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AJ T8-8 > Flight Instruments > Flashcards

Flight Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

Flight Instruments

Each pilot has selected ND from the EFIS control panel.
Which pilot will have a single, full display ND ?

A

First come, first served :

The pilot that FIRST selected ND.

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2
Q

Flight Instruments

If an EFIS control panel fails, can the displays still be controlled ?

A

YES, through the backup EFIS/DSP display on the SYS page.

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3
Q

Flight Instruments

Which DUdoes the Display Select Panel (DSP) control ?

A

Each pilot’s on-side inboard DU

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4
Q

Flight Instruments

Who provides data to PFDand HUD when the Source selector (AIR DATA/ATT) is in the ALT position ?

A
  • Back up airspeed and altitude.

* IFSD attitude.

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4
Q

If the permanent magnet generators are not available, the flight control electronics receive power from the:• FO’s flight instrument bus.• 28v DC system and main battery.• Captain’s flight instrument bus.• directly from the EEC electronics units.

A

• 28v DC system and main battery.

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5
Q

Flight Instruments

What is the range of the mini map below the PFDs?

A

Fixed 20 NM

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5
Q

What is the minimum number of external power sources required for an external power ONLY engine start?• Two (Either forward and the aft external)• Three• Engine start is not available on external power only • Two (L&R Fwd)

A

• Two (L&R Fwd)

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6
Q

Flight Instruments

What do the air data modules do ?

A

They convert static and dynamic air pressure to digital output for display.

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6
Q

The ground handling mode is powered when ___ if no other power source is available.• both forward external power sources are in use (ON)• either FWD external power is connected (AVAIL)• only AFT external power is connected (AVAIL) • the battery switch is ON

A

• either FWD external power is connected (AVAIL)

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7
Q

Flight Instruments

PFD : How is a degradation of aircraft position accuracy depicted on the ANP bars ?

A

The bars grow toward the center of the scale.

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7
Q

The generator drive may disconnect automatically ____ • only on the ground• due to excessive frequency variations• due to bearing failure• depending on the fault condition detected

A

• depending on the fault condition detected

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8
Q

Flight Instruments

Is the Electronic Checklist required for Dispatch ?

A

NO

A paper checklist or iPad equivalent must be available on the flight deck.

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8
Q

How can the flight crew determine circuit breaker status?• Check the CBIC display.• Check the Status page display.• Check the Electrical synoptic.• Open CBs automatically display on EICAS.

A

• Check the CBIC display.

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9
Q

Flight Instruments

When are V1 and VR (R) speeds removed from the PFD ?

A

At Lift-off

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9
Q

What is the purpose of the permanent magnet generators (PMGs)? A. Powers the Captain’s standby electrical system.B. Powers the hot battery buss and main battery charger.C. Powers the flight control electronics.D. All the above.

A

C. Powers the flight control electronics.

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10
Q

The main battery provides power to the following:A. electric braking (as backup source).B. The Captain’s Flight instrument bus until RAT deployment C. Towing and refueling operationsD. All the above

A

D. All the above

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11
Q

The illuminated “AVAIL” light on the FWD or AFT external power switches indicate:• External power is plugged in and voltage and frequency are within limits.• External power is plugged in and is being used.• AC busses have lost all power and are looking for an external power source. • The system is available for external power to be plugged in.

A

• External power is plugged in and voltage and frequency are within limits.

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12
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to loss of two Starter Generators (SGs) in flight?A. APU will Auto Start.B. RAT will deploy.C. First Officer’s flight instruments will be unpowered. D. Some load shedding will occur.

A

D. Some load shedding will occur.

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13
Q

Electronic Circuit Breakers can be opened or closed using CBIC on the ground or in flight.A. TrueB. False

A

A. True

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14
Q

Which circuit breaker types may be reset via CBIC? A. ThermalB. ElectronicC. Both A and B are correctD. Circuit breakers cannot be reset via CBIC

A

B. Electronic

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15
Q

Which of the following conditions will cause the RAT to deploy automatically in flight? • Loss of the R 1 bus.• Loss of the L2 bus with BAT LOW EICAS message.• Loss of two starter generators• Loss of all electrical power to the Capt’s and FO’s flight instruments

A

• Loss of all electrical power to the Capt’s and FO’s flight instruments

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16
Q

To remain within the capacity of the available power sources, __ will occur. • Load Inhibit• Non-essential circuit breakers will open as needed • APU autostart• Load Shedding

A

• Load Shedding

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17
Q

If a loss of all electrical power to Capt’s and FO’s flight instruments occurs in flight, the ____ provides Standby Power until RAT deployment.• Main battery• APU battery• PMGs• Dedicated standby power bus batteries

A

• Main battery

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18
Q

Which of the following indications will display during automatic load shedding? A. LOAD SHED is displayed next the affected equipment symbol on theappropriate system synoptic.B. “LOAD SHED” EICAS message displays.C. a list of affected aircraft systems on the electrical synoptic. D. Both A and C are correct.

A

D. Both A and C are correct.

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19
Q

lnflight, with only one starter generator available ?• engine anti-ice is no longer available• power remains available to critical and essential equipment. • the standby inverter is powered.• all CACs go to high flow to maintain pressurization

A

• power remains available to critical and essential equipment.

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20
Q

With the airplane unpowered on the ground, pushing the battery switch to ON: • begins the left and right CCR start-up process• Powers the left inboard and outboard displays.• Powers the left TCP.• begins the left CCR start-up process.

A

• begins the left CCR start-up process.

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21
Q

If a drive disconnect switch is pushed, with engines operating:A. The starter/generator is disengaged from the engine.B. The “ELEC GEN DRIVE” EICAS message displays.C. Maintenance action will be required to reconnect the starter/generator. D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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22
Q

If both FWD external power are powering the main AC busses, when the APU starter/generators become available:• The APU generator power is automatically applied when all external power is removed.• APU generator power replaces FWD external power.• The APU generator powers the R1 and R2 AC busses & FWD external powers the L1 and L2 busses.• APU generator power must be manually selected ON

A

• APU generator power replaces FWD external power.

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23
Q

The APU and FWD external can power the aircraft at the same time.A TrueB. False

A

A True

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24
Q

The bus power control units provide electrical load management when the aircraft is operating on:• engine starter generators only.• aft external power only.• fwd external power only• any available electrical power source.

A

• any available electrical power source.

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25
Q

Power source transfers are made without interruption when the aircraft is on the ground. A TrueB. False

A

B. False

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26
Q

How can crew members differentiate between an open Electronic circuit breaker (ECB) and an open Thermal circuit breaker (TCB)?• Open TCBs are shown using a crosshatched display while ECBs are solid white.• Open TCBs are displayed in red, while ECBs are displayed in amber• TCBs display a capitol “T” immediately to the right of the symbology.• Open TCBs are shown using a solid white display while ECBs are crosshatched.

A

• Open TCBs are shown using a crosshatched display while ECBs are solid white.

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27
Q

lnflight, when will the APU auto start?• With an in-flight engine failure.• With a loss of three or more starter/generators. • Anytime the RAT is deployed.• When power is lost to two main AC Busses.

A

• With a loss of three or more starter/generators.

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28
Q

The Towing Power panel provides power for ____A. Capt’s audio control panel, Capt’s flight interphone, B. Brakes, Navigation lightsC. Radio communicationsD. Both A and B are correct

A

D. Both A and B are correct

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29
Q

If any engine generator fails, how is power provided to its associated main AC bus?• The lost main AC bus is now powered by another main AC bus.• The RAT deploys & powers the AC bus.• The main battery will energize the AC inverter to power the bus. • The PMGs will provide backup power to the associated bus.

A

• The lost main AC bus is now powered by another main AC bus.

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30
Q

The Large Motor Power Distribution System (LMPS) powers ___ A. CACsB. Hydraulic pumpsC. power for APU and Engine starting D. All the above

A

D. All the above

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31
Q

During an autoland approach with LAND 3 annunciated below 200ft, the R1 SG fails. The following occurs:• The ASA display changes to LAND 2.• The ASA display changes to NO AUTOLAND. • The ASA continues to display LAND 3.• The ECIAS displays NO AUTOLAND.

A

• The ASA continues to display LAND 3.

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32
Q

The PECS system provides __• heat dissipation for the LMPS• cooling for the FWD and AFT passenger entertainment systems • cooling for the left and right CCRs.• additional cooling to the FD crew rest area

A

• heat dissipation for the LMPS

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33
Q

After landing, PECS cooldown begins when __? • packs are shutdown• hydraulic EMPs are shutdown• IRSs are selected OFF• packs AND hydraulic EMPs are shutdown

A

• packs AND hydraulic EMPs are shutdown

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34
Q

The Starter/Generators (SGs) ____• are variable frequency and utilize a CSD to provide stable output• are variable frequency and are directly connected to the engine gearbox• ganged in pairs through a hydro/electric motor drive• are variable frequency, and utilize the engine variable stator vanes to control output

A

• are variable frequency and are directly connected to the engine gearbox

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35
Q

The RAT provides:A. standby electrical powerB. backup hydraulic pressureC. Alternate pneumatic pressure D. A and B are correct

A

D. A and B are correct

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36
Q

The standby electrical system consists of: A. The Standby Inverter.B. The flight control electronics system.C. The Main battery and the RAT generator.D. All the above.

A

C. The Main battery and the RAT generator.

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37
Q

Primary and backup power for the brake system is provided by:• 28 vDC power for the primary system and the main battery for the backup source• The R1 AC bus for the primary source and the Capt’s Flight instrument bus as the backup source• The FO’s Flight instrument bus as the primary source and the APU battery as the backup source.• Main battery for the primary system and 20 minute rechargeable batteries for the backup

A

• 28 vDC power for the primary system and the main battery for the backup source

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38
Q

The main battery can supply DC power for: A. engine and APU fire detection. B. the Left CCR .C. Capt’s inboard and lower DU.D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

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39
Q

The APU generator OFF lights illuminate when:• The APU generator is in standby mode.• The APU generator power has been replaced by external power.• The APU generator control breaker is open.• The APU generator power has been replaced by engine starter generator power.

A

• The APU generator control breaker is open.

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40
Q

The benefit of using all three external power sources for engine start, is that aft external can assist the forward external if starting the right engine first.A. TrueB. False

A

A. True

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41
Q

The aft external power receptacle is located:A. on the right side of the fuselage below the aft cargo door. B. on the fuselage, between the main gear doors.C. on the left side of the fuselage aft of the outflow valve.D. on the left side of the fuselage aft of the wing.

A

D. on the left side of the fuselage aft of the wing.

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48
Q

How many Display Units (DUs) are there?

A

5.

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49
Q

Which displays are Multi-Function Displays (MFDs)?

A

Inboard DUs and the lower DU.

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50
Q

What are the five primary groups of information displayed?

A

• Primary flight display (PFD) with mini-map• Navigation display (ND)• Engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS)• Auxiliary display (AUX)• Multifunction display (MFD)

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51
Q

After power up, with the PFD/MFD selectors set to NORM, the displays are in what default configuration?

A

• A normal-display ND is shown in the left MFD of the Captain’s inboard DU• A full-display ND is shown on the First Officer inboard DU• EICAS is displayed in the right MFD window of the Captain’s inboard DU• The CDU is displayed in each MFD window of the lower DUs

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52
Q

What is a typical display configuration for normal operations?

A

• PFDs are displayed on the two outboard DUs• EICAS is displayed in either the right MFD window of the Captain’s inboard DU or in the left MFD window of the First Officer’s inboard DU • A normal-display ND is shown in the MFD window on the same inboard DU as EICAS• A full-display ND (two MFD windows) is shown on the inboard DU without EICAS• The CDU is displayed in each MFD window of the lower DU

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53
Q

a. How many instances of the same Checklists (CHKL) can be displayed simultaneously?b. Are these checklist displays independent or synchronised

A

a. 1 per sideb. Synchronised i.e. any change on one instance affects all other instances ofthat display

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54
Q

If an EFIS Control Panel or Display Select Panel (DSP) fails, what back-up control is available

A

The displays can be controlled through the backup EFIS/DSP display on the SYS page.

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55
Q

each pilot selects an ND into a window on the lower DU, a single full- display ND is shown. Whose EFIS Control Panel will control that ND?

A

The pilot that first selected an ND on the lower DU

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56
Q

WXR, TFC & TERR Map switches are located on the EFIS Control Panel. What alternative method is there to select these map indications?

A

The drop down Menu in the ND MAP mode.

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57
Q

What do the following switches on the Display Select Panel (DSP) do when pushed?a. The L and R switches b. EICAS transfer switch c. ENG switch

A

a. Selects the on-side MFD location (left or right window on each upper display unit) that is affected by pressing display switches.b. Transfers EICAS format between the Captain and First Officer inboard display units.c. Displays the secondary engine information on EICAS.

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58
Q

The Lower Display Switches on the Multifunction Keypad (MFK) gives pilots control of which DU?

A

The on-side MFD on the lower DU.

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59
Q

Which MFD functions can be displayed using the MFK?

A

SYS, CDU, INFOCHKL, COMM, ND

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60
Q

What do the following MFD switches on the DSP and MFK display when pushed?a. SYSb. CDUc. INFOd. COMM

A

a. SYS - system synoptic and maintenance information.b. CDU - display emulation of the Control display Unit (CDU).c. INFO - airport map database cycles.d. COMM – Communications menu.

61
Q

What is the purpose of the PFD/MFD Source selector?

A

To switch displays if there is undetected display unit failure.

62
Q

What is displayed if the PFD/MFD Source selector is moved to the INBD DU position?

A

The outboard display unit is blanked and the inboard display unit shows the cropped PFD and EICAS or whichever display that was shown in place of EICAS before the failure.

63
Q

When the AIR DATA/ATT Source selector is in AUTO: -a. What is the primary source of air data to the PFD/HUD?b. What is the automatic backup source of airspeed based on?c. What is the automatic backup altitude based on?d. What is the primary source of attitude information to the PFD/HUD?e. What automatically provides backup attitude if required?f. Can these backup sources of data be selected manually?

A

a. The ADRS.b. AOA and inertial data.c. GPS data.d. The IRS.e. The ISFD.f. Yes, by selecting the AIR DATA/ATT Source selector to ALTN.

64
Q

Display cursor control is provided by which flight deck units?

A

The Cursor Control Device (CCD), MFK and EFIS Control Panel.

65
Q

What happens if the corners of the CCD are touched?

A

It immediately places the cursor in the corresponding corner of the selected MFD.

66
Q

What flight information displayed by the Integrated Standby Flight Display (IFSD)?

A

Attitude, airspeed, altitude, ILS, GLS and heading information.

67
Q

From which sources does the IFSD obtain:-a. Airspeed and altitude data?b. Attitudeinformation?c. ILS or GLS information?d. Heading information?

A

a. Center pitot and static ports. b. Internalinertialsensors.c. Left INR receiver.d. Captain’sPFD.

68
Q

Is the equipped with a standby magnetic compass?

A

Yes.

69
Q

Where is the Auxiliary (AUX) display located?

A

The outboard area of each PFD.

70
Q

What information is displayed on the clock/flight information block of the AUX display?

A

• Flight number• MIC readout• Transponder code• SELCAL• Airplane tail number• UTC time• Date• Elapsed flight time• Chrono dial and readout

71
Q

What information is displayed in the ATC Datalink block of the AUX display?

A

Uplinked messages, COMM system generated messages and flight information messages.

72
Q

a. What is the primary source of attitude and inertial navigation position information to the flight displays?b. What are the major components of this system?

A

a. The Inertial Reference System (IRS).b. Two Inertial Reference Units (IRUs) and two Attitude Heading Reference Units (AHRUs).

73
Q

The IRUs use what data to compute position information?

A

Internal gyros and accelerometers and GPS inputs.

74
Q

a. Which system provides primary, secondary and standby air data?b. What are the major components of this system?

A

a. The Air Data Reference System (ADRS)b. :-• six air data modules• six static ports• three pitot probes• two angle-of-attack sensors• one total air temperature probe.

75
Q

What does the ALIGN HUD message displayed next to the airplane symbol mean?

A

The combiner screen is not properly aligned with the projector?

76
Q

What is the main difference between HUD full and decluttered displays?

A

The decluttered display removes airspeed and altitude tapes, displaying only digital values. The partial compass rose is also removed.

77
Q

Due to the monochromatic nature of the HUD, how is the colour alerting functions used on the PFD displayed on the HUD?

A

The HUD may use• flashing• shape filling/blanking• highlight box symbology• or have no distinct HUD alert.

78
Q

a. When do Chevrons appear on the HUD?b. In this situation, what happens to the pitch scale?

A

a. Excessively high or low pitch angles.b. The pitch scale compresses from 5° to 10° increments.

79
Q

a. What is the purpose of the Unusual Attitude (UA) symbology?b. When does the UA symbology appear?c. Where are the zenith and nadir symbols on the UA display?

A

a. To display symbology necessary to help recover from the situation.b. Pitch angle exceeds -20° or +35°, or if roll exceeds 55° in either direction.c. The zenith symbol is centered on the +90° pitch scale line, and the nadir symbol centered on the -90° pitch scale line.

80
Q

a. What action is required for the Ground Deviation Indications to be used on take-off?b. When do these indications appear on the HUD?

A

a. HUD takeoff guidance needs to be selected in the FMC.b. • A/C HDG within 45° of the R/W heading and• Within 2° of the center of the ILS localizer beam or• 75 feet of the GLS localizer centerline.

81
Q

On take-off, when does the TO/GA Reference Line appear?

A

When flight director TO/GA mode is active, and groundspeed is greater than 65 knots.

82
Q

a. When does the Flight Path Vector (FPV) symbol appear?b. Does the FPV symbol have priority over other HUD symbology?c. What happens to the FPV symbol if it moves to the lateral limits of the HUD display?d. In this situation, what can’t the FPV provide anymore?

A

a. Only in-flight.b. Yes, except for the Guidance Cuec. The FPV symbol has a dashed outline instead of a solid outline.d. It cannot indicate the airplane’s current drift angle.

83
Q

a. What indications does the Guidance Cue provideb. When does the symbol appear?c. In what situation does the symbol change from hollow to solid (filled)?

A

a. It represents flight director guidance.b. When the flight directors are turned on and when above 50 feet RA on take-off, or, when the FPV appears if a HUD take-off is selected.c. During a windshear alert condition.

84
Q

a. What does the HUD angle-of-attack limit indicator represent?b. What is the significant difference between the PFD pitch limit indicator (PLI) and the HUD AOA limit indicator

A

a. The distance between the AOA limit symbol and the flight path vector symbol represents the margin available before stick shaker occurs.b. The PFD PLI is displayed relative to the airplane reference symbol, notto the flight path vector.

85
Q

When do the AOA limit indications appear?

A

• Angle of attack is within 5° of stick shaker, or• Stick shaker is active, or• Windshear alerting with (solid) guidance cue displayed

86
Q

What is the purpose of the Fly-To symbology?

A

It is an indication of where the flight path vector symbol should be positioned in order to obtain vertical separation from traffic, directing an evasive manoeuvre.

87
Q

The Speed Error Tape is located on the left wing of the Flight Path Vector symbol:-a. What does the tape indicate?b. The speed error tape does not appear until when?c. Why is this the case?

A

a. It shows the difference between the indicated airspeed and the selected airspeed on the MCP.b. First flap retraction.c. To prevent an incorrect interpretation of the speed error tape when selected airspeed on takeoff is V2, whereas flight director guidance airspeed is V2 + 15.

88
Q

What is the Speed Error Tape indication if:-a. Indicated speed is faster than selected speed?b. Indicated speed is slower than selected speed?

A

a. The tape rises above the wing.b. The tape falls below the wing

89
Q

What is the maximum speed error indicated by the tape?

A

15kts

90
Q

The Flight Path Acceleration symbol is represented by a ‘>’ icon.a. Where is the symbol located?b. What is the indication if the aircraft is accelerating or decelerating?c. To maintain a steady speed state, where does the symbol need to be positioned?

A

a. To the left of the FPV symbol.b. When accelerating, the symbol is above the FPV wing. When decelerating, it is below the wing.c. Directly to the left of the left FPV symbol wing

91
Q

During an approach, the Glideslope Reference Line appears on the HUD. What is the symbology?

A

A horizontal dashed line across the pitch scale depicts the projected glideslope angle of the active approach. A numerical value is digitally displayed adjacent to the glideslope reference line.

92
Q

a. When do the runway edge lines appear?b. What are the indications composed of?

A

a. From a radio altimeter altitude of 300 feet, and removed at 60 feet.b. Runway edge lines with two tick marks that correspond to the touchdown aiming point.

93
Q

When does the Ground Deceleration Rate Scale display?

A

On landing or when a deceleration is sensed on takeoff above 50kts.

94
Q

In which area of the PFD are the airspeed indications displayed?

A

Left hand side

95
Q

How and where on the PFD are the following displayed?a. Selected airspeedb. Currentairspeed c. Current mach

A

a. Digits above airspeed tape and a bug against the scale. b. In the centre of the airspeed tape (boxed).c. Digits at the bottom of the airspeed tape.

