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1st year > Biomedical Sciences > Flashcards

Biomedical Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

what is the job of the nucleus?

A

transmit and express genetic info

built from DNA - chromatin

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2
Q

what is PKU?

A

faulty gene - no phenylalanine = quantities are toxic to CNS

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3
Q

what is the job of the mitochondria?

A

aerobic respiration

ATP to energy

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4
Q

what is the job of the ribosomoes?

A

RNA/protein

synthesise proteins

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5
Q

what is the job of the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

smooth - makes lipids, steroids, hormones

rough - protein synthesis

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6
Q

what is the job of the golgi apparatus?

A

stores proteins to be transported

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7
Q

what are lyzosomes?

A

contain enzymes

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8
Q

what are microfilaments and microtubules?

A

cytoskeleton

maintain shape of cell

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9
Q

describe plasma membranes

A

selective barrier
hydrophillic head hydrophobic tail
membrane proteins - immunological, receptor for hormones, enzymes, transport

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10
Q

what is passive transport?
active transport?
bulk transport?

A

lipid diffusion, osmosis
NA K pump
endocytosis exocytosis

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11
Q

what are the phases of mitosis?

A 
interphase
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
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12
Q

what are the phases of meiosis?

A 
prophase 1
metaphase 1
anaphase 1
telophase 1
prophase 2
metaphase 2
anaphase 2
telophase 2
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13
Q

what are the divisions of the nervous system?

A

sensory
motor - voluntary/somatic
involuntary/autonomic - sympathetic/parasympathetc

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14
Q

what are neurones?

neuroglia?

A
  • cells that conduct

- cells that support neurones

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15
Q

what is myelin?

A

produced by schwann cells. Fatty layer around nerve cells - gaps = nodes of ranvier

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16
Q

types of neuroglia?

A
  • astrocytes - blood vessels
  • oligodendorcytes - form myelin
  • microglia - phagocytes
  • ependymal - linin cells
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17
Q

what are the meninges?

A

dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater

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18
Q

what is the circulus arteriosus?

A

supplies o2 and glucose to the brain

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19
Q 
job of the cerebrum?
thalamus?
hypothalamus?
cerebellum?
midbrain?
pons?
medulla oblongata?
A
  • intelligence, memory
  • sensation
  • autonomic NS. linked with pituitary
  • balance and equilibrium
  • visual and auditory reflexes
  • cranial nerves
  • resp/BP/hear rate/circulation
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20
Q

what is CSF?

A

forms in ventricles

protection, maintains pressure, shock absorber, lubrication

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21
Q

how many spinal nerves?

A

31

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22
Q

what do the 31 spinal nerves split into?

A
  • 8 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 sacral
  • 1 coccygeal
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23
Q 
cervical plexus supplies?
brachial?
lumbar?
sacral?
cocygeal?
thoracic nerves?
A
  • head/neck/diaphragm
  • skin/muscles in chest area
  • abdomen/pelvis/ankle/foot
  • pelvis, sciatic nerve
  • cocyx
  • ribs and intercostal muscles
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24
Q

job of nasal cavity?

A

filtrate, warm, humidify, smell

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25
Q

where do the adenoids live?

palatine tonsils?

A

nasopharynx

oropharynx

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26
Q

job of the pharynx?

A

air/foodwar
taste, hearing, protection, speech, swallowing
- facial artery and veins
- vagus/glossopharygeal, sup c plexus

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27
Q

describe the larynx?

A
  • hyaline cartilage - thyroid, cricoids, arytenoids
  • elastic cartilage - epiglottis
    sound, speech, protection, air passage
  • sup/inf laryngeal arteries
  • internal jugular vein
    vagus and sup c plexus
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28
Q

describe the trachea?

A

16- 20 rings of hyaline cartliage
support, bring up mucous, cough, air filter, warm, humidify
thyroid artery and inf thyroid vein
sup c plexus and vagus nerve

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29
Q

describe the bronchi?

A

right - 3 branches, 3 lobes
left - 2 branches, 2 lobes
RL bronchial arteries and veins
vagus and sup c plexus

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30
Q

what are bronchioles?

A

finest branches of bronchi

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31
Q

what are the alveoli?

A

small air sacs, CO2 O2 exchanged here. External respiration

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32
Q

describe how breathing works?

A

active inhalation
passive expiration
pause

negative pressure in thoracic cavity = resp pump

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33
Q

what is elasticity?

compliance?

