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Year 1 > Cardio Resp GI mix > Flashcards

Cardio Resp GI mix Flashcards

1
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome- causes?

A

caused by thrombosis of the hepatic vein:

hepatomegaly,

ascites

abdo pain.

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2
Q

liver metastases

A

history of breast cancer and nodular liver on examination

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3
Q

intraperitoneal organs

A

Some Drunk Japs Invented tequila shots
Stomach
Duodenum
Juojenum
Ilium
Transverse Colon
Sigmoid Colon

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4
Q

Coeliac trunk level

A

T12

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5
Q

Left renal artery level

A

L1

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6
Q

Testicular or ovarian arteries level

A

L2

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7
Q

Inferior mesenteric artery

A

L3

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8
Q

Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

A

L4

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9
Q

Hesselbach triangle

M= R
L= I
I= I

A

Medial= Rectus Abdominis
Lateral= Inferior Epigastric Vessels
Inferior= Inguinal ligament

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10
Q

indirect inguinal hernia

A

deep inguinal ring

and

exits the inguinal canal at the superficial inguinal ring

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11
Q

where would you palpate the trachea?

A

Jugular notch at level of T2

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12
Q

Sternal angle at

A

level of 2nd rib// T4 -T5

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13
Q

Xiphoid process at level …

A

T10

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14
Q

Superior & inferior facets

A

articulate with the heads of the ribs

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15
Q

Costal facets
on transverse processes articulate with the tubercles of

A

the
ribs present on T1 T10

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16
Q

Trachea bifurcates to L&R main bronchi at the point of the
carina

A

T4/5

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17
Q

Larynx becomes trachea at level

A

of C6
vertebra

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18
Q

bucket handle

A

External, internal
and innermost intercostal muscles alter thoracic
dimensions

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19
Q

NVB (intercostal
vein, artery, nerve) runs …

A

in the costal groove

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20
Q

‘C3, 4, 5 keeps the …

A

diaphragm alive’

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21
Q

Phrenic nerve fires

A

diaphragm flattens

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22
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity/cytotoxic

A

Generally Autoimmune conditions

IgM IgG

1) haemolytic anaemia

2) thyroid issue

overactivity of the thyroid gland

3) Goodpasture’s syndrome

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23
Q

Type 3/immune complex
hypersensitivity

A

1)Pneumonitis

IgG against inhaled antigens produced immune complexes formation –>
deposition in lung tissue

2) Lupus

3Local deposition of anti nuclear antibodies in complex with released
chromatin –> complement system activation –> inflammation

3)Serum sickness

antibody against foreign serum –> complex formation –> deposition anywhere in
the body (systemic inflammation)

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24
Q

Type 4/cell
mediated/delayed
type hypersensitivity

A

1) TB

2) IBD

  1. Sarcoidosis

T cell responses
against microbiota/self antigens

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25
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Small <2cm rim of air
Large >2cm rim of air
(measured at level of hilum)

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26
Q

Pneumothorax No SOB and < 2cm

A

No SOB and < 2cm

No treatment as usually spontaneous resolves
Follow up in 2 weeks
4 weeks of CXR to see if resolved

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26
Q

Primary Pneumothorax SOB or >2cm

Secondary Pneumothorax SOB or >2cm with lung disease

A

Primary

Aspiration
If aspiration fails twice

Chest drain

Secondary

Chest drain+admit straight up

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26
Q

Site of aspiration in tension
Ptx

A

2nd intercostal space mid clavicular line

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27
Q

Triangle of safety

A

*The 5th intercostal space (or the inferior nipple)

*The mid axillary line (or the lateral edge of the latissimus dorsi)

*The anterior axillary line (or the lateral edge of the pectoris major

*Insert just above the rib to avoid NV bundled that runs underneath

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28
Q

Excess ADH, name condition:

A

Condition SIADH (Hyponatremia).

Associated: SCLC

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28
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma - produces what? leads to what

A

produce ACTH

lead to cushing’s

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29
Q

Lambert
Eaton syndrome (LEAC)

A

muscle weakness as
antibodies against Ca2+ receptors.

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30
Q

Horner’s syndrome, which tumour

A

Pancoast tumour

-
Miosis = pupil constriction
-
Ptosis = eyelid drooping
-
Anhidrosis= lack of sweating

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31
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia (CAP), which bacteria

A

Strep. Pneumonia

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32
Q

HAP bac

A

Gram -VE

MRSA
H. influenza
Klebsiella

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33
Q

Aspiration pneumonia which bacteria

A

enterococcus

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34
Q

Atypical pneumonia , what caused it

A

Birds/ Chlamydia
psittaci

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35
Q

Pneumocystis
jirovecii

A

GAYS/ FREDDIE MERCURY

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36
Q

Legionella

A

Hot tubs/ Air Con

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37
Q

Mycoplasma (3 points) youth

A

Infects younger people. “Walking pneumonia”

Less severe symptoms e.g. dry cough

PCR test

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38
Q

Mycobaterium tuberculosis bacteria. Cowboy

A

1) Rod shaped bacteria (bacillus).

2) Strict aerobes (require oxygen).

3_ Has a waxy coating

4)
acid fast bacilli

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39
Q

Tuberculosis - 4 things about it

A

1)Granuloma

2) ‘Caseous necrosis’ / cheesy

3) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

4) South Asia/South Africa

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40
Q

Latent TB, ghost

A

Ghon Focus

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41
Q

Miliary TB

A

haematogenous spread throughout the body. Potentially life threatening.

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42
Q

TB prevention and test

A

BCG vaccine/ Mantoux test

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43
Q

Night sweats Weight loss?

A

TB

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44
Q

Test for TB

A

Ziehl Neelson stain

acid fast
bacilli Turns TB bacteria bright
red

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45
Q

Rifampicin

A

= red/orange discolouration of secretions
like urine and tears (red pissing)

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46
Q

Isoniazid

A

= peripheral tingling hands feet

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47
Q

Pyrazinamide tb drug

A

= hyperuricaemia (high uric acid levels)
resulting in gout.

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48
Q

Ethambutol

A

= colour blindness and reduced visual
acuity.

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49
Q

associated with hepatotoxicity? TB drugs

A

R.I.P

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50
Q

Interstitial Lung disease, R or O?

A

Restrictive:

FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) - normal or increased

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51
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.

A

** Amiodarone **

1) finger clubbing .
2) Bi basal fine inspiratory crackles,
3) breathlessness
4) dry cough

HONEYCOMB

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52
Q

HYPERSENSITIVITY PNEUMONITIS Lung

which Hypersensitivity, and what type of person gets smashed by this

A

1) Type 3 Hypersensitivity

2) farmer / birdworker

Chronic low
dose exposure can lead to a type 4 hypersensitivity transformation

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53
Q

Pneumoconioses (J.P)

A

‘Simple’ pneumoconiosis = asymptomatic
‘‘egg shell opacification’’ appearance on CXR at the lung hila.

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54
Q

‘Complicated’ pneumoconiosis (john prescott)

A

the same hilar egg shell opacification on CXR, but with symptoms a productive cough and breathlessness.

(Unlike other ILD where there is a dry cough, the cough with pneumoconiosis may be productive of sputum/mucus).

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55
Q

Sarcoidosis (six)

A
  1. Granulomas
  2. (CtX) bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
  3. erythema nodosum
  4. lupus pernio
  5. Black ladies
  6. Raised serum ACE , raised calcium

RESTRICTIVE

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56
Q

Other extrinsic causes of a restrictive pattern on spirometry

A

Obesity
Kyphosis
Neuromuscular disorders

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57
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system which causes bronchoconstriction and
increases mucus secretion via which receptors?

A

M3

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58
Q

Non Atopic asthma

A

TH1/ IgG

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59
Q

Atopic asthma

A
  1. TH2 Secrete IL4 + IL13 -> B cells -> IgM to IgE
  2. Mast cells + eosinophils express
    receptors for Fc region of IgE
  3. release of
    histamine
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60
Q

Chronic asthma

A
  1. Increased smooth muscle Oedema
  2. Increased mucus secretion
  3. Epithelial damage (exposing sensory nerve endings)
  4. Sub epithelial fibrosis
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61
Q

Peak Flow test Asthma- Obstructive

A

FEV1 - significantly reduced

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62
Q

1st line Asthma

A

SABA (Salbutomol)+ ICS (Beclo)

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63
Q

2nd line Asthma

A

SABA Salbutamol + ICS Beclometasone + LABA Salmeterol

  1. If no response consider
    stopping LABA Salmeterol and increase ICS Beclometasone

2.If some response continue LABA Salmeterol
and increase ICS Beclometasone

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64
Q

3rd line Asthma

A

Add LTRA eg montelukast

or

Xanthines eg Theo

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65
Q

4th line Asthma

A

Add
oral steroid eg prednisalone

and

anti IgE Omalizumab

anti IL5 ?

anti IL4 alpha ?

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66
Q

LABA

A

Salmeterol/ Formoterol

1) Salmeterol Phosphodiesterase breaks down cAMP

2) formoterol binds B-2 receptors, leading to an increase in (cAMP) levels, which activates protein kinase A (PKA).

PKA then phosphorylates specific proteins, resulting in the relaxation of the smooth muscle in the bronchi and bronchioles.

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67
Q

LAMA for COPD

A

Tiotropuim (M3)
Aclindinium
Glycopyrronium

Blocks acetylcholine, Ach causes smooth muscle contraction in the airways

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68
Q

Inhaled ICS

A

Beclometasone,
Budesonide

glucocorticoid binds to GRα and enters the nucleus.

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69
Q

montelukast

A

cysLT1 receptors act competitively at the cysLT1 receptor derived from mast cells and infiltrating inflammatory cells cause smooth muscle contraction mucus secretion and oedema

antagonist .

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70
Q

Beclometasone,
Budesonide side affects (ICS, 2nd line part 2)

A

Oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush)
Dysphonia (hoarse and weak voice)

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71
Q

Asthma mnemonic

A

Acute presentation (O SHITMAn)
●
Oxygen (at least 60%)
●
Salbutamol (neb)
●
Hydrocortisone (IV) OR oral prednisolone
●
Ipratropium (neb)
●
Theophylline (oral)
●
Magnesium sulphate (IV)
●
An anesthetist (to intubate)

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72
Q

Moderate Asthma attack

A

PEF = 50-75%

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73
Q

Severe Asthma attack

A

PEF= 33-50%
Resp rate above 25
Tachy
can’t complete sentences

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74
Q

Life threatening Asthma

A

Silent chest, PEF <33%, cyanosis / blue

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75
Q

Raised CO2 Ashtma

A

Near fatal

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76
Q

COPD ALPHA WHAT

A

alpha 1
antitrypsin deficiency

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77
Q

CHRONIC BRONCHITIS, secretion of what

A

hypersecretion of mucus by goblet cells

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78
Q

EMPHYSEMA

A

Inflammation neutrophils release proteases break down elastin walls of alveoli loss of elastic recoil
abnormally increased compliance

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79
Q

Obstructive lung disease

A

FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) - significanly reduced

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80
Q

EXAMPLE 3 O.L.D’s

A

Asthma
COPD
Bronchiectasis

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81
Q

Restrictive lung disease

A

FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) - normal or increased

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82
Q

EXAMPLE 3 R.L.D’s ,

A

Pulmonary fibrosis
Asbestosis
Sarcoidosis

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83
Q

HRCT for bronchiectasis screening. how to qualify?

A

Anyone with more than 3 exacerbations in 6 months should get
HRCT for bronchiectasis screening.

