Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 1 > Foundation 2023 > Flashcards

Foundation 2023 Flashcards

1
Q

Positive feedback

A

amplify an initial change (increasing strength contractions in birth).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Negative feedback eg BP control

A

Opposes an initial change in a regulated variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MAP?

A

MAP= (SV/3)+Diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CO definition

A

is the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CO equation

A

CO = SV x HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MAP for SVR

A

MAP = CO X SVR

higher BP= higher SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Baroreceptors are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. Which nerves

A

CN IX (carotid, GLOSSO) and CN X (aortic,VAGUS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The vagus nerve in heart? Parasympathetic

which Muscarinic receptors does it bind to?

A

Ach binds to M2. Slows SA node + increase delay to AV node.

Result

decrease in HR, and CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sympathetic nerves does what to the heart?

A

increases rate of firing from SA node, decreases AV node delay

increases force of contraction of myocardium

via noradrenaline acting on B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ANP -
Atrial natriuretic peptide

A

released in response to atrial distension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

BNP -

A

important for heart failure diagnosis. (ventricles)

HF= Pro BNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Radiation -

A

Radiation is the emission of heat energy in the form of electromagnetic waves which can transfer heat upon striking another surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Conduction -

A

transfer of heat between objects in direct contact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Convection -

A

transfer of heat by air or water currents that help to carry heat away from the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Evaporation

A

Evaporation is the process by which a liquid, changes into a gas or vapor when it is heated or exposed to air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The posterior hypothalamus

A

is activated by cold and causes vasoconstriction of skin arterioles, increased muscle tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

anterior hypothalamus

A

activated by warmth and causes vasodilation of skin arterioles, production of sweat, and decreased muscle tone to dissipate heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fever mechanism

A

macrophages –> pyrogens–>prostaglandins –>hypothalamus

Prostaglandins raise heat and increase temp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Saltatory conduction -

A

AP jumps from one node of Ranvier to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is ADH stored?

A

Posterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Peptides and proteins have which 3 things?

A

an amino acid group, side chain and carboxyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Glucose, Sucrose, Glycogen

A

Glucose monosaccharide,

Sucrose is an example of a disaccharide / olygo sach

glycogen polysaccharide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Van der Waals interaction-

A

interaction of electrons in non-polar substances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Strongest to weakest bonds

A

Covalent→ionic→hydrogen→hydrophobic interaction→van der Waals interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

OILRIG

A

loosing electrons = oxidised and is therefore the reducing agent.

What is Oxidised, = reducing agent

gaining electrons = to become more negative so it is being reduced, therefore, it is the oxidising agent.

Reducer= oxidising agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

1st law thermodynamics

A

energy is neither created nor destroyed- energy may be converted from one form to another but the total energy before and after the conversion is the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

2nd law thermodynamics

A

when energy is converted from one form to another, some of this energy becomes unavailable to do work. From this we can infer that no energy transformations are 100% efficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS (T is the temperature in K)

A

The most important change is in free energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  • enthalpy (heat content):
    *
A

enthalpy = H and a change in enthalpy is represented by deta H(ΔH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

entropy

A

is the degree or randomness or disorder entropy is represented by an S and a changed in enthalpy is represented by delta S (ΔS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

An exergonic reaction

A

1) releases heat to the environment,

2) spontaneously

3) No energy source to proceed.

4)EG glucose breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

endergonic reaction,

A

Needs energy

Not spontaneously

synthesis of glucose in photosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Metabolism =

A

catabolism + anabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Catabolism-

A

complex molecules into smaller ones, releases energy e.g. glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Anabolism-

A

Small + Small= Big/complex i.e. gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dna–>RNA–>Protein

A

Transcription then translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

DNA polymerase which direction

A

5’ → 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

mRNA → ribosome (composed of rRNA) → tRNA.

A

rRNA is the structural component of ribosomes;

mRNA carries genetic info from DNA to ribosomes for protein synthesis;

tRNA transports amino acids to ribosomes for protein assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

transfer RNA (tRNA) –

A

tRNA carries A.M from mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

messenger RNA (mRNA) – why does it differ from dna

A

carries the genetic information for protein synthesis

CONTAINS URACIL (NO THYMINE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Enzyme without cofactor is called ?

Enzyme with cofactor is called ?

inactive precursor of an enzyme?

A

Enzyme without cofactor is called apoenzyme

Enzyme with cofactor is called holoenzyme

Zymogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

As you can see allosteric enzymes have a ?

Whereas “simple” non-allosteric enzymes have a ?

A

allosteric = sigmoidal curve. like S shape

non-allosteric simple=hyperbolic curve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

COPD first line and second

A

1st LABA(salmeterol) / LAMA (Tio) +

SABA/SAMA(Ipra)

2nd LABA/LAMA/ICS(beclo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

IL-6 & IL-1, what do they do?

A

induces fever (macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Immune cells bind to which region?

A

Fc region of antibody (Immunogoblin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

IgG enhance?

A

phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cytotoxic T cells do what after surgery?

A

Organ transplant rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Classical pathway activated by which immunoglobulins?