A

can lung return to norm shape

how much can lung inflate

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34
Q

how many resp cycles per min?

A

15

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35
Q

what is external resp?

internal resp?

A

exchange of gas between alveoli and blood

exchange of gas between blood and body cells

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36
Q

how is co2 excreted?

A

bicarb ions, dissolved in plasma, in erythrocytes

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37
Q

layers of the heart?

A

pericardium
myocardium - muscle
endocardium - smooth blood flow

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38
Q

AV valves of the heart are?

A

R - tricuspid

L - mitral

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39
Q

how is valve backlfow prevented?

A

chordae tendinae

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40
Q

how does heart contraction happen?

A

SA node to AV node = ventricles contract

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41
Q

how many cardiac cycles per min?

A

60-80

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42
Q

what is Blood pressure?

A

pressure blood exerts on walls of vessels

120/80

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43
Q

how is bp controlled?

A

autonomic NS
baroreceptors
chemoreceptors
higher centres in the brain

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44
Q

what is the pulse?

A

distension in an artery wall bc left ventricle contracts

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45
Q

what is blood flow controlled by?

A

autonomic NS

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46
Q

layers of artery?

A

tunica adventitia
tunica media
tunica intima

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47
Q

what are capillaries?

A

connect arterioles to venules

thin walls for passage of water and small molecules

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48
Q

what are veins?

A

return blood at low pressure back to the heart

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49
Q

how do thick vessels recieve blood?

A

vasa vasorum

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50
Q

areas of a kidney?

A

cortex - capsule around kidney
medulla - pyramids
hilum - area of blood and lymph supply
renal pelvis - recieves urine formed

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51
Q

how is urine moved to the ureter?

A

peristalsis

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52
Q

what is the job of a nephron?

A

to form urine
tubule with blind end = bowmans capsule
continues to convoluted tubule, loop of henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct

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53
Q

what happens to blood passing through the kindey?

A

blood to glomerulus if filtrated and returned to normal circulation by renal vein

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54
Q

job of the kidney?

A

urine formation
water balance and urine output
electrolyte imbalance

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55
Q

how is rune formed?

A

selective filtration
selective reabsorption
secretion

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56
Q

composition of urine?

A

96% water

phosphate, ammonia, K, urea, uric acid, creatinine, Na, Cl

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57
Q

direction of urine travel?

A

hilum to bladder to urethrea

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58
Q

how does ingestion happen?

A

salivary glands produce amylase = bolus

bolus moved to oseophagus and peristalisis to somach

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59
Q

phases of swallowing?

A

buccal phase - voluntary. bolus formation
pharyngeal phase - involuntary
oseophageal phase - involuntary. Peristalsis

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60
Q

action of stomach?

A 
store food
produce gastric juice
muscular action 
absorption - water, alcohol, lipid sol drugs
dissolves iron out of food by HCL acid
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61
Q

action of gastric acid?

A 
water - liquify
HCL acid - activates pepsinogen to pepsin = kills microorganisms, bicarb neutralises duodenum
enyme action
intrinsic factor - absorbs vit B12
mucous - protection
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62
Q

phases of gastric secretion?

A

cephalic phase - before food hits stomach
gastric phase - food in stomach
intestinal phase - secretion slows down

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63
Q

what secretes gastric juice?

A

pariteal cells
chief cells
mucous secreting cells

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64
Q

what is pernicious anaemia?

A

reduced intrinsic factor

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65
Q

action of small intestine?

A 
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
movement of food
secretion of intestinal juice
digestion complete
protection from bacteria, lymph
hormones
absorption
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66
Q

action of the pancreas?

A

sodium bicarb
pancreatic juice
exocrine - enzymes
endocrine - hormones, insulin

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67
Q

action of gall bladder?

A

acids - emulsify
pigments faeces
needed for vit k absorption

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68
Q

liver action?

A 
amino acid breakdown
glucose to glycogen 
de saturates fat
heat production
secretes bile
stores vitamins
forms plasma proteins
detoxification
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69
Q

main action of small intestine?

A

digestion and absorption through villi

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70
Q

action of plasma?

cellular component of plasma?

A

carrier medium

erythrocytes, leucocytes, platelets

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71
Q

functions of blood?

A 
gas transport
nutrients to cells
hormone transport
defence mechanisms
haemostatic
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72
Q

composition of plasma?

A 
90% water
electroyltes
nutrients
gases
waste
hormones
plasma proteins
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73
Q

action of water in plasma?

types of plasma proteins?

A

transport - heat dispersal

- albumins, globulins, fibrinogen

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74
Q

action of electrolytes in plasma?

A

buffer, membrane excitability

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75
Q

why is a rbc the shape that it is?

A

increased surface for diffusion
thin = rapid o2 diffusion
felxible = small capillaries

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76
Q

what is a rbc made up of?

A

globin - protein

haem - iron containing complex - carries o2, H, NO, CO`

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77
Q

how are rbc created?

A

erythropoiesis - red bm produces cells
immature cells reach circulation and mature
kidneys regulate this

78
Q

if there is reduced o2 what happens?
inreased o2?
testosterone release?

A

increased kidney function
reduced kideny function
increased erythropoiesis

79
Q

what is a reticulocyte?

A

immature rbc = reduced o2 capacity. 120 day life span

80
Q

where do rbc’s breakdown?

A

spleen
liver
bone mareow

81
Q

where are rbc’s produced?

A

rbm of sternum, ribs, upper ends of long bones

82
Q 
what is nutritional aneamia?
pernicious aneamia?
aplastic anaemia?
renal anaemia?
haemorrhagic anaemia?
haemolytic anaemia?
A
  • iron/folate/vit b12 deficient
  • vit b12 not absorbed
  • bone marrow failure
  • reduced erythropoeitin bc kidney failure
  • loss of lots of blood
  • rupture of rbc’s
83
Q

what is polycythaemia?

A

excess rbc
primary cause - tumour in bone marrow
secondary - reduced o2 = increased erythropoietin
excess = thrombus formation

84
Q

what blood type is the universal recipient?

universal donor?

A

AB

O

85
Q

what is a transfusion reaction?

A

when blood types are incompatible

  • agglutination
  • haemolysis
86
Q

action of WBC’s?

A

phagocytosis
identify cancer cells
cleaning up dead and injured cells

87
Q

types of leucocytes and actions?

A

1 - neutrophils - attracted by chemotaxis, stick to foreign substances, 1st line of defence. Diapedesis, pseudopodia, lysosome
2 - eosinophils - associated with allergic reactions, release toxic granules to kill
3 - basophils - heparin and histamine
4 - agranulocytes 1 - monocytes, 2 - lymphocytes
5 - lymphocytes

88
Q

what is a monocyte?

A

immature macrophage

produced IL 1 - activates t lymphs, increased body temp

89
Q

b lymphocytes are respobsible for what type of immunity?

A

humoral antibody response

activated b lymphs - plasma cells secrete ig’s and memory cells produced

90
Q

action of antibodies?

A

agglutination
antitoxins
lysis
opsonisation

91
Q

what immunity do t lymphs produce?

A

cell mediated immunity

92
Q

action of helper t cells?

t suppresor cells?

A

produce cytokines = promote t lymphs
produce antibodies and t lymphs

regulate t lymph action

93
Q

where t cells mature? and develop further where?

A

thymus gland

lymphatic tissue

94
Q

what about thrombocyte allows it to cause haemostasis?

A

actin and myosin

95
Q

what are the stages of haemostasis?

A

1 vasoconstriction
2 formation of platelet plug
3 coagulation

96
Q

discuss the stages of haemostasis?

A

1 - cut vessel - constricts and produce thromboxanes, platelets adhere to vessel wall and release serotonin

2 - platelets attach to collagen and aggregate to produce ADP which attracts more platelets. Positive feedback creates a temporary seal after 6 mins

3 - blood turns from a liquid to a gel. Thrombin turns fibrinogen to fibrin and a fibrin mesh is formed.

97
Q

what are the types of clotting cascade?

A

intrinsic

extrinsic

98
Q

what is the extrinsic clotting cascade?

A

10 seconds long
tissue damage repair
factor III tissue thromboplastin - released by damaged cells

99
Q

what is the intrinsic clotting cascade?

A

> 10 mins
vessel damage
factor XII haegman factor - comes from circulation. starts when factor XIII contacts exposed collagen

100
Q

how does clot breakdown happen?

A

fibrinolysis

factor x turns plasminogn to plasmin

101
Q

what factors affect the clotting time?

A

Vit K levels - needed for synthesis of clotting factors
thrombocytopenia
haemophilia
drugs - aspirin warfarin

102
Q

what can cause necrosis?

A

radiation therapy
bisphosphonates
spont/result of trauma

103
Q

what are the 5 signs of acute inflammation?