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84
Q

DLCO decreased or increase in emphysema

A

decrease

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85
Q

COPD home management

A

Oral prednisolone
●
Increase SABA/SAMA
●
Antibiotics if evidence of infection

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86
Q

COPD hospital Management

A

Hospital management
ISOAP
●Ipratropium
● Salbutamol
●Oxygen (target spO2 88 92%
●Amoxicillin (/doxycycline)
●Prednisolone

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87
Q

Virchow’s Triad

ChineSe Eat Humans

A

Hypercoagulable state - malignancy, pregnancy, peripartum period, IBD,
thrombophilia, sepsis.

Circulatory Stasis - LV dysfunction, immobility or paralysis, venous insufficiency
or varicose veins, obesity, pregnancy, venous obstruction from tumour.

Endothelial injury - venous disorders, venous valvular damage, trauma, surgery,
indwelling catheters

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88
Q

PE signs HTH

A

Signs
● Hypoxia
● Tachycardia
● May be hypotensive

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89
Q

PE investigation

A

Wells Score - >4 - do a CTPA. <4 - do a D-Dimer

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90
Q

Test for PE x 2

A

CTPA - can identify a large embolism.

V/Q scan sometimes used in pregnant
patients

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91
Q

PE management

A

High risk / unstable patient- thrombolysis (alteplase) then DOAC (Riva).

Intermediate or low risk / stable patient- DOAC ONLY.

Warfarin - not used as much. LMWH - still used in patients with active cancer and PE. NOT TO GIVE WHEN PREGNANT!!

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92
Q

Primary spontaneous pneumothorax:

A

patients without clinically apparent underlying lung disease

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93
Q

Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax, complication of which underlying lung disease

A

Cf,IPF,Marfan syndrome, Ehlers- Danlos
syndrome

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94
Q

Bronchiolitis, age? and which virus/

A

Under 18 months

tachypnoea
RSV Respiratory Syncytial Virus
● poor feeding
● irritating cough / grunting
● apnoea (in small babies)

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95
Q

Croup which virus

A

Symptoms:

Parainfluenza virus

● barking cough
● stridor
● difficulty breathing (fast onset)
● described as ‘already having a cold’
Treatment:
● oral or IM corticosteroids (eg dexamethasone)

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96
Q

Cystic Fibrosis, stats, gene , which chromosome, and what key indiciator

A

1 in 25

CFTR gene

chromosome 7.
Symptoms:

● salty sweat

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97
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot Boot shaped heart

A

1) VSD
2) RVH
3) Pulmonary stenosis
4)Over riding Aorta

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98
Q

Pneumotaxic center

A

Upper Pons. Fine tunes resp rate

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99
Q

Apneustic centre

A

Lower Pons

voluntary promoting inhalation and prolonging inspiratory duration

Apneusis= respiratory distress

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100
Q

DIVE

A

Dorsal= Inspiratory
Ventral= Expiratory

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101
Q

Negative chronotropic effect

A

Decrease H.R

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102
Q

Negative Inotropic effect

A

Decrease Contractibility

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103
Q

Baroreceptors

A

Aortic Arch + Carotid sinus

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5
Perfectly
104
Q

PR interval

A

Time period between Atrial and Ventricular Deporisation

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105
Q

1st Degree H.B

A

PR more than 0.2 secs

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106
Q

Mobitz type 1 (Wenky’s)

A

Lengthed PR, Missed QRS

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107
Q

Mobitz type 2 HB

A

Fixed PR, missed QRS

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108
Q

3rd degree HB

A

No relationship between PR and QRS

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109
Q

Tunica Intima

A

Endothelial

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110
Q

Tunica Media

A

Smooth

111
Q

Tunica Adventitia

A

Vasorum, Fibroblast, Collagen

112
Q

ductus arteriosus

A

Foetal issue. Pulmonary artery to ascending aorta

113
Q

Foramen Ovale

A

Atrial Septum hole , right to left shunt

114
Q

Life threatening Asthma Co2

A

PaCo2 5.3 (5.1-5.6)

115
Q

Why stems shows COPD over Asthma,

A

Productive cough = COPD
Dry cough = Asthma

116
Q

Pneumonia sputum?

