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1st year > Foundation > Flashcards

Foundation Flashcards

1
Q

what is the GDC made up of?

A

12 council, 12 lay and 150 support members

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2
Q

what is the job of the GDC?

A 
registration
set conduct and standards
assure quality of education
ensure CPD taking place
help pts with complaints
strenghten pt protection
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3
Q

how much CPD must dentists/dcps do?

A

dentist - 250 hours every 5 years

dcp - 150 hours every 5 years - 50 verifiable. Radiology, decontamination, med emergencies

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4
Q

what are the types of misconduct councils?

A
  • serious professional misconduct - dentist

- professional misconduct - dcp

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5
Q

what do the misconduct councils send someone to after?

A

practice committee
interim order committee
no answer

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6
Q

what do the interim order councils do?

A

can impose sanctions immediately

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7
Q

what are the types of practice committees?

A

professional conduct
professional performance
health committee

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8
Q

what is the professional conduct committee?

A

75 fitness to practice panel
independent from council
decide what action to take
= public admonition, postpone judgement, suspensions, erasure

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9
Q

what does the health committee do?

A

does health affect fitness to practice
suspended >12 months
conditions on registration for up to 24 months

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10
Q

what is the professional performance committee?

A

act when performance slips

suspended or conditions on registration

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11
Q

what are the routes of transmission of infection?

A

direct contact
indirect
droplet inhalation
inoculation

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12
Q

what does disinfection do?

A

kills most organisms

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13
Q

what does steralisation do?

A

kills all microorganisms

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14
Q

what are prions?

A

resistant proteins

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15
Q

what is clinical governance?

A

means by which an organisation ensures provision of quality clinical care by making individuals accountable for setting maintaining and monitoring performance standards

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16
Q

how is clinical governance enforced?

A

QA programmes
education and training plans
risk management policies
procedures to identify and remedy poor performance

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17
Q

what are the main topics QA deals with?

A 
infection control
health and safety
radiation protection
CPD
quality issues
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18
Q

what is threshold consent?

A

knowledge of basic nature of tx used as defence of battery claim

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19
Q

what is informed consent?

A

knowledge of risks, benefits and alternatives
consent given voluntarily on information recieved
legal requirement
defence to negligence

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20
Q

what is expressed consent?

A

verbal and written expressed consent

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21
Q

what is implied consent?

A

assumption from pts conduct that they consent

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22
Q

who is legally valid to consent?

A

pt contempt
sufficient tx and alternatives knowledge
voluntarily agreed without influence

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23
Q

who is legally incapable of giving consent?

A

<16s
mentally challenged
unconscious pts

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24
Q

what does a breakage of confidentiality lead to?