A

rubor - redness - increased vascularity
calor - heat - increased blood flow and cytokines
dolor - pain - stretch bc swelling, bradykinin
tumor - swelling - fluid exudate
functio laesa - loss of function

104
Q

what happens during the acute inflammation period?

A

defence mechanism
brings proteins, cells and fluids to area of damage
breakdown of damaged tissue
remove debris

105
Q

what is in the inflammatory exudate?

A 
immunoglobulins
fibrin
polymorphs
lymphocytes
plasma
mononuclear cells
106
Q

what cells are involved with acute inflammation?

chronic?

A

neutrophils

lymphs, plasma cells, macrophages

107
Q

what are the 3 phases of acute inflammation?

A

initial vascular
increased vascular permeability/exudate forms
cellular phase

108
Q

what happens in the intial inflammation phase?

A

triple response of lewis
- flush - dull red line - cap dilation
- flare - red irreg zone - arterial dilation
- wheal - zone of odeama - fluid exudate
= increased permeability of exudate

109
Q

what happens during vascular permeability and exudate formation phase?

A
  • toxins/physical agents causing necrosis = leakage chem mediators cause swelling = large intracellular gaps = leakage
110
Q

what is the cellular phase?

A

neutrophils migrate to area

111
Q

what are the response times of acute inflammation?

A
  1. immediate - 30-60mins. Histamine release
  2. delayed - 2-3 hours, lasts over 8 hours. Dead neutrophils, bradykinin, complement
  3. immediate but prolonged - >24 hours, direct necrosis of epithelium
112
Q

what is the role of the lymphatic system?

A

limit local oedema

carries antigens to nodes for lymphocyte recognition

113
Q

what are the sequale of acute inflammation?

A

resolution
suppuration
organisation - damage replaced by granulation tissue
chronic inflammation

114
Q

why might chronic inflammation occur?

A 
de novo
progression from acute
repeated episodes of acute
1. resistant infectious organisms
2. microorgans that persist in damaged regions
3. irritant non living foreign objects
4. poss normal tissue
5. unknown
115
Q

features of chronic inflammation?

A

macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells
tissue destruction
fibrous tissue
balance of healing and destruction

116
Q

how do macrophages and lymphocytes accumulate at the wound?

A

recruitement from circulation
local proliferation
prolonged survival

117
Q

what is the role of cytokines?

A

recruit macrophages, stimulate phagocytes

118
Q

how can chronic inflammation appear?

A 
chronic ulcer
chronic abscess cavity
thickening of wall
granulomatous inflammation 
fibrosis
119
Q

sequlae of chronic inflammation?

A

resolution
regeneration
repair

120
Q

what is healing by primary intention?

A

damaged edges in close proximity and minimal damage

  1. inflammation
  2. proliferation
  3. maturation and remodelling
121
Q

discuss the stages of healing by primary intention?

A

1 - haemostasis - clot controls bleeding. Inflammation phase - bacteria and debris removed by phagocytes and cytokines

2- fibroblasts enter wound, angiogenesis - new capillaries. collegen deposition and granulation tissue. epithelialisation, contraction

3- scar tissue replaces fibrous tissue. Rearrangement of collagen, strenghtens. apoptosis - cells not needed.

122
Q

what is healing by secondary intention?

A

ongoing tissue damage, significant tissue loss, edges of wound brought together`

123
Q

describe secondary intention healing?

A

can lead to tissue damage if lasts too long, lasts as long as debris is in wound
epithelial cells proliferate from edges to centre
can last a long time

124
Q

what is fibrosis and what are its effects?

A

scar tissue formed when there is a large loss of tissue

- adhesions, fibrosis, shrinkage

125
Q

what are local factors that affect healing?

A

persisting infection, poor blood supply excessive movement, irradiation, corticosteroids

126
Q

what are systemic factors that affect healing?

A

age, nutritional deficiencies, metabolic diseases, malignancies,systemic drugs

127
Q

how do extractions heal?

A

by secondary intention
wide seperation of wound edges
= large haematoma including mucosa and bone

128
Q

stages of healing after XLA?

A

1 - inflammation - coagulation. PLatelets form platelet plug and attract immune mediators. in the first week granulation tissue forms and bone resorbs at the socket margins
2- fibroblats and ep cells from PDL, bone and g mucosa migrate and regenerate accross the defect.
3 - woven bone is remodelled and cortical/cancellous bone forms. Reduced height of alv bone. Socket obliterated 20-30 weeks post XLA

129
Q

what happens 2 weeks after an XLA?

