation/enter via mucous membranes

57
Q

how is HIV transmitted?

A

via inoculation

58
Q

how is MRSA transmitted?

A

infection of wounds

bact lives in moist skin areas, broken skin, in nose/throat

59
Q

how is tuberculosis/pneumonia transmit?

A

aerosol inhalation

sputum/saliva

60
Q

what do water supplies harbour?

A

tops/units

biofilm formation

61
Q

what is the portal of exit?

A

excretion
secretions
droplets
skin

62
Q

what are routes of transmission?

A
direct - herpes/mrsa
indirect - 
inhalation
inoculation
ingestion
intercourse
mother to baby
63
Q

portals of entry?

A

mucous membrane - eyes/mouth
resp
GI
broken skin

64
Q

what are intrinsic risk factors to make a susceptible host?

A

extremes of age
malnourished
weak immune system
lifestyle

65
Q

what are extrinsic risk factors to make a susceptible host?

A

surgery

IV canulation

66
Q

what are the 10 SDCIPs?

A
hand hygiene
resp/cough etiquette
PPE
prevent occupational exposure 
management of fluid spillage
management of equipment
control of environment
safe handling of uniforms
safe waste disposal
pt placement
67
Q

what are the WHO 5 moments of hand hygiene?

A
before pt contact
after pt contact
before aseptic task
after body fluid exposure
after pt contact surroundings
68
Q

what are transient bacteria?

A

superficial layers
passed by contact
removal by hand hygiene
HAI

69
Q

what are resident bacteria?

A
deeper layers in skin
harmless
not easily transformed
may cause infection
resistance to removal
70
Q

what are non antimicrobial soaps?

A

detergent based
removes loosely adhered flora = hands physically clean
reduced microorganisms bc physial action/detergent effect

71
Q

what are antimicrobial soaps?

A

chx, iodine, triclosan
reduced transient and resident bac
residual prolonged effect

72
Q

what are alcohol based hand rubs and gels efefctive agaisnt?

A

antimicrobial soap

73
Q

when do you use antimicrobial soaps?

A

before aseptic task
before contact with immunocompromised
after exposure

74
Q

when do you use non antimicrobial soaps?

A

routine procedures

75
Q

what act is waste removal under?

A

COSHH 1994
environment protection act 1990
health and safety at work 1974

76
Q

what are black stream waste?

A

uncontaminated

77
Q

what is orange stream waste?

A

low risk healthcare

safe by heat disinfection

78
Q

what is yellow stream waste?

A

high risk healthcare incineration

79
Q

what is red stream waste?

A

special waste

reprocessed

80
Q

how do you deal with a blood spillage?

A
contain with paper towels
cl releasing agent 1% 10000ppm
2 mins - wet
5 mins - dry
wash with detergent and dry well