96
Q

When are the flap manoeuvring speeds displayed?

A

Below 20,000 ft

97
Q

How is slip information displayed?

A

A box moving with respect to the bank indicator.

98
Q

What happens to the slip indicator as it moves to full deflection?

A

It fills white, (amber if bank exceeds 35°)

99
Q

How are marker beacons annunciated?

A

IM, MM or OM in top right corner of attitude display.

100
Q

When do the pitch limit indication display?

A

Flaps not up or at slow speeds with flaps up.

101
Q

Where do radio minimums information appear on the PFD?

A

Top right of the attitude display.

102
Q

When is radio altitude displayed?

A

Below 2,500ft AGL

103
Q

When do the Navigation Performance Scale (NPS) appear on the PFD?

A

• LNAV is armed or active• VNAV is active• TO/GA roll mode is active

104
Q

What does the area between the bars on the NPS represent?

A

The margin available to remain within RNP criteria.

105
Q

What does the NPS deviation pointer do if it migrates into the bar area for more than 5 seconds?

A

Flashes for ten seconds.

106
Q

When does ILS/GLS or IAN approach reference data appears on the top left corner of the attitude indicator? When …a. Manually tuned?b. Auto-tuned?

A

a. Immediately.b. The airplane is:• < 150 NM from the destination airport• < 50 NM from Top of Descent• FMC is in descent mode

107
Q

What ILS/GLS approach reference data is displayed?

A

• Selected ILS/GLS identifier or frequency, approach front course• ILS/GLS DME distance• Navigation source annunciation

108
Q

What Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) reference data is displayed?

A

• Type of approach, runway, approach front course• Missed approach way point name, distance to that waypoint• Source annunciation

109
Q

Where does selected altitude appear on the PFD altitude indication?

A

Digits above the altitude tape and a bug against the scale.

110
Q

What indication is displayed on the altimeter tape if you deviate from your selected altitude by more than 200ft?

A

A highlighted amber box appears around the current altitude.

111
Q

How can altitude in meters be selected and where is it displayed?

A

By pressing the MTRS selector on the EFIS panel. Above the altitude tape.

112
Q

Where does the baro setting appear?

A

Below the altitude tape.

113
Q

What does the baro minimums display do when the aircraft descends below the selected minimum altitude?

A

Turns amber and flashes for 3 seconds.

114
Q

What does the autopilot/flight director barometric source (L or R) indicate?

A

Whether the left or right EFIS control panel is the barometric setting reference.

115
Q

In which area of the PFD is the vertical speed indication displayed?

A

To the right of the altitude tape.

116
Q

When does vertical speed appear in digital form and where is it displayed?

A

When vertical speed is greater than 400 fpm. Above the vertical speed indication when climbing, below when descending.

117
Q

In what form is selected vertical speed displayed?

A

A magenta bug against the vertical speed scale. Also in digital form in the Vertical Speed window on the MCP.

118
Q

What information is displayed on the Mini-map?

A

Current IRS heading, track and other heading information, flight plan with associated information.

119
Q

What symbol indicates the current heading on the PFD?

A

A triangular pointer against a compass arc.

120
Q

In what form does selected track appear on the PFD?

A

Index bug against the inside of the compass arc and in digits.

121
Q

When would the PFD display in Reversion Mode? How is the display affected?

A

a. For some display failuresb. The PFD with mini-map is cropped to fit within an MFD window (one half of a DU).

122
Q

Under certain failure conditions, what do the following PFD messages below the speed or altimeter tape indicate regarding the data being displayed?a. AOA SPEEDb. ISFD SPEEDc. GPS ALTd. ISFD ALT

A

a. A backup airspeed based on AOA and inertial data.b. A backup airspeed based on single source data from the center pitot and center static ADMs.c. A backup altitude based on data from GPS L or R.d. A backup altitude based on single source data from the center static ADM.

123
Q

What are the two Navigation Display (ND) display modes?

A

MAP and PLAN modes

124
Q

How can the full compass rose be displayed, and for which ND modes is it available?

A

By pressing ND Center (CTR) switch on the EFIS Control Panel. MAP mode only.

125
Q

What is the difference between a normal-display ND and a full-display ND presentation?

A

A normal-display ND is shown on one half of a DU, a full-display ND is shown on an entire DU.

126
Q

In which ND display modes are the following available?a. Ground speed.b. Wind speed/direction.c. Heading up display.d. North up display.e. Step-through capability

A

a. MAP & PLANb. MAP & PLAN (Wind arrow not displayed in PLAN)c. MAPd. PLANe. PLAN

127
Q

State the function of the following ND drop down menu selections:a. VSDb. APTc. WPTd. STAe. POSf. DATA

A

a. Selects the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) ND.b. Displays airports on all ranges. >640 NM, APT = star field.c. Displays waypoints + High/low alt Nav Aids- ND 10, 20 or 40 NM range.- High alt nav aids - 80, 160, 320, or 640 NM range.d. For ranges greater than 640 NM, STA = star field.e. IRS and GPS positions, VOR raw data radials extended from the nose of the airplane to the stations displayed on the NAV/RAD page.f. The entered/procedural altitude and ETAs at each waypoint.

128
Q

In what ND display modes can the Airport Map be displayed?

A

MAP and PLAN.

129
Q

At what ND range will the Airport Map display?

A

5 NM or less.

130
Q

On which display can the cyan ADF pointers, frequencies and identifier information be displayed?

A

Mini-map only.

131
Q

In which ND display modes is the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) available?

A

MAP mode only.

132
Q

What does the area within the VSD Corridor indicate?

A

The area of the map that is shown on the VSD.

133
Q

What are the two VSD corridor modes displayed on the ND?

A

Track or Route modes

134
Q

The VSD range is a function of the ND range and is depicted on the horizontal reference scale. What VSD range is displayed when in the…a. normal-display mode?b. full-displaymode?

A

a. The same range as the ND except when the ND range is less than 5 NM.b. Twice the range of the ND – from 10 NM to 2560 NM.

135
Q

How would you distinguish checklist steps that require crew confirmation (open loop), from steps which are automatically checked by system inputs (closed loop)?

A

Open loop steps display a grey box to the left of the line item

136
Q

Which colours are used for:a. Incomplete checklist steps?b. Completed steps?c. Overridden or unnecessary steps?

A

a. White text.b. Green text with a green check mark to the left.c. Cyan (light blue).

137
Q

What happens if you select the ‘NORMAL’ prompt at the bottom left hand corner of the checklist screen?

A

Displays the next incomplete normal checklist.

138
Q

How would you access any operational notes that had accumulated from non-normal checklists viewed throughout the flight?

A

Through the NOTES key at the bottom of the checklist display.

139
Q

A non-normal checklist is accessed which contains deferred items. When all steps prior to the deferred items have been accomplished, will the checklist be complete

A

Yes; the message CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT DEFERRED ITEMS is displayed at the bottom of the page.

140
Q

A particular non-normal checklist has a countdown timer. If the checklist is left to complete another task, would the timer be reset?

A

No; the elapsed time would be displayed on return.

141
Q

What does the EICAS message ‘CHKL INCOMPLETE NORM’ signify?

A

Alerts the crew when a critical checklist is not completed before the next phase of flight begins.

142
Q

What do the following mean when displayed to the left of an EICAS message:-a. A white icon?b. No icon?

A

a . The checklist for the displayed message has not been accessed, or is not completed.b. The checklist for the displayed message is complete, or, no checklist procedure exists for the displayed message, or, another message is displayed whose corresponding checklist inhibits display of the icon.

143
Q

What is the significance of a ‘CHKL NON-NORMAL’ EICAS message?

A

A non-normal checklist is in the queue with no associated EICAS message displayed, and the ECL is not displayed.

144
Q

What is an Unannunciated checklist?

A

A non-normal checklist which is not associated with a specific EICAS message (e.g. Fuel Jettison).

145
Q

How would you access an Unannunciated Checklist?

A

Through the NON-NORMAL menu at the top right of the checklist screen.

146
Q

What is the purpose of the PGUP and PGDN keys on the EFB?

A

They move the displayed information up or down when the material exceeds one display screen in length.

147
Q

What does pressing the XFR key accomplish?

A

Displays a view of the off-side EFB screen onto the on-side display.

148
Q

If a system FAULT, MEMO, and/or MSG indicator appears on the EFB screen, which EFB page should be accessed to gain more information regarding these messages?

A

SYSTEM page.

149
Q

What is accomplished when the CLOSE FLIGHT key is selected?

A

This “cleans up” the EFB application data, effectively deleting all flight-specific information from memory.

AJ T8-8 (27 decks)

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