A

IgM/IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

IFN-γ- who is it produced by

and what does it do

activated by who

A

produced by NK, TH1

activated by macrophages

Kill TB virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

anaphylactic shock- which Ig and which white cell

A

IgE/Mast Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

where does Adrenaline treat anaphylactic?

A

alpha adrenergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

IgA where from? what i love

A

Breast / Tears / Saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

B cells do what

A

antibody producing cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

IgA produced by what? think coeliac

A

Plasma cells/ Specialised B cells (Coeliac question)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

IL-8, macon vs bale

A

Chemotaxi for neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Helper T cells (CD4+)

A

MHCII (ANTIGEN PRES. CELLS ONLY IE MACROPHAGES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

IL-1 main source

A

Macrophages

58
Q

T cells produced where and MATURE WHERE?

A

produced in bone marrow and mature

in the thymus gland

59
Q

B cells MATURE where?

A

Bone marrow

60
Q

HIV

A

CD4, Cell surface protein

61
Q

Parasite immunity from which immunoglobulin

A

IgE

62
Q

ACID EGG-T

A

Type 1 Hyper= Anaphylactic (E)
Type 2 Hyper= Cytotoxic (blood issue) G
Type 3 Hyper= Immune complex (Lupus/sirum sickness
extrinsic allergic alveolitis) G
Type 4= Delayed (Contact dermatitis, TB, Metal/oak allergy) T CELLS

63
Q

IgA where? mucous secretions where?

A

GI/Resp Tract

64
Q

IgA shape

A

Dimer/Monomer

65
Q

IgM Shape

A

Pentamer

66
Q

HLA-A3 gene?

A

Haemochromatosis

67
Q

MHII

A

Helper T Cells CD4+

68
Q

Fix comliment which 2 immunoglobulins

A

IgM + IgG

69
Q

IgG can pass what?

A

Pass fetal circulation

70
Q

IgE (adaptive ) binds to what?

A

Mast Cell- then releases anti inflam stuff

71
Q

What does TH1 secrete

A

IL-2

72
Q

Common cold?

A

IL-1

73
Q

IgM, size and what does it activate

A

Pentamer, activates compliment system

74
Q

B Cells- what is their job

A

Antibody production

75
Q

TH-1 secretes what? ashwin

A

cytokine IFN-Gamma

promotes macrophage activation,

cytokine IFN-Gamma regulates TH1-TH2

76
Q

Cytotoxic T Cells- what do they do?

A

Induce Apoptosis

77
Q

Rate of elimination equation (top)

A

Rate of elimination = Clearance x Plasma concentration ​

Clearance = rate at which a drug is removed from the bloodstream

plasma concentration = amount of the drug in bloodstream.

78
Q

Cpss equation

steady state

A

Cpss = maintenance dose rate/clearance

Cpss is the steady-state plasma concentration of a drug in the bloodstream that is achieved when the rate of drug administration equals the rate of drug elimination

79
Q

what happens during pro-inflamittary response:

4 players

A

1) endothelial cells express VCAM and ICAM.

2) TNF, IL-1 cytokines

80
Q

Sensitivity

A

% of people with the disease that have a positive test.

81
Q

Specificity

A

% of people without the disease that have a negative test

82
Q

Positive predictive value

A

% of people with a positive test that have the disease

83
Q

Negative predictive value

A

% of people with a negative test that don’t have the disease

84
Q
  • Case report –

watson

A

looking at disease and symptoms together to find a link. Maybe with Post Mortem.

85
Q
  • Case series -
A

Identifying common stuff between patients

86
Q

Case-control study

A

Comparing

comparing survivors who were sick vs non-survivors

87
Q
  • Prospective cohort study
A

Following

follow disease free people with issues i.e. high cholesterol -

find out over time who get’s disease and who doesn’t

88
Q
  • RCT - gold standard
A

group of people at risk, one half treatment, other half placebo. Double blind - neither patient not researcher know who is getting what. Randomised into groups. Gold standard.

89
Q
  • Systematic reviews and meta-analyses -
A

someone puts together all the existing evidence.

90
Q

Simple squamous epithelium

3 places

HBL

A

heart, blood vessels, lymphatic

91
Q

Simple cuboidal

A

kidneys

92
Q

Simple columnar

A

stomach, intenstines,

93
Q

pseudostratified columnar

A

Upper Resp

including the nasal cavity, trachea, and bronchi.

94
Q

Fibroblasts, what do they make

A

Fibroblasts make connective tissues.

are cells that synthesize and maintain the extracellular matrix.

95
Q

Adipose

A

fat cells, store triglycerides

96
Q

Osteocytes

Osteoblasts

A

Osteocytes: Mature bone cells.

Osteoblasts: Bone-forming cells.

97
Q

Chondrocytes

A

cartilage cells

98
Q

Loose connective tissue -

Dense regular connective tissue -

Dense irregular connective tissue - .

A

Loose connective tissue -organs, blood vessels, and nerves.

Dense regular connective tissue - This type of tissue is found in tendons and ligaments.

Dense irregular connective tissue - This type of tissue is found in the skin.