A

epithelial continuity resumes at 10-14 days. Osteoblasts appear at base of socket. Granulation tissue is replaced by woven bone

130
Q

what happens 4-6 weeks after an XLA?

A

resorption of socket walls. Disappearance of lamina dura

131
Q

what is the non specific immune response?

A

physical/chem/cellular immunity that responds to antigens. 1st time encounter

  • defence at body surface
  • phagocytosis
  • natural antimicrobial substances
  • inflammatory response
132
Q

what is the specific immune response?

A

how body deals with a specific antigen

distinguishes between self and non self cells by MHC

133
Q

what is humoral immunity?

A

antibody mediated

134
Q

how do antibodies protect the body?

A

help immune cells ingest antigens
inactivate toxins
attack bac/viruses
activate complement

135
Q

what are antibodies formed of?

A

glycoproteins - 4 polypeptide chains - 2 long, 2 short

136
Q 
IgA action?
IgD?
IgE?
IgG?
IgM?
A
  • lie in mucous membranes, blood, saliva, breastmilk
  • activates basophils and mast cells
  • immediate allergic reactions
  • secondary antibody response
  • deal with primary encounters
137
Q

what are modes of action of antibodies?

A

agglutination
opsonisation
lysis
antotoxins

138
Q

what are types of complement pathway?

A
  • classical pathway - antibody dependent

- alternative pathway - antibody independent

139
Q

action of complement?

A

opsonisation, chemotaxis, increased phagocytosis, agglutination, lysis, ab formation

140
Q

what is active disease?

passive disease?

A

natural - had disease
artificial - vaccines

natural - mother to baby immunity
artificial - ready made antibodies

141
Q

what is type 1 hypersensitivity?
type 2?
type 3?
type 4?

A
  • imediate IgE release - Anaphylaxis
  • cytotoxic - immediate. antobodies against self cells.
  • immune complex mediated - 4-6 hours. Excessive amounts of complexes/not all cleared away
  • delayed type - 24-48-72 hour onset. Over reaction of T lymphs to antibodies
142
Q

what is acromegaly?

A

excess growth hormone once plates

143
Q

what is gigantism?

A

over production of growth hormone in childhood before long bone epiphysis close

144
Q

what is achondroplasia?

A

most common type of dwarfism. defect in cartilage formation/div of cells at epiphyseal plates

145
Q

what is pituitary dwarfism?

A

growth hormone deficiency

146
Q

what is hyperplasia?

A

increased sixe bc increased cell number

reversible with removal of stimuli

147
Q

what is hypertrophy?

A

increased cell size

response to stimuli bc increased functional activity. physiological or pathological.

148
Q

what is hypoplasia?

A

failure to achieve correct size during development

149
Q

what is aplasia?

A

full failure of development of an organ

150
Q

what is atrophy?

A

partial or complete wasting of part of the body. reduced cell size, increased apoptosis
physiological - disuse of muscle
pathological - result of disease

151
Q

what is a haematoma?

A

tumour like lesion from cells which are normally present, benign and normal differentiation but normal architecture

152
Q

what is a cyst?

A

pathological cavity and fluid

153
Q

what is metaplasia?

A

one cell type turning into another
reversible
response to irritation

154
Q

what is dysplasia?

A

pre malignant state

aberrent differentiation

155
Q

what is neoplasia?

A

genetic alterations = loss of norm control of cell growth

156
Q

how are tumours classified?

A
  • behaviour - benign/malignant

- origin - ep/CT/lymphoid tissue

157
Q

what is a carcinoma?

sarcoma?

A
  • malignant epithelial neoplasm

- connective tissue

158
Q

what is a benign tumour like?

A

slow growing/ non invasive/well defined/differentiated/dont metastasise
problem bc pressure and destruction

159
Q

what is a carcinoma in situ?

A

malignant signs but no invasion/metastasis

160
Q

what are malignant tumours like?

A

rapid growth, invade, poorly defined and differentiated

161
Q

where is a carcinoma more likely? how does it spread? age group?
sarcoma?

A
  • epithelium, lymph spread,, older

- connective tissue, blood spread, younger

162
Q

what is a papilloma?
adenoma?
sqaumous cell carcinoma?
adenocarcinoma?