A

Yes, green sometimes

117
Q

Montelukast (scary)- what side effect

A

Nightmares

118
Q

Hyponatremia, which disease

A

SIADH, SCLC

119
Q

hypersensitivity pneumonitis Fibrosis which zone

A

Upper

120
Q

location IPF

A

Lower zone

121
Q

PE signs

A

SOB,chest pain, Tachy, hypoxia, hypertension

122
Q

bronchiectasis main bug

A

H. Influenza

123
Q

HRCT in COPD what terms?

A

3 exacerbations in 6 months

124
Q

Signet ring shows

A

Bronchiectasis/ Recurrent chest infections

125
Q

Acute Asthma attack, which drug

A

Hydrocortisone

126
Q

Chronic drug for mainstay Asthma severe

A

Beclomethasone

127
Q

Mesothelioma signs on xray

A

Pleural thickening like plaques/ lining lungs

128
Q

SIQIIITIII

A

negative deflection (S wave) in lead I

negative deflection (Q wave) in lead III

along with an inverted T wave in lead III.

129
Q

Respiratory Distress syndrome, deficient in what in pre natal

A

Surfactant deficiency Type 2 pneumocytes. Pre natal.

130
Q

Resp tract, which cells

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

131
Q

What is the alcohol score

A

CAGE

132
Q

ACE 3 test

A

cognitive impairement

133
Q

CHA₂DS₂-VASc Score

A

for Atrial Fibrillation Stroke Risk

134
Q

Farmer lung + Lupus

A

type 3 hypersensitivity

135
Q

Hyper resonance percussion

A

Pneumothorax

136
Q

Stony dull percussion

A

Pleural effusion

137
Q

Pressure gradient in lungs

A

Transmural

138
Q

Fine expiratory crackles

A

I.P.F

139
Q

Long Thoratic nerve

A

Serratus anterior muscle

140
Q

COPD with Pneumonia give which drug never?

A

NO ICS! beclo

141
Q

Sail Sign xray

A

Left lower lobe collapse

142
Q

Decrease intra alveolar pressure

A

Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles of inspiration, When contract, increase lung volume , decrease alveolar pressure

143
Q

Drooling and stridor

A

Epiglottits

144
Q

External oblique, putting pockets in hands

A

Inferomedial, external intercostal muscles

145
Q

Haldene effect

A

O2 binds to haemoglobin, causes decrease affinity of haemoglobin to
CO2

146
Q

Product cough, 3 diseases

A

COPD, Pneumonia , Bronchiectasis (dilation and thickening of the bronchial tubes)

147
Q

Bronchiolitis, which bug

A

RSV

148
Q

Right lung anatomy 3 parts (holes)

A

Top= Bronchus
Middle = Pulmonary artery
Lower= Pulmonary Vein

149
Q

Alveolar surface tension

A

Attraction between h20 mol and air fluid interface that produces a force which resists stretching of the lungs

150
Q

Bohr effect

A

o2 Affinity for Haemoglobin decreases as concentration of CO2 / acitidity of blood increases. RIGHT SHIFT in Ox Diss curve

151
Q

The L rule

A

Shifts to L → Lower oxygen delivery, caused by
Low [H+] (alkali solution then)
Low pCO2
Low 2,3-DPG
Low temperature

152
Q

Epiglottitis, which virus?

Croup, which virus?

A

Epiglottitis -H. influenzae B

Croup- Parainfluenza

153
Q

bronchiolitis is caused by …

A

RSV

154
Q

Cystic Fibrosis, which chromosome mutation

A

CFTR gene , chromosome 7

155
Q

COPD leads to increase in which numbers

A

CD8+ T cells

156
Q

COPD patients have increase eosinophilia .but if they don’t

A

If non-eosinophilic, providing an ICS (beclometasone) can increase the risk of pneumonia

157
Q

Bronchiectasis, which pathogen

A

h. influenzae is the most common pathogen for infections

H.INFLUENZA BABY

158
Q

bronchiectasis treatment

A

Clarithromycin 25mg OD,
+
azithromycin 250mg three times a week.

159
Q

Latent TB - which antibiotics

A

R+I for 3 months

or

I alone for 6 months.

160
Q

rhinovirus

A

Common cold

161
Q

dyspnea on exertion, cough, and wheezing

restrictive or obstructive?

A

obstructive lung disease

FEV1/FVC ratio is reduced

162
Q

reduced lung volumes, normal breath sounds, and no wheezing

A

Restrictive lung disease

FEV1/FVC ratio Normal /increased

163
Q

ALT double or more AST =

A

Fatty (check bmi baby) Colin lol

164
Q

AST double or more ALT

A

= Alcohol cause

165
Q

Sensitivity=

A

true positives

166
Q

Specificity=

A

proportion of those who test positive who DO actually have the disease

167
Q

0.6 = exudative which disease

A

Pneomnoia (most common)
TB

168
Q

Unstable angina: rise or no rise troponin

A

no rise in cardiac troponin levels

169
Q

NSTEMI:

A

Dynamic changes in cardiac troponin levels (meaning that they are rising over time).

170
Q

STEMI:, troponin levels

A

significant rise in cardiac troponin levels.

171
Q

mesenteric ischaemia

A

HR irregularly irregular = AF which basically guarantees mesenteric ischaemia being the answer in MCQs,

especially if older + central abdo pain

172
Q

Pernicious anaemia predisposes to ?

A

gastric carcinoma

173
Q

iSOAP COPD

A

i - ipratropium
s - salbutamol
o - oxygen
a - amoxicillin
p - prednisolone

174
Q

Boyle’s law:

A

If you squeeze a balloon, its volume decreases and the pressure inside increases.

175
Q

LaPlace’s law:

A

relationship between the wall tension, pressure, and radius of a spherical structure (e.g., alveolus).

176
Q

Dalton’s law:

A

Air is a mixture of gases, with nitrogen making up about 78% of the total pressure, oxygen making up about 21%, and other gases making up the remaining 1%.

177
Q

Henry’s law:

A

distribution of gases in the body,

178
Q

Bohr effect:

A

Oxygen dissociation curve

179
Q

Haldane effect:

A

when hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen, haemoglobin has a lower affinity for carbon dioxide,

so more carbon dioxide can be carried in the blood.

180
Q

Muscarinic receptors in airway smooth muscle, which M2 or M3

A

M3, airway smooth muscle cause constriction when activated

181
Q

Foetal haemoglobin is comprised of X alpha and Y gamma subunits and has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin. what are x and y?

A

2 and 2

182
Q

Neo-adjuvant treatment is given

A

before surgery to shrink the tumour for surgical removal

183
Q

Adjuvant treatment is given

A

after surgery, aimed at reducing the risk of recurrence

184
Q

Neoplasia

A

is new growth which occurs in the absence of a normal stimulus

185
Q

Proto-oncogenes

A

normal genes that stimulate cell division

186
Q

cancer, these proto-oncogenes are changed to

A

oncogenes which enable uncontrolled cell proliferation

187
Q
  • Point mutations:
A

substitution, deletion or insertion of a single nucleotide base.

188
Q

Missense mutation:

A

results in change of amino acid sequence, can be neutral

189
Q
  • Nonsense mutation:
A

creates new stop codon

most serious

190
Q
  • Silent mutation:
A

no change of amino acid sequence

191
Q
  • Frameshift mutation:
A

nucleotides are added or deleted, causing a shift in the reading frame of the genetic code.

This can lead to altered amino acid sequences or premature termination of the protein.

192
Q

holoenzyme possess a co-factor,

A

which is an associated substance essential for that enzyme’s function.