99
Q

Skeletal muscle -

Smooth muscle -

Cardiac muscle -

A

Skeletal muscle - voluntary, striated, multinucleated, cylindrical cells.

Smooth muscle - no striations, spindle-shaped cells, simple.

Cardiac muscle - less striations, single nucleus, intercalated discs

100
Q

Oligodendrocytes -

Astrocytes -

Microglia -

Schwann cells -

A

Oligodendrocytes: produce myelin in the CNS

Astrocytes- CNS support cells

Microglia: immune surveillance MI5

Schwann cells: produce myelin in the PNS

101
Q

Condyle =

A

Condyle = smooth rounded elevation knee

102
Q

most flexible most likely to dislocate

A

Synovial:

Hinge: Elbow/ knee

Ball and socket: Hip/ shoulder

Pivot: Neck and head

103
Q

Periarticular circulation

A

refers to the blood supply to the tissues surrounding a joint.

104
Q

MITOSIS

A

One diploid parent cell = results in 2 identical diploid daughter cells

105
Q

MEIOSIS

A

The process by which gametes (sex cells) are produced

One diploid parent cell results in 4 haploid daughter cells

106
Q

FISH

A

Uses fluorescent probes that bind to specific DNA sequences

TRISOMY 21/downs

107
Q

Array CGH

A

detect chromosomal imbalances, such as deletions or duplications

108
Q

Down syndrome

A

47 XY + 21

Trisomy 21

109
Q

Miscarriage

A

47 XY + 14

110
Q

Edward syndrome

A

47XY + 18 Trisomy

111
Q

Turner syndrome

A

45 X Monosomy

missing Y/X chromosome

112
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

47 XXY
trisomy

113
Q

neutrophils- how many lobes,

what do granules contain

A

Multi-lobed nucleus
Granules contain lysozome and myeloperoxidase

114
Q

eosinophils-

A

Bi-lobed nucleus

Granules contain chemicals toxic to pathogens

Role

Destroys multicellular parasites - protozoan and helminthic infections

Disease association

Associated with allergy and asthma

RED

115
Q

basophils and Mast cells (M)

how many lobes

what colour

how many granules

A

BB

bilobed nucleus - obscured by blue dyed granules

Mast= Many granules

Basophils= Few granules

116
Q

Dendric Cells

A

use PRRs to detect PAMPs (bad guys)

117
Q

monocytes shape

A

kidney bean

118
Q

Penicillins

3 things

A

Beta-lactam ,

stops wall synthesis

bac static

119
Q

Co-amoxiclav

what makes it

inhibits what and where

A

amoxicillin with clavulanic acid,

which inhibits the action of beta-lactamases.

binds to cell wall.

120
Q

Cephalosporins, inhibits what, and cidal or static?

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis

bactericidal

121
Q

Glycopeptides (vancomycin)

A

end peptide chains

122
Q

Aminoglycosides (gentamicin)

A

stop protein synthesis

30S ribosomes,

bac cidal.

G-ve, coliforms

123
Q

Tetracyclines (doxycycline) -

A

protein synthesis inhibitor

124
Q

Macrolides type 4 hyper

A

type 4 hypersensitivity RELATED TO TB!!!

Macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin) -

lipophilic

intracellular bacteria.

125
Q

what kills intracellular pathogens

A

Doxycycline (tetracycline )

126
Q

What antibiotic must you avoid alcohol with?

A

Metronidazole

127
Q

Gentamicin (aminoglycoside) mechanism

A

protein synthesis

128
Q

First-order kinetics:

A

Reaction rate is directly proportional to the concentration of one reactant.

129
Q

Zero-order kinetics:

A

Reaction rate is independent of the concentration of one reactant.

water comes out of tank at same rate regardless of how much water in tank

130
Q

Sepsis

A

organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection.

131
Q

obstructive FEV1/FVC,

FVC

A

FEV1/FVC reduced

FVC Normal

132
Q

News charts: 5 steps

A

1) Make sure all boxes checked on chart
2) Check low oxygen target STEM
3) Check ‘‘on air or on Oxygen’’
4) Check consciousness in STEM

confusion voice pain unresponsive

133
Q

PBC bile ducts

Probably Blowing Cock

A

intrahepatic bile ducts destruction

134
Q

PSC bile ducts

Probably sucking clit

A

destruction intra and extra hepatic bile ducts

135
Q

Murphy’s sign, no what?

A

acute cholecystitis, no jaundice

136
Q

McBurny’s sign

A

Appendicitis

137
Q

Charcots Triad, investigation

A

ascending cholangitis (RUQ pain, jaundice , fever)

ERCP

138
Q

Terlipressen

A

Prophylactic , suspected variceal bleeding

139
Q

Uncontrolled Oesophageal bleeding- procedure?

A

TIPS

140
Q

Low B12 and Vit D

A

Crohn’s

141
Q

increase ALP and bilirubin =

A

Cholelithiasis

“chole-“ refers to bile or the gallbladder
“-lith-“ means stone
“-iasis” means a pathological condition or diseas

Year 1 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions