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Flight > Flight Operations > Flashcards

Flight Operations Flashcards

1
Q

How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?

A

The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS outlet or other FAA facility upon landing.

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2
Q

For information about parachute jumping and glider operations refer to

A

the Chart Supplement.

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3
Q

FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by

A

ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

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4
Q

FAA advisory circulars for airmen, airspace, and air traffic and general operations.

A

Airmen: 60
Airspace: 70
Air traffic and general operations: 90

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5
Q

What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)?

A

Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMS.

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6
Q

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

A

prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

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7
Q

During the pre-flight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight.

A

The pilot in command.

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8
Q

How should an aircraft pre-flight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

A

Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.

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9
Q

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

A

fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

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10
Q

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

A

improved engine performance.

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11
Q

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?

A

In the event engine-driven pump fails.

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12
Q

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

A

Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

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13
Q

Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot

A

be at the controls in the cockpit.

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14
Q

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would

A

experience avionics equipment failure. But no engine failure.

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15
Q

If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine

A

cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

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16
Q

If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the engine

A

could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder.

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17
Q

Constant speed propeller

A

allows pilot to select blade angle for most efficient performance.

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18
Q

How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

A

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

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19
Q

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

A

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

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20
Q

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

A

decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

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21
Q

When you adjust the fuel/air ratio with the mixture control for a change of altitude, the ratio you are changing is the

A

weight of fuel to the weight of air.

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22
Q

Favorable conditions to Carb ice

A

20 degrees F - 70 degrees F and high humidity.

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23
Q

First indication of Carb ice

A

Loss of RPM

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24
Q

Applying Carb heat causes

A

decreased engine performance and a richer fuel/air mixture.

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25
Q

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the

A

difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

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26
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures will

A

cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

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27
Q

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

A

too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

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28
Q

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

A

the circulation of lubricating oil.

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29
Q

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

A

the oil level being too low.

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30
Q

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

A

Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

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31
Q

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

A

Enrichen the fuel mixture.

32
Q

Detonation during climbout

A

lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.

33
Q

Pre-ignition

A

Uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal spark ignition.

34
Q

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

A

the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

35
Q

Emergency requires downwind landing

A
  • faster ground speed
  • longer ground roll
  • overshooting your desired touchdown point
36
Q

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to

A

immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.

37
Q

Variations in glide speed in emergency approach

A

nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.

38
Q

Fundamentals of maneuvering

A
  • Straight and level flight
  • Turns
  • Climbs
  • Descents
39
Q

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

A

longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.

40
Q

Aircraft on collision course

A

provides no apparent relative motion.

41
Q

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

A

Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.

42
Q

What effect does haze have on eyesight?

A

All traffic or terrain appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

43
Q

Near midair collision is at least

A

500’ or less to another aircraft.

44
Q

Hypoxia

A

A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.

45
Q

Hyperventilation

A

Rapid or extra deep breathing.

46
Q

Carbon monoxide poisoning can cause

A

loss of muscular power.

47
Q

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

A

altitude increases.

48
Q

Spatial disorientation

A

temporary confusion from misleading sensory information.

49
Q

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

A

visual cues are taken away, as they are in IMC

50
Q

During which phase of flight is a pilot at increased odds of experiencing a somatogravic illusion

A

Takeoff

51
Q

VASI

A

Visual Approach Slope Indicator

Red over white you’re all right

52
Q

Red over white you’re all right

A

On the glide slope.

53
Q

White over white you’ll fly all night

A

Above the glide slope.

54
Q

Red over red you’re dead

A

Below the glide slope.

55
Q

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glide path of the VASI?

A

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

56
Q

PAPI

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator

57
Q

A slightly high glide slope indication from PAPI

A

3 white lights and 1 red light.

58
Q

A slightly low glide slope indication from PAPI

A

1 white light and 3 red lights.

59
Q

Too high glide slope indication from PAPI

A

4 white lights.

60
Q

Too low glide slope indication from PAPI

A

4 red lights.

61
Q

On glide slope indication from PAPI

A

2 white lights 2 red lights.

62
Q

PLASI (Rare glide slope indicator)

A

PuLsating Approach SLope Indicator.

63
Q

Too high glide slope PLASI

A

Pulsating white light.

64
Q

On glide slope PLASI

A

Steady white light.

65
Q

Slightly low glide slope PLASI

A

Steady red light.

66
Q

Too low glide slope PLASI

A

Pulsating red light.

67
Q

Set lights to high intensity

A

Click mic 7 times in 5 seconds.

68
Q

Set lights to medium intensity

A

Click mic 5 times in 5 seconds.

69
Q

Taxiway edge lights

A

Blue omnidirectional lights.

70
Q

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates

A

designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

71
Q

The “runway hold position” sign denotes

A

an entrance to runway from a taxiway.

72
Q

“Runway hold position” markings on the taxiway

A

identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.

73
Q

The “taxiway ending” marker

A

indicates taxiway does not continue.

74
Q

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

A

Identifies direction to take-off runways.

75
Q

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

A

To enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

76
Q

When departing a non-towered airport traffic patter (left-hand traffic), you continue straight out or

A

make a 45 degree turn to the left.

77
Q

LAHSO

A

Land And Hold Short Operations

Flight (10 decks)

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