193
Q

An apoenzyme

A

has no cofactor

194
Q

Glycogenesis (synthesis of glycogen from glucose)

A

Glycogen synthase

195
Q

Glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen to release glucose), which enzyme

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

196
Q

Gluconeogenesis (synthesis of glucose within the body from non-carbohydrate precursors)

A

Fructose 1,6-bisphosphonate

197
Q

Lipogenesis (the metabolic formation of fat)

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

198
Q
  1. The most abundant immunoglobulin found in blood serum
A

IgG

199
Q

2.Found in breast milk, saliva and tears

A

IgA

200
Q
  1. Mediates type I hypersensitivity reactions
A

IgE

201
Q

4.Produced first in the adaptive/humoral immune response

A

IgM

202
Q
  1. Responsible for foetal immune protection
A

IgG

203
Q

Responsible for neonatal immune protection

A

IgA

204
Q

Dominant in the secondary (memory) immune response

A

IgG

205
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with

A

c-MYC

206
Q

Neuroblastoma is associated with

A

n-MYC

207
Q

follicular lymphoma with

type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A

BCL-2

208
Q

pancreatic cancer with

A

RAS gene

209
Q

chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

ABL gene

210
Q

Gel and Coomb’s classification

A

hypersensitivity reactions

211
Q

HPV types

A

16 and 18

212
Q

Purple cocci in clusters, coagulase positive; identified on nasal swab from asymptomatic patient

A

Staphylococcus aureus

213
Q

Purple cocci in chains, undergoes ‘green’ haemolysis on blood agar; identified in sputum sample from patient presenting with cough and fever

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

214
Q

Large pink bacilli; identified in stool sample from patient presenting with bloody diarrhoea

A

Escherichia coli

215
Q

Immunoglobulin with a pentameric shape -

A

IgM

216
Q

kidney-bean shaped nucleus -

A

Neutrophil

217
Q

Responsible for the destruction of large parasites which cannot be phagocytosed -

A

Eosinophil

218
Q

HC class II molecules

A

B Cells, cd4 +

219
Q

activation of the complement system via the classical pathway

A

IgG

220
Q

Sarcodosis which type?

A

Type 4

221
Q

If ΔH is negative (exothermic) and ΔS is positive (increase in entropy), what will reaction be?

A

the reaction will be spontaneous at high temperatures.

222
Q

Cleavage:

A

The rapid division of the zygote

223
Q

Fertilisation:

A

sperm+egg= Gamete

224
Q

Gametogenesis:

A

The process by which haploid gametes (sperm and egg cells) are produced from diploid germ cells through meiosis.

225
Q

Implantation:

A

blastocyst enters uterus and begins to establish a connection with the mother’s blood supply.

226
Q

Gastrulation

A

embryo folds inward to form a three-layered structure, the gastrula.

227
Q

incidence

A

New cases of a disease occurring in a population in a defined time period

228
Q

A microbiology film shows circular organisms arranged into lines. Which genus does this organism belong to?

A

Streptococci

lines= Streptococci

229
Q

Rod-shaped organisms which release exotoxins

A

G Positive Bacili

230
Q

Alpha haemolysis- partial- what colour

A

Partial- Green

231
Q

beta hemolysis, what colour

A

Yellow

232
Q

Rolling: who is involved?

A

White blood cells

233
Q

Margination:

A

white blood cells move closer to the endothelial cells,

234
Q

Pavementing:

A

Once the white blood cells have margined, they begin to attach to the endothelial cells and form a layer that looks like pavement stones.

235
Q

Diapedesis:

A

In the final step, the white blood cells migrate through the vessel wall

236
Q

Fibrous joint:

A

Sutures between the bones of the skull.

237
Q

Primary cartilaginous joint:

A

Epiphyseal plates (growth plates) in children/ ribs and the sternum

238
Q

Secondary cartilaginous joint:

A

Intervertebral discs between the vertebrae/pubic symphysis

239
Q

Hinge type synovial joint:

A

Elbow joint between the humerus, radius, and ulna

240
Q

Saddle type synovial joint:.