A

serious professional misconduct

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25
what act does personal data info follow?
data protection act
26
when is disclosure allowed?
``` legal or statutory requirement ordered to by court medical grounds justified in wider public interest research purposes identification of missing/deceased person ```
27
what acts do confidentiality follow?
data protection act 1984, 1998 access to medical records act 1988 access to health records act 1990
28
what is negligence?
the omission to do something which a reasonable man would do or doing something a reasonable man would not do
29
where does the burden of proof lie?
dominant who must prove in every case - duty of care and breach of that duty, causation, harm/injury
30
what is the bolam test?
dentist assessed by standards others of similar experience = if professional opinion agrees = defended
31
what is hunter v hanley?
prove normal practice and that operator did not accept that practice course taken was one that professional would have taken if one dentist agrees = defended
32
what is causation?
balance of probabilities - injury more likely caused by dentist
33
how is harm or injury proved?
must show physical harm or injury
34
what are signs of a vaso vagal attack?
``` dizzy or lightheaded slow pulse rate low BP pallor or sweating nausea or vomitting loss of conscious ```
35
how is fainting treated?
lie flat give oxygen loosen clothing
36
what might cause a faint?
postural hypotension MI stroke epilepsy
37
what are signs of a respiratory obstruction?
noisy breathing cant speak cyanosis
38
how do you treat a resp obstruction if conscious/unconscious?>
- conscious - encourage couch, 5 back slaps, 5 abdo thrusts | - unconscious - ambulance, on back open airway, BLS
39
what are signs of an MI?
pale/clamming nasuea or vomitting no conscious oloss weak pulse or BP may fall
40
how do you treat an MI?
semi sitting position | O2 and 300mg aspirin
41
what is angina and how is it treated?
central chest pain fast pulse | GTN spray
42
what are signs of cardiac arrest?
``` no pulse rapid loss of conscious resp arrest cyanosis grey/cold/clammy ```
43
how is cardiac arrest treated?
CPR 30:2 | 5-6cm @ rate of 100-120/min
44
what are signs of a CVA?
``` cerebral haemorrhage/thrombosis cerebral embolism dizzy/vertigo nasuea/vomitting paralysis/speech defects/convulsions/loss of conscious comfort/hospital ```
45
what are signs of anaphylaxis?
``` flusing itchy wheezing abdo pain nausea cyanosis cold and clammy drowsy rapud weak pulse ```
46
how do you treat anaphylaxis?
O2 and 0.5mL adrenaline
47
what are signs of adrenal insufficiency?
``` anxious stressed irritable mental confusion muscle weakness and fatigue nasuea and vomitting low bp, rapid weak pulse ```
48
what is the treatment of adrenal insufficiency?
O2 | hydrocortisone
49
what is hypoglycaemia and what is the treatment?
bg <3mmol oral and buccal glucose unconscious - glucagon
50
what is the treatment of epilepsy?
oxygen and 10mg midazolam
51
what is the tx of asthma?
salbutamol >10 activations | oxygen
52
what is cross infection?
microorganisms from person to object causing infection
53
what is cross contamination?
may or may not cause infection
54
what is the mode of infection?
1 - infectious agent 2 - reservoir - where it reproduces 3 - portal of exit - 4 - mode of transmission - how it moves from one thing to another 5 - portal of exit - entry into host 6 - susceptible host - person who cant resist invading host
55
how is herpes transmitted?
cross infection by direct contact with saliva
56
how is hep b transmitted?
via percutaneous inoculation/enter via mucous membranes
57
how is HIV transmitted?
via inoculation
58
how is MRSA transmitted?
infection of wounds | bact lives in moist skin areas, broken skin, in nose/throat
59
how is tuberculosis/pneumonia transmit?
aerosol inhalation | sputum/saliva
60
what do water supplies harbour?
tops/units | biofilm formation
61
what is the portal of exit?
excretion secretions droplets skin
62
what are routes of transmission?
``` direct - herpes/mrsa indirect - inhalation inoculation ingestion intercourse mother to baby ```
63
portals of entry?
mucous membrane - eyes/mouth resp GI broken skin
64
what are intrinsic risk factors to make a susceptible host?
extremes of age malnourished weak immune system lifestyle
65
what are extrinsic risk factors to make a susceptible host?
surgery | IV canulation
66
what are the 10 SDCIPs?
``` hand hygiene resp/cough etiquette PPE prevent occupational exposure management of fluid spillage management of equipment control of environment safe handling of uniforms safe waste disposal pt placement ```
67
what are the WHO 5 moments of hand hygiene?
``` before pt contact after pt contact before aseptic task after body fluid exposure after pt contact surroundings ```
68
what are transient bacteria?
superficial layers passed by contact removal by hand hygiene HAI
69
what are resident bacteria?
``` deeper layers in skin harmless not easily transformed may cause infection resistance to removal ```
70
what are non antimicrobial soaps?
detergent based removes loosely adhered flora = hands physically clean reduced microorganisms bc physial action/detergent effect
71
what are antimicrobial soaps?
chx, iodine, triclosan reduced transient and resident bac residual prolonged effect
72
what are alcohol based hand rubs and gels efefctive agaisnt?
antimicrobial soap
73
when do you use antimicrobial soaps?
before aseptic task before contact with immunocompromised after exposure
74
when do you use non antimicrobial soaps?
routine procedures
75
what act is waste removal under?
COSHH 1994 environment protection act 1990 health and safety at work 1974
76
what are black stream waste?
uncontaminated
77
what is orange stream waste?
low risk healthcare | safe by heat disinfection
78
what is yellow stream waste?
high risk healthcare incineration
79
what is red stream waste?
special waste | reprocessed
80
how do you deal with a blood spillage?
``` contain with paper towels cl releasing agent 1% 10000ppm 2 mins - wet 5 mins - dry wash with detergent and dry well ```

1st year (8 decks)

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