A
  • non glandular ep
  • glandular
  • non glandular malignant
  • glandular malignant
163
Q

what are benign blood vessel cancers? malignant?

A
  • haemangioma

- angiosarcoma

164
Q 
what are benign fat tumours?
cartilage?
osteoma?
angioma?
fibroma?
A
  • lipoma//liposarcoma
  • chondroma//chondrosarcoma
  • osteoma//osteosarcoma
  • angioma//angiosarcoma
  • fibroma//fibrosarcoma
165
Q

structure shape of benign tumour, malignant?

A
  • benign - sessile, pedunculated, papillary

- malignant - fungating, ulcerated, annular

166
Q

tx of benign tumours? malignant?

A
  • surgical excission, enucleation

- surgery/chemo/radio

167
Q

what are types of carcinogens?

A

chemicals, environmental factors,UV light, ionizing radiation, angiogenic viruses

168
Q

how does metastatic spread happen?

A
  • lymphatic
  • haematogenesis
  • transcoloemic
  • implantation
169
Q

cancers of the oral cavity?

A
  • papilloma - white bc keratin
  • fibroma - benign fibrous
  • SCC - most common primary malignancy metastasis to nodes of neck
  • verroucous carcinoma - form of SCC
  • BCC - sun exposure
  • pleomorphic adenoma - s.gland
  • ameloblastoma
  • lipoma
  • liposarcoma
  • kaposi’s sarcoma
  • osteosarcoma
  • leukaemia
  • lymphoma
  • haemangioma
170
Q

what is the job of the lymphatic circulation?

A 
collects tissue fluid/ maintains fluid balance
plasma proteins into the bloodstream
tissue drainage 
immunity/defence
absorption in small intestine
171
Q

what is in lymph?

A

clear, colourless fluid, no plasma proteins, lymphocytes

172
Q

where does the thoracic duct empty into?

A

right lymphatic duct into subclavian veins

173
Q

what is MALT?

A

mucosa associated lymphoid tissue
collections of lymphoid in GI tract
peyers patches - small intestine
tonsils

174
Q

what is the job of the lymph nodes?

A

filtering
phagocytosing
proliferation of lymphocytes

175
Q

what is reticular and lymphatic tissue?

A

macrophages and lymphocyte

176
Q

what is the job of the spleen?

A

phagocytosis
blood reservoir
termination of RBC’s

177
Q

types of hormones?

A

1- proteins/peptides/modified amino acids

2- steroids

178
Q

posterior section of pituitary gland does?

anterior section?

A
  • nervous tissue - vasopressin/oxycontin

- glandular - trophic/gonadotrophic

179
Q

hypothalamus releases what?

A
  • vasopressin - enhances water absorption

- oxycontin - contraction of uterine smooth muscle

180
Q

what does the ant portion of the pituitary gland produce?

A 
thyroid stimulating - stimulates thyroid
adrenocorticotrophic hormone - cortisol
follicle stimulating - sperm production
lutenising - ovulation/testosterone
prolactin - breast development and milk
181
Q

types of thyroid hormones?

A

thyroxine

triiodothyronine/calcitonin

182
Q

what do thyroid hormones control?

A

mental and physical development
healthy skin/hair
nerve fibre excitability
control of BMR

183
Q

job of calcitonin?

A

reduced blood calcium levels

produced by c cells

184
Q

job of parathyroid gland?

A

parathyroid hormone - regulates the level of calcium + help of calcitonin

185
Q

job of PTH and calcitonin?

A

increased renal calcium re absorption
mobilise calcium from bones
stimulate calcium absorption
inhibits renal absorption

186
Q

job of adrenal cortex?

A

outer layer

corticosteroid production - influence and regulate salt and water balance

187
Q

what is the job of the adrenal medulla?

A

catecholamines - epinephrine

188
Q

cortex produces?

medulla produces?

A
  • mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids, sex hormones

- adrenlaine, noradrenaline

189
Q

pancreas produces?

A

insulin/glucagon

190
Q

endocrine cells?

A

iselts of langerhans

  • alpha = glucagon
  • beta = insulin
  • delta - somatostatin
  • gamma - pancreatic polypeptide
191
Q

thymus job?

pineal gland job?

A
  • T lymphocytes

- melatonin

192
Q

serotonin job?
histamine job?
prostaglandins?
erythropoeitin?

A
  • haemostasis, intestinal secretio
  • mast cells/basophils
  • inflammation, pain production
  • erythropoiesis

1st year (8 decks)

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