Flight Controls Flashcards by Robert Savu

Q 01: The flight control surfaces are _______ controlled and _______ actuated.
A: Electrically / hydraulically
B: Mechanically / hydraulically
C: Electrically / electrically

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Q 02: What computer normally commands the operation of the elevators and horizontal stabilizer?
A: SEC 1
B: FAC 1
C: ELAC 2

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Q 03: Sidesticks provide electrical signals to the flight control computers; if both sidesticks are operated:
A: The inputs cancel each other.
B: Both inputs are algebraically added.
C: The F/O input is overridden by the CAP input.

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Q 05: When the flaps are extended, the ailerons:
A: Go to the centering mode.
B: Pitch up 5 degrees.
C: Droop 5 degrees.

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Q 04: Roll control is achieved by:
A: Ailerons
B: Ailerons and rudder.
C: One aileron and four spoilers on each wing. 
D: Ailerons, rudder and spoilers

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Q 06: If electrical power to a SEC fails:
A: The affected spoilers automatically retract.
B: All spoilers automatically retract.
C: The affected spoilers remains in the last commanded position.

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Q 07: If angle of attack protection is active or flaps are in the configuration Full:
A: Speed brake extension is inhibited.
B: Aileron travel is reduced.
C: Speed brake extension travel is reduced.

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Q 08: Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is:
A: Lost.
B: Maintained by the other actuator.
C: Reduced.

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Q 09: Two control surfaces that have mechanical backup are:
A: Elevator and rudder.
B: Horizontal stabilizer and rudder.
C: Speed brakes and rudder.

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Q 10: Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees after landing.
A: True
B: False

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Q 11: Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the ______ are extended.
A: Flaps
B: Slats
C: Gear

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Q 12: Automatic rudder trim is provided at the rate of \_\_\_\_\_ while the manual rudder trim rate is \_\_\_\_\_\_ up to a maximum of \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A: 5 deg/sec - 2 deg/sec - 20 degs
B: 5 deg/sec - 1 deg/sec - 20 degs
C: 8 deg/sec - 2 deg/sec - 10 degs 
D: 8 deg/sec - 5 deg/sec - 10 degs

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Q 13: Four hydraulically-operated wing tip brakes are installed to lock the flaps or slats in case of:
A: Asymmetry and overspeed only
B: Asymmetry, overspeed and slow movement
C: Asymmetry, overspeed, symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement
D: All of the above

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Q 14: While on the ground in Roll Normal Law there is a direct relationship between sidestick deflection and the corresponding aileron and spoiler deflection.
A: True
B: False

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Q 15: In Pitch Normal Law Flight Mode; pitch trim is:
A: Manual without the autopilot engaged.
B: Automatic as long as the autopilot is engaged.
C: Automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.

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Q 16: In pitch normal law, the elevator control changes from the normal mode to a protection mode when the angle of attack is greater than:
A: Alpha Max
B: Alpha Prot
C: Alpha Floor

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Q 17: Automatic pitch trim is inhibited when:
A: Radio altitude is below 50 feet (100 feet with autopilot coupled).
B: Bank angle is greater than 33 degrees.
C: Load factor is less than 1G.
D: First two statements are correct

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Q 18: TOGA thrust is provided regardless of throttle position when _______ engages the autothrottle system.
A: Alpha Max
B: Alpha Prot
C: Alpha Floor

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Q 19: The purpose of the Load Alleviation Function is to:
A: Relieve wing structure loads by moving the ailerons.
B: Relieve wing structure loads by extending spoilers 4 and 5.
C: Help slow the airplane down.
D: First two statements are correct

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Q 20: With the aircraft in Pitch Alternate Law, roll is in _____ Law.
A: Direct
B: Normal
C: Alternate

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Q 21: In Pitch Alternate Law; the low Speed stability (nose down command) can be overridden by the sidestick.
A: True
B: False

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Q 22: When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law:
A: Remains the same.
B: Degrades to pitch direct law.
C: Degrades to pitch backup law.

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Q 23: In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the airplane reverts to a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ mode.
A: Mechanical
B: Alternate Law
C: Alternate law
D: Abnormal Attitude law

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Q 24: To select speed brakes inflight:
A: Push down on the speed brake handle and move it forward.
B: Push down on the speed brake handle and move it aft.
C: Pull up on the speed brake handle and move it aft.

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Q 25: Which of the following statements is correct concerning the spoiler elevator computers (SEC’s)? A: Two computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control. B: Three computers which achieve spoiler control and normal elevator and THS control. C: Three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control

Q 26: The autopilot will disconnect if the side stick takeover push button is depressed. A: True. B: False

Q 27: Which of the following statements are correct concerning the side stick takeover push button? A: The last pilot to depress the push button has priority. B: If the takeover push button is depressed for more than 40 seconds, the onside system will retain priority after the push button is released. C: Both are correct.