A

Carpometacarpal / thumb

241
Q

The midgut is supplied by the

A

superior mesenteric artery

242
Q

foregut supply

A

supplied by the celiac trunk

243
Q

The hindgut is supplied by the

A

inferior mesenteric artery

244
Q

The middle colic artery is a branch of the x, and it supplies the y

A

superior mesenteric artery

transverse colon

245
Q

marginal artery of Drummond is formed what by and supplies what

A

superior

and

inferior mesenteric artery,

it supplies the distal part of the transverse colon and the descending colon

246
Q

Subluxation is

A

reduced area of contact between articular surfaces

247
Q

Which organism commonly causes pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, HIV

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

248
Q

Small PE , stable

A

LMWH

249
Q

Normal/Large PE, unstable

A

thrombolysis (…ASE)+ DOAC i.e. Riva

250
Q

Sarcodosis which type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type 4

251
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma location

A

centrally from major bronchi

hypercalcaemic

252
Q

The “R” in ROME

A

If the pCO2 is high, it suggests respiratory acidosis,

253
Q

The “O” in ROME stands for opposite,

A

if the pH is low (acidotic), the pCO2 is expected to be high, while if the pH is high (alkalotic), the pCO2 is expected to be low.

254
Q

The “M” in ROME stands for metabolic,

A

If the HCO3- level is low, it suggests metabolic acidosis,

while if it is high, it suggests metabolic alkalosis.

255
Q

The “E” in ROME stands for

A

equal, which means that the pH and HCO3- have a direct relationship.

If the pH is low (acidotic), the HCO3- level is expected to be low, while if the pH is high (alkalotic), the HCO3- level is expected to be high.

256
Q

solitary right lung nodule is found adjacent to the right main bronchus.

A

Scamous cell carcinoma

257
Q

Central lung mass

A

Small cell lung cancer

258
Q

Basal and subpleural ground glass appearance

A

IPF

259
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae, positive or negative? cocci or bacillius?

A

Gram-positive cocci

260
Q

legionella positive or negative cocci or bacilli

A

Gram-negative bacilli

261
Q

H. influenzae is a

A

Gram-negative coccobacillus

262
Q

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is found where

A

respiratory epithelium

263
Q

Skin cells? Old ship

A

stratified squamous epithelium

264
Q

epithelium cells within the gastrointestinal tract. stomach

A

simple columnar epithelium

265
Q

Transitional epithelium is also known as. Where?

A

urothelium and is found in the bladder.

266
Q

Klebsiella pneumonia is in alcoholics with a

A

redcurrant jelly sputum

267
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia

A

young people

268
Q

The middle lobe of the right lung stethoscope, where to hear?

A

4th and 6th ribs between the mid-clavicular and mid-axillary lines.

269
Q

HBsAg

A

acute hepatitis B infection/chronic hepatitis B infection

270
Q

HBsAb

A

sAb=safe

271
Q

SIADH Lung issue, which cancner?

A

Small Cell Cancer

272
Q

ACTH

A

Cushing/Lambert Eaton

273
Q

urine antigen test

A

Legionella pneumophila=

legionaire’s disease pnemonia

274
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which disease

A

CF

275
Q

H. influenzae is most common for which chronic disease

A

COPD exacerbation

276
Q

GI tract- in to out

E- everyday
L- Lisa Prepares and
M- Makes Munich
S - Sausages,
M- Mash & Peas,
A- with Gravy

A

Epithelium
Lamina Propria
Muscarlais Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis Propia
Adventicia

277
Q

M3 receptors

M2 receptors

A

M3-contraction or constriction of airway smooth muscle in the lungs,

M2- relaxation of the airway smooth muscle. This relaxation can help to widen the airways, making it easier to breathe.

Year 1 (8 decks)

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