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Airbus > AutoFlight > Flashcards

AutoFlight Flashcards

1
Q

Q 01: The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:
A: Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.
B: Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands
C: Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions
D: AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation

A

C

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2
Q

Q 02: How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?
A: Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU.
B: Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.
C: Both are correct.

A

C

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3
Q

Q 03: What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?
A: The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.
B: The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.
C: The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.
D: The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.

A

A

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4
Q

Q 04: What information is supplied by the IR’s and displayed on the PFD?
A: Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.
B: Heading, altitude, and vertical speed
C: Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.
D: Heading, attitude, and altitude.

A

A

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5
Q 
Q 05: How long does a normal IR alignment take? 
A: Approximately 3 minutes.
B: Approximately 6 minutes.
C: Approximately 10 minutes.
D: Approximately 13 minutes.
A

C

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6
Q

Q 06: The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?
A: Alignment has been completed.
B: Air data output has been disconnected.
C: The respective IR is operating normally.

A

A

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7
Q

Q 07: An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:
A: Present position needs to be reentered.
B: Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
C: A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.

A

B

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8
Q

Q 08: What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:
A: Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
B: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.
C: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
D: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

A

C

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9
Q

Q 09: A/THR in white means that A/THR is:
A: Disconnected.
B: Armed.
C: Active

A

C

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10
Q

Q 10: The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?
A: No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.
B: No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.
C: Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.

A

B

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11
Q 
Q 11: What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?
A: Check Data Base Cycle.
B: Check Data Base Date.
C: Check Effective Date.
D: Check the changeover date.
A

A

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12
Q

Q 12: Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?
A: The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.
B: The respective ADIRU will become deenergized.
C: Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.
D: All of the above.

A

A

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13
Q

Q 13: While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range:
A: The flight controls revert to direct law.
B: The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.
C: The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

A

C

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14
Q

Q 14: What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?
A: 1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.
B: 1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop

A

B

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15
Q

Q 15: What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?
A: FMGC 1 & 2 position difference exceeds limits.
B: FMGC position & actual radio position difference exceeds limits.
C: FMCG position & IR position difference exceeds limits.

A

B

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16
Q

Q 16: The thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?
A: Yes, by setting a higher speed target.
B: Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.
C: No, because the A/THR already delivers the maximum available thrust

A

B

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17
Q

Q 17: What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFD’s?
A: Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.
B: Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.
C: Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.
D: Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed.

A

B

18
Q

Q 18: Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?
A: Yes.
B: No.

A

A

19
Q

Q 19: During the takeoff phase:
A: SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference
B: SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.
C: SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.

A

A

20
Q

Q 20: If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:
A: AD and IR information will be disconnected.