Q 28: Are there any control surfaces with a mechanical backup? A: Yes, the ailerons. B: Yes, the spoilers C: Yes, the THS and the rudder. D: No, there aren’t any control surfaces with mechanical backup.

``` Q 29: What control surfaces do the FACs control? A: The elevators. B: The spoilers. C: The rudder. D: All of the above. ```

Q 30: Which of the following will automatically reset after landing? A: THS. B: Rudder trim. C: Both are correct.

Q 31: What happens in the event of a single ELAC failure? A: ELAC functions are transferred the SEC’s. B: ELAC functions are transferred to FAC’s. C: SEC functions are transferred the ELAC’s. D: The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.

Q 32: The alpha speed lock function: A: Will inhibit flap retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds. B: Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds. C: Automatically raises the flaps if retraction has not been accomplished by 210kts.

Q 33: In normal law, if one stick is rapidly pulled fully back, can the aircraft’s maximum allowable “G” load be exceeded? A: 'Yes. Rapid side stick deflection must never be made. B: Yes, until maximum pitch attitude is reached. C: No. At Maximum “G” load, the side sticks are de-activated for 5 seconds. D: No. The load factor limitation overrides side stick commands to avoid excessive “G” loads.

``` Q 34: Which controls are used for the mechanical backup? A: Ailerons and rudder. B: THS and rudder. C: Elevators and ailerons. D: THS and elevator. ```

Q 35: Mechanically backed-up control surfaces: A: Require hydraulic power for actuation B: Are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls. C: Both are correct.

``` Q 36: Selection of flaps one prior to takeoff will select which of the following? A: Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F). B: Slats 0 and flaps 1 (0+F). C: Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1). D: Slats 1 and flaps 5 (1). ```

Q 37: Which of the following statements best describes the Load Alleviation function (LAF)? A: Helps the pilot control the airplane. B: Relieves wing structure loads by deflecting the ailerons and spoilers. C: Relieve wing structure loads by deflecting only the spoilers. D: Relieves wing structure loads by deflecting the ailerons.

Q 38: When ground spoilers deploy automatically: A: All ten spoiler panels fully deploy. B: Four spoiler panels on each wing deploy. C: All ten spoiler panels deploy half way. D: Six spoiler panels on each wing deploy.

``` Q 39: The FAC’s primarily control which control surface? A: Elevator. B: Rudder. C: Aileron. D: Elevator and aileron. ```

Q 40: Which altitude limitation is associated with high lift devices? A: Max altitude for extension is 20, 000 ft. B: Max altitude for extension is 22, 000 ft. C: Max altitude for extension is 25, 000 ft D: Max altitude for extension is 27, 000 ft.

Q 41: The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD. What does it mean? A: A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position. B: To reduce structural stress, the slats movement is being slowed down through the wing tip brakes. C: To avoid asymmetry, the outer slats are locked in their present position. D: Because of the locked flaps, the wing tip brakes also lock the slats.

``` Q 42: Where does the SFCCs obtain AOA and air data information from? A: SEC B: ELAC C: ADIRU D: ADC ```

Q 43: How many actuators are provided to control the ailerons and how many hydraulic sources supply these actuators? A: 2 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators. B: 1 hydraulic source with 2 actuators. C: 4 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators. D: 3 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.

Q 44: If both FAC’s fail, what happens to the rudder limiter? A: It immediately assumes the low speed position. B: It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are selected C: Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended. D: Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after flaps extended.

Q 45: Which of the following statements is correct concerning the elevator aileron computers (ELAC’s): A: Three computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control. B: Two computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and trimmable horizontal stabilizer. C: Three computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and THS. D: Two computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control

Q 46: The wing tip brakes, once activated: A: Lock both the slats and flaps in their current position B: Lock only the flaps in their current position. C: Lock only the slats in their current position. D: Lock only the affected high lift system surfaces in their current position

Q 47: Which of the following controls and monitors flaps and slats? A: Two ELAC’s. B: Wing tip brakes. C: One slat flap control computer (SFCC). D: Two slat flap control computers (SFCC’s).

Q 48: The spoiler panels are the only flight control surfaces with no redundant control. A: True. B: False.

Q 49: What happens in the side stick-neutral high speed protection mode? A: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 30° and the aircraft is 25° roll limited. B: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 45° and the aircraft is 25° roll limited. C: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 40° and the aircraft rolls wings level and pitches up to slow down to VMO/MMO. D: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 35° and the aircraft rolls wings level and pitches to 10° to slow down to VMO/MMO - 20 kt.

Q 50: What is the maximum flap setting for in-flight use of the spoilers? A: Flaps FULL. B: Flaps 3. C: Spoilers are not approved for in-flight use. D: Flaps 10.

Q 51: What are the rudder trim rates? A: A/P on - 5 deg/sec, A/P off - 1 deg/sec. B: A/P on - 2 1/5 deg/sec, A/P off - 5 deg/sec. C: A/P on - 3 deg/sec, A/P off - 6 deg/sec. D: A/P on - 5 deg/sec, A/P off - 6 deg/sec.

Q 52: Can the crew make a flight control input that will over-stress the airplane in direct law? A: No. The system is designed to avoid such an attempt. B: Yes, there are no protections provided in direct law.

Q 53: Can you manually trim the rudder with the autopilot engaged? A: Yes. B: No.

Q 54: When is the Flight Mode active? A: From takeoff until landing. B: From liftoff until landing C: From liftoff until flare mode engages at 50 ft RA. D: From takeoff until passing 50 kts on landing (main shock absorbers depressed)

Q 55: Automatic pitch trim is provided both on ground and in flight. A: True. B: False.

Q 56: The Ground Mode is different in Alternate Law. A: True. B: False.

