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Anatomy & Physiology 1 > For Final > Flashcards

For Final Flashcards

1
Q

Wolff’s law

A

Bone: every change in form and/or function of bone is followed by a definite change in the internal architecture and external conformation, as it aligns with mathematical laws

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2
Q

this type of bone growth (app or inter) can only occur whil the epiphyseal plate is growing

A

interstitial

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3
Q

interstitial growth bone occurs in

A

occurs at hyaline cartilage of epiphyseal plate, increases length

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4
Q

appositional bone growth occurs in

A

endosteum and `periosteum, puts down new bone, for width

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5
Q

Nerve def

A

bundle of axons, conduct electricity

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6
Q

receptor def

A

special sensory cells that detect stimulus

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7
Q

Nervous system subdivisions

A 
CNS: brain, spinal cord
PNS: nerves, receptors
-> sensory 
->motor
   --> Somatic 
  -->Autonomic
   --->Parasympathetic
   --->sympathetic
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8
Q

Neuroblastoma (what is)

A

most common neural cancer in childhood, <2yo. Endocrine and neural tissue, adrenal gland

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9
Q

describe what these do:

  1. soma (perikaryon) of neuron
  2. Dendrite
  3. Axon
  4. Schwann cell
  5. Axon hillock
  6. telodentrites (axon terminals)
A
  1. soma (perikaryon) of neuron: integration center
  2. Dendrite: receptor
  3. Axon: transmit AP
  4. Schwann cell: insulate axon (myelin) speed up AP
  5. Axon hillock: where electrical current begins
  6. Telodendrites (axon terminals): transmits signal to next cell at the synapse
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10
Q

interneurons are only located in

A

the CNS

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11
Q

list the neuron structural classifications, what are they are base on?

A

Based on the # processes the neuron has

unipolar: 1 attachment to body (sensory neurons)
multipolar: 3 or more attachmt (typical neuron image) 99% of neurons, includes interneurons (anaxonic)
bipolar: to attachment (rare in adults, eyes have)

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12
Q

all sensory neurons are multi, uni or bi polar?

A

unipolar

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13
Q

List the glial cells in the CNS (4)

A
  • astrocytes: blood-brian barrier
  • oligodendrites: form myelin sheaths, speed up AP
  • ependymal cells: produce CSF
  • microgial: immunity, produce Tcells
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14
Q

List the glial cells in the PNS (2)

A
  • satellite cells: many roles, mainly with nutrient flow and waste removal
  • schwann cells: make myelin, speed up AP
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15
Q

ganglion is a

A

collection of cell bodies

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16
Q

Plexus (plexi) def

A

net-like structures formed by interconnecting nerves

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17
Q

any barrier between particles (- and +) that attract each other builds what

A

Potential (energy or the ability to do work)

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18
Q

voltage def

A

difference in charge between two sides

measure of potential energy ( (electrical potential)

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19
Q

electromagnetic gradient (electrical current) def

A

the movement of electrons essentially.

the difference in voltage across membrane (or two other sides), affecting the rate of particles diffusing

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20
Q

Ohms law states that

A

current is directly proportional to the gradient (more difference between two sides, faster the diffusion)
V=IR
voltage=current x resistance

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21
Q

the gradients pulling on a particle are (2)

A

electromagnetic
concentration

if both of these go in the same direction, diffusion happens faster

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22
Q

how do we ensure that AP only travels in one direction?

A

because of hyperpolarization, even if stimulus there, not goint to initiate another AP

Stimulus>depolarization> AP (axon hillock down- down the axon)> efferent neuron (ie: contraction of muscle)

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23
Q

membrane potential definition

A

electrical potential maintained by a plasma membrane

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24
Q

what maintain the resting membrane potential?

A

Na/K pump
RMP: ~ -70mV (K responsible for this)

membrane is somewhat leaky, the Na/K pump compensates for this and maintains the resting potential

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25
Q

Why is RMP measured in negative numbers?

A

because we are measuring the comparison between the inside and the outside (rmp -70mv becuase it is 70mv “less”)

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26
Q

how do we change the polarity of neurons (depolarization)

A

by lowering the resistance of the membrane- by opening the ion channels

open ion channels>dec resistance, inc ion flux> cause electrical current

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27
Q

What are ligand-gated ion channels?

A

channels that open/close when a chemical (NT) binds to it

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28
Q

during depolarization, towards what is the polarity moving?

A

towards 0

gradients tend to want to reach”equilibrium”

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29
Q

how do we repolarize the neurons?

A

K ions flow out of the membrane, repolarizing

however since K is lower to move across, we cause hyperpolarization(NA/K pump reestablishes)

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30
Q

what is the original stimulus for depolarization (causing the AP)?

A

the LIGAND on the channel
the Neurotransmitters

ACh is most common

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31
Q

most comon NT is…

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

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32
Q

impulse def

A

electrical flow in a cell

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33
Q

what are esterases?

A

molecule that deactivates a NT via hydrolysis (to keep it from keeping ion channels open and destroying the cell)

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34
Q

how do voltage gated ion channels work?

A

they open/close in response to the nearby potential– the threshold

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35
Q

threshold for AP

A

-50mv, all or nothing

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36
Q

does more NT mean more ion channels are opened?

A

yes, increased stimulus keep the channels open long enough for the signal to cause the AP

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37
Q

the peak after depolarization means that

A

the sodium that has flowed into the membrane caused a flip in the polarity, making he inside more positive and the outside more negative

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38
Q

continuous propagation def

A

Voltage-gated channels are ligned up along axon, Na diffuses into the next channel, causing an increase until threshold reached- starting the next voltage-gated channel

together along with hyperpolariz, ensures that the AP only travels in one direction

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39
Q

“All or none” rule

A

if you stimulate an axon to threshold, you will have an AP

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40
Q

What is the Refractory Period?

A

time during which the membrane cannot be depolarized (becuase of hyperpolarization) no matter how big the simulus is, no AP can occur

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41
Q

def:
depolarization
repolarization
hyperpolarization

A

depolarization: Na ions in, causing a decrease in polarity inc in potential
repolarizat: Na channels close, K ions open, K out inc polarity
hyperpolarization: caused by K flowing out, polarity switches, more + inside, - outside (AP cannot occur)

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42
Q

Saltatory conduction def

A

APs all-or-nothing, to make them faster, myelin (nonconducting) insulates parts of axon, allowing AP to “jump” areas (nodes of ranvier). essentially keeps all the charge insulated within the axon so it can travel faster.

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43
Q

myelinated neural tissue is ___

A

white matter

grey matter is non-myelinated neural tissue in the CNS

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44
Q

classification of synapses:

A
  1. Interneuronal: neuron to neuron
    -pre and post synaptic
    AxodendriticL most common- between axon terminal and dendrite
  2. Neuromuscular: neuron to muscle
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45
Q

what is the synaptic cleft

A

the fluid filled space between pre and post synaptic neurosn

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46
Q

Parts of the synapse (5)

A
  1. Axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron
  2. synaptic end bulb
  3. synaptic cleft
  4. vesicles of ACh
  5. Post synaptic neuron (postsynaptic membrane with ligand gated channels)
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47
Q

Two types of synapses

A

Chemical synapse: controlled by NT, unidirectional, most common

Electrical synapse: bridge junctions, no control, if one fires they all do, communication in both directions

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48
Q

Steps in chemical synapse (7)

A
  1. AP in presynaptic opens Na in presyn bulb
  2. Na ions flow in causing exocytosis of NT
  3. NT diffuses across cleft
  4. NT binds to ligand-gated receptors on postsynaptic membrane
  5. Opens the Na + K channels on postsyn
  6. Na in, K out, depolarizing the mebrane
  7. Depolariz big enough= AP
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49
Q

what do inhibitory synapses do differently?

A

they only open K channels, so they hyperpolarize the membranes

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50
Q

steps in electrical synapse (4)

A
  1. protein channels interconnect the membranes on neurons
  2. AP on 1st membrane brings Na in
  3. Na diffuses through the channels and depolarizes the other cell
  4. K moves out

Only seen in neurons controlling jerk movements of eye or hormone release by pituitary gland

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51
Q

strength of a stimulus measured by (2)

A
  1. wave summation (faster stim interpreted as more)

2. recruitment: stimulate a bigger area= more receptors recruited

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52
Q

what is a generator potential

A

a stimulus in an area that lacks voltage-gated channels= no AP there but can generate one (body of neurons)

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53
Q

what is a graded potential

A

below threshold stimulus, doesn’t open channels until reaches threshold

in chemically-gated channels at synapse this is called a receptor potential

After the synapse (NT released) is a postsynaptic potential

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54
Q

EPSP

A

exitatory post synaptic potentials

NT opens Na + K channels at once-> AP is generated

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55
Q

IPSP

A

inhibitory post synaptic potential

NT (binding ot receptor proteins) reduces the neurosn ability to cause AP at postsyn neuron (NT affects permeability of K only)

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56
Q

what does synaptic facilitation mean (or entail)

A

neurons receive stimulus from EPSP and IPSP all the time, most kept near threshold so that if needed AP can be generated by only increasing stimulus from E or I by a little

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57
Q

presynaptic inhibition is

A

when the release of an excitatory NT is reduced by the activity of another neuron

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58
Q

Response pathways (3 kinds) ratio of stimulus to outputs

A
  • Divergent: one stimulus, multiple outputs (tripping, hands out)
  • Convergent: multiple stimulus, one output (skin, heat reflex)
  • Reverberating: one stimulus, leading to continued output (can be amplified, positive loop)

these can be serial: for speed
or parallel: slower, but for many things

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59
Q 
Types of processing for our 
 neural pathways (2)
A

Serial: for speed (few synapses)
Parallel: lots of divergence, can take on many things, slow (why a smell can bring memories)

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60
Q

name the common NT classifications overall (3)

A
  1. Amino Acids
  2. monoamines
  3. Peptides (opioids)
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61
Q

List the Amino Acid NT (2)

A
  1. glutamate: in fast excitatory synapses (most common 75%) msg: umami flavor
  2. GABA: in inhibitory synapses,, virtually all cells, sedatives enhance inhib effects of GABA
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62
Q

what were the first man-made molecules that enhance the effects of GABA?

A

Diazepam and Librium

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63
Q

List the Monoamines NT (+ biogenic amines) (4)

A
  1. dopamine: beh, cognintion, voluntary movement, imp in reward process
  2. norepinephrine: adrenaline, inhib and excitatory
  3. histamine: small molec, but responsible for 23 physiological fn
  4. serotonin: appetite, sleep, learning, memory, temp, cardio and endocrine system…etc. LSD mimics its effects
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64
Q

What mimics the effects of serotonin?

A

LSD

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65
Q

too little serotonin in thought to be one cause for ___?

A

depression

serotonin reuptake inhib: zoloft, prozac

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66
Q

List the NT peptides (4)

A
  1. Morphine: most abundant, from poppy seedpods Friedrich Serturner (1817)
  2. Endorphins: second wind, prevent nerve cessl from releasing more pain signals
  3. codeine
  4. hydrocodone
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67
Q

Acetylcholine (ACh)

A

most common NT, excitatory on skeletal muscle, inhib on cardiac muscle

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68
Q

Novel messengers (other NT’s)

A

Nitric oxide: blood vessel health
ATP and ADP
ions ie ZInc

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69
Q

addiction is described in these 2 ways

A

physiological addiction: ie nicotine

emotional-based (likely tied to dopamine release)

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70
Q

Physiological addiction of nicotine: basics

A

crosses blood-brain barrier 10-20 s after inhalation, inc levels of several other NT, esp dopamine leading to pleasure and relaxation

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71
Q

2 types of NT receptors

A

Channel-linked: fast acting
depending on excitatory or inhibitory, it opens channels allowing the ions to flow

G-protein linked: indirect and slow, long lasting.
use secondary messengers (cAMP) to open ion channels
ie dopamine

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72
Q

Neuropathy def

A

damage to the nerves of the peripheral nervous system

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73
Q

Botulinium is what

A

a neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum- it stops the exocytosis of ACh vesicles
Botox has this toxin

74
Q

what is retrograde axonal transport?

A

shuttles molec away from the axon to cell body, the awy that some virus hide from the immune system (hide in neuron bodies)

ex: polio, herpes, tetanus, rabies

75
Q

Multiple Sclerosis short descriptopn

A

autoimmune disease in young adults, destroys myelin sheath. loss of muscle control, visual problems, etc

76
Q

tumors in the CNS are typically in

A

glial cells (as neurons don’t doo mitosis after certain age)

77
Q

grey matter vs white matter in terms of components

A

grey: neuronal cell bodies, mainly in CNS, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, glial cells
white: glial cells with myelinated axons, signals from cerebrum to lower brain centers, fast

78
Q

structures that protect the CNS (3)

A
  • meninges: cover and protect agains infection- dura, arachnoid, pia
  • blood-brain barrier: barrier between circulatory system and the brain, very selective
  • CSF: jelly-like, cushion and nourishes
79
Q

What is meningitis and what is it called if caused by bacteria or virus?

A

inflammation of meninges,

called encephalitis if caused by bacteria virus

80
Q

what makes up the blood-brain barrier BBB?

A
  • Endothelium of capillaries- very selective- doesn’t let many things through
  • thick basal lamina of the capillairies
  • astrocytes - form protective barrier with their shape
81
Q

when in development does the neural tube form?

A

by 4th week. neural plate pinches and forms into a groove until eventually a tube

tube potions

anterior: brain
posterior: spinal cord

82
Q

list the three germ layers of embryo anatomy (out>in)

A

ectoderm
mesoderm
endoderm

83
Q

Adult vesicles include the (4)

A 
Telencephalon
Diencephalon
Mesencephalon (midbrain)
Metencephalon
Myelencephalon
Spinal cord
84
Q

4 adult brain regions

A
  • cerebrum: sensory input, analysis and command
  • diencephalon: sensory from lower regions
  • midbrain + brainstem: control habitual, timed events, alert and consciousness
  • cerebellum: coordinate muscle activities
85
Q

brain VENTRICLES (list)

A 
lateral ventricles 
foramen monro
3rd ventricle
aqueduct of sylius
4th ventrical 
spinal cord
86
Q

Lateral ventricles also connect to the ____ ____, between brain and connective tissue (produces and fills CSF

A

subarachnoid space

87
Q

tract vs nuclei vs commisure

A

tract: similar to nerve, bundle of cells
nuclei: ganglion, collection of cell bodies
commisure: chunk of white matter, info bridge

88
Q

frontal lobe fn

A

control motor output, perceive, communicate and understand

89
Q

posterior lobes fn (occipital, parietal temporal)

A

sensory inputs and other associtns

90
Q

primary motor cortex is the

A

precentral gyrus

91
Q

motor speech cortes is the

A

brocas area on left cerebral hemisphere (speech production)

92
Q

premotor cotex is the

A

right in front of primary motor cortex (right infront of precent gyrus)

93
Q

primary somatosensory cortex is the

A

postcentral gyrus

censations from cutanous and muscular receptors (large areas are lips and hands homunculus man)

94
Q

primary visual cortex is the

A

occipital lobe

does vision

95
Q

primary auditory cortex is the

A

temporal lobe

sound

96
Q

primary olfactory cortex is the

A

temporal lobe

smell

97
Q

primary gustatory cortex

A 
parietal lobe (close to temporal) 
taste
98
Q

Prefrontal cortex fn

A

personality, decision making, social behavior, abstract though, learning
(anterior part of frontal lobe)

99
Q

Wernickes area fn

A

complex speech and language (in frontal lobe)

100
Q

sensory association areas fn

A

perpections, knows whether sound is noise, music or other, associates words with what they are

101
Q

Gnostic area fn

A

forms thought (in parietal lobe)

102
Q

what is agnostia

A

clinical inability to process sensory information, cant recog person, sound shapes etc

103
Q

what is aphasia

A

damage to brain in brocas or wernickes, communication problems

104
Q

corpus callosum fn

A

communication between hemispheres

105
Q

basal ganglia (cerebral nuclei) fn

A

control subconcious movement of skeletal muscle, ie moving hands while speaking

106
Q

amygdala fn

A

memory and emotional reactions (part of lymbic system) in temporal lobes

107
Q

short description of Parkinsons

A

reduced dopamine secretion, basal ganglia in cerebellum most affected, leading to tremors, rigidity slow and instablity

Pallidotomy: destroy the globus pallidus (a basal nucleus)

108
Q

short description of epilepsy

A

cerebral cortical nerurons misfire= seizures, prevent brain form interpreting and processing incoming sensory signals and from controlling muscles- instablity

109
Q

epithalamus fn

A

connect to emotioanl brain, secrete melatonin: sleep/wake cycle

pinneal gland

110
Q

thalamus fn

A

mediates sensory and motor input, communicates with amygdala

111
Q

hypothalamus fn

A

makes hormones for homeostasis, visual relay (optic chiasm), olfactory relay (mammillary body)

112
Q

Midbrain fn

A

sirual and auditory reflexes

corpora quadrigemina

113
Q

pons fn

A

relay for higher brain centers and spinal cord

114
Q

medulla oblongata fn

A
  1. cardiovascular center: heart rate
  2. respiratory center: rate and depth of breath
  3. other centers: coughing, sneezing, swallowing
115
Q

Cerebellum major fn

A

responsible for timing and coordination of body’s response of sensory input

116
Q

Limbic system where and what does it do

A

emotional (affective) brain
parts of cerebral hemispheres + diencephalon
fn: how we feel about things (anger, pleasure, sorrow, etc. ) some memory esp associated with emotional response which is why high emotional states cause physical problems

117
Q

Hippocampus fn

A

convert short term to long term memory, spatial navifation

118
Q

short description of Alzheimer’s

A

60-70% of demential cases (3million cases per year)

chronic neurodegenerative disease, slow then progressing

119
Q

Reticular formation what and where

A

filters sensory input, has fibers that arouse brain as a whole
this is why we can filter out most things (ie noise, unconsiously records)
LSD takes away this “filter” why people have hallucinations , they are simply seeing ALL sensory inputs

120
Q

concussion vs contusion

A

concussion: shaking,
contusion: bruising, more pronounced damage

121
Q

Short description of

  • Stroke
  • cerebral palsy
A

Stroke: CVA blocked blood flow, leads to tissue damage death (irreversible as neurons cant do mitosis)

cerebral palsy: neuromuscular disability (motor impariment), paralysis as result of brain damage caues infections, teratogens

122
Q

CVA kinds ischemic vs hemorrhagic

A

ischemic: narrow of vesicles, blood clot
hemorrhagic: ruptured vessels, bleeding into brain

123
Q

What portion of the spinal cord does Polio affect?

A

destroys the anterior horn motor neurons

can lead to paralysis

124
Q

what integration occurs in the spinal cord?

A

reflexes

125
Q

ascending vs descending tracts of the spinal cord

A

ascending: sensory input
descending: motor output

126
Q

Ascending spinal tracts (3)

A
  1. lateral and anterior spinothalamic: pain, pressure temp
  2. anterior and posterior spinocerebellar: bodyparts location, movent coordination
  3. dorsal column: sensory kinesthetic ie fine touch, two point discrimmincation
127
Q

Descending spinal tracts (2)

A
  1. corticospinal (pyramidal) voluntary movement, primary somatic control
  2. extrapyramidal: many fn
128
Q

flaccid paralysis is

A

damate to ventral root on spinal cord
loss of neural input to muscles (control and tone lost)
includes para and quadriplegia

129
Q

spastic quadriplegia

A

associated with severe cerebral palsy

spasticity (continuous contraction)

130
Q

ALS (amyotrophyc lateral sclerosis) is

A

progressive destruction of anterior horn and pyramidal tracts
loss of speech, swallowing, breathing

genetic base

131
Q

Spina bifida

A

incomplete formation of spinal arches, bulging of meninges

linked to maternal intake of folic acid

132
Q

sensory receptors:
transduction
sensation
perception

A

transduction: stimulus generating AP
sensation: is the awaress of stimuli (ie touch)
perception: CNS’s interpretation of meaning of stimulus (ie pain)

133
Q

Receptor locations:

  • exteroceptors
  • interoceptors
  • propioceptors
A
  • exteroceptors: stimuli near body surface, touch, pain, pressure, temp
  • interoceptors: w/in body, monitor internal envrmt blood vessels, pH, glucose levels, etc
  • proprioceptors: monitor position of body parts, skeletal muscle, ligaments
134
Q 
Stimulus types:
mechanoreceptors
thermoreceptors 
photoreceptors
chemoreceptors
nociceptors
A
  • mechanoreceptors: touch, pressure ie hair cells
  • thermoreceptors: change in temp
  • photoreceptors: impulse generated by light energy stimuli
  • chemoreceptors: change in chemical concentration (taste, smell)
  • nociceptors: by stimuli that can potentially cause harm (Pain)

too much of any=pain

135
Q

Prostaglandins are

A

inflammation hormones

136
Q

why do people having a heart attach feel pain in left arm?

A

bc fibers share track in left arm, referred pain, misinterpreted as coming from the arm

137
Q

light touch receptors in deep layer of the epidermis called

A

Merkel’s disks (free simple receptor)

138
Q

receptors that detect hair bending

A

Root hair plexus (intertwined in hair follicles)

139
Q

Tonic receptors vs phasic receptors

A

tonic: slow adaptors, Pain receptors (joint capsule, muscles)
phasic: fast acting, look for rapid change in stimulus

140
Q

Meissner’s corpuscle is

A

tactile disks, rapid (epidermis) mechanoreceptor

Light touch

141
Q

Ruffini corpuscle is

A

mechanoreceprtor (in cutaneous tissue)

deep pressure

142
Q

Pancinian corpuscle is

A

mechanoreceptor (dermis, deeper)

vibration and pressure

143
Q

simple receptor are

A

modified dendritic endings

free: unencapsulated (merkel’s disks)
complex: encapsulated (ruffini and pancinian)

144
Q

CNS gives us a thought based on 4 things:

A
  1. modality: type of stimulus
  2. location
  3. duration
    4 intensity
145
Q

which type of receptors do not adapt?

A

propioreceptors. you always know where your body parts are

146
Q

nerve bodies forming the DRG are

A

afferent neurons

147
Q

I. olfactory tract fn

A

smell

148
Q

II. optic nerve fn

A

vision

149
Q

III. oculomotor nerve fn

A

eyelid and eyeball movement

150
Q

IV. trochelar nerve fn

A

eyeball movement

151
Q

V. trigeminal nerve fn

A

face + mouth senses pain and touch

chewing

152
Q

VI. abducens

A

lateral movement

153
Q

VII. facial

A

facial expressions and taste

154
Q

VIII. vestibulocochlear

A

hearing, equilibrium sensation

155
Q

IX. glossoppharyngeal

A

sense blood pressure, taste

156
Q

X. vagus

A

slows heart rate, peristalsis, respiratory rate

157
Q

XI. accessory

A

swallowing

158
Q

XII. hypoglossal

A

tongue movements

159
Q 
how many nerves in each? (31 total)
cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacral
coccygeal
A
  • cervical: 8
  • thoracic: 12
  • lumbar: 5
  • sacral: 5
  • coccygeal: 1
160
Q

Cervical plexus nerves

A

Phrenic: control breading innervates diaphragm

161
Q

brachial plexus nerves (5)

A
  • axillary: innervate deltoid, shoulder sensation and adduction
  • musculocutaneous: innervate at biceps, forearm sensation, flex and supinate elbow
  • Median: move thumb, flex everything below elbow
  • radial: extend joints below shoulder, supination
  • unlar: flex everything below elbow
162
Q

lumbar plexus nerves (2)

A
  • femoral: flex hip extend knee

- obturator: thigh sensation, through os coxae

163
Q

sacral plexus nerves (4)

A
  • sciatic: flex knee, plantar flexion
  • common peroneal
  • saphenous
  • tibial
164
Q

two common causes of sciatica

A

spinal stenosis: narrowing of space between spine

piriformis syndrome: from compression on sciatic nerve around piriformis muscle

165
Q

what are dermatomes?

A

the areas of skin innervated by cutaneous branches of individual spinal nerves.

all spinal nerves except C1 have dermatomes.

166
Q

Define a reflex

A

rapid, predictable motor response to stimulus (involuntary) can be learned

167
Q

monosynaptic vs polysynaptic reflex

A

mono: direct synapse afferent and efferent
poly: cascade, involving interneurons

168
Q

contralateral vs ipsilateral reflex

A

contra: reflex occurs opposite side of the stimulus
ipsi: reflex on the same side as stimulus

169
Q

Somatic reflexes 7 (the list we learned for lab)

A

spinal: patellar, biceps, triceps, achilles, plantar (babinski sign)
cranial: corneal, gag

pupillary (autonomic)

170
Q

what maintains muscle tone, to prevent overstretching?

A

propioreceptors (also in tendons and ligaments)

to know where your limbs are at all times

171
Q

stretch reflex is

A

a muscle contraction in response to a muscle stretching (monosynaptic)

172
Q

an example of a deep tendon reflex is

A

the knee jerk

173
Q

golgi tendon reflex is

A

protecting a tendon from tearing, opposite stretch reflex, muscle relaxes in response to stretching

174
Q

flexor reflec is

A

withdrawal reflex, the most common used to protect the body from damage (hot stove hand withdrawal)
polysynaptic, ipsilateral

175
Q

cross extensor reflexes are

A

where the motor neurons are activated along with flexor reflex to stabilize the body after a stimulus. ie step on a nail, your hand goes out to grasp to a wall, you step back with the other foot.

176
Q

neuralgia vs neuritis

A

neueralgia: sharp, spasm-like pain on nerve(s)
neuritis: inflamm of nerve

177
Q

these viruses infect the dorsal root of spinal nerves

A

shingles, herpes, chicken pox

178
Q

Motor neurons use which NT?

A

only ACh

179
Q

Cholinergic receptors:
nicotinic
muscarinic
adrenergic

A
  • nicotinic: nicotine binds
  • muscarinic: Ach binding, exitatory in most cases (inhib to cardiac muscle)
  • adrenergic: bind norepineph or eponephrine (alpa and beta) inhib and exitat
180
Q

contains about 90% preganglionic parasympathetic fibers, affect almost all visceral organs in thorax and abdominal cavities

A

the vagus nerve

181
Q

hypertension is often caused by an oversitmulation the ___ nervous sytem

A

sympathetic

Anatomy & Physiology 1 (13 decks)

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