``` Q 57: In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the side stick fully deflected? A: 33° B: 49° C: 67° D: 70° ```

Q 58: Failure to retract the flaps after takeoff will: A: Activate the wing tip brakes. B: Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 210 kts. C: Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 220 kts. D: Result in automatic flap retraction at 210 kts.

Q 59: FAC generated slat and flap extension, retraction, and limiting speeds are visually displayed on which of the following? A: The MCDU perf page. B: The lower ECAM F/CTL page. C: Both pilot’s PFD airspeed displays. D: All of the above.

Q 60: Aileron droop may best be confirmed by checking which of the following? A: The position of the ailerons on the exterior preflight inspection. B: The lower ECAM FLT/CTL page. C: The position of the flap handle.

``` Q 61: The wing tip brakes are: A: Pneumatically actuated. B: Electric brakes. C: Hydraulically actuated. D: Mechanically controlled, hydraulically actuated. ```

``` Q 62: Selection of flaps 1 in flight will select which of the following configurations? A: Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F). B: Slats 0 and flaps 1 (0+F). C: Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1). D: Slats 1 and flaps 5 (1+F). ```

Q 63: The aircraft rudder can be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged. A: True. B: False.

Q 64: What happens if you release the stick at 40 degrees of bank? A: The bank stays at 40° B: The aircraft rolls back to 25° C: The aircraft rolls back to 33° and resumes flight path stability. D: The aircraft rolls back to a bank angle less than 29°.

Q 65: When is alpha floor not available? A: Out of normal law. B: Below 100 feet RA in landing configuration. C: If the A/THR is deactivated or unavailable. D: All of the above.

Q 66: What kind of protections are provided if the aircraft is in Alternate Law? A: G-load protection with a reduced factor. B: Speed Stability C: Full G load protection and speed stability D: G-load protection and speed stability if the ADIRS and elevators are working.

Q 67: In Normal Law, what are the limits of Pitch Attitude protections with flaps Full A: 30° nose up. B: 35° nose up progressively reduced to 20° C: 25° nose up, progressively reduced to 20° at low speed. D: There is no limit.

Q 68: You can degrade directly from Normal Law to Direct Law with gear down and a dual radio altimeter fault. A: True. B: False.

Q 69: Turn coordination is available in Alternate Law. A: True. B: False.

Q 70: If both pilots deflect their side sticks fully back: A: The “pitch up” order is twice as high as with only one stick deflected. B: The “pitch up” order is 1.5 times higher as high as with only one stick deflected. C: No inputs are sent to the flight control computers unless one pilot presses the takeover pushbutton on his stick. D: The “pitch up” order is equal to a single stick deflection.

Q 71: To disable a side-stick, you have to depress the red take-over button on the active stick. Holding the button down for 40 seconds will electrically lock the other stick out until its own red take-over button is pushed again. A: True. B: False.

Q 72: Let’s assume the F/O presses his takeover pushbutton and releases it after more than 40 seconds. A: The Captain’s side stick is de-activated unless he presses his takeover pushbutton. B: The Captain is unable to re-activate his side-stick for the rest of the flight C: Both sticks are active D: The Captain’s side stick is active as long as the F/O’s side stick is in neutral position.

Q 73: What condition will cause auto flap retraction? A: Exceed 210 kts at Flaps 1 B: Exceed 190 kt at Flaps 1. C: Exceed 195 kt at Flaps 1 D: Exceed 190 kt with Flaps 1 while extending the speedbrake lever.

Q 74: What happens to the rudder limits if both FAC’s fault? A: The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected. B: The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 5 is selected. C: The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected. Then it resets to the low speed limits for increased control.

Q 75: What happens to high speed (VMO/MMO) when you are in Alternate Law? A: VMO is reduced to 320 kt and MMO minus 10 kt. B: VMO is reduced to 330 kt and MMO minus 10 kt C: VMO is reduced to 320 kt and MMO does not change. D: There is no change.

Q 76: Can the rudders be moved with both FAC’s inoperative? A: Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the slats are extended B: Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained C: Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the gear is extended or flaps extended at 1 minimum D: No

Q 77: The FLAP lever sends signal to Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) to command movement. A: True. B: False.

Q 78: Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination functions? A: Yes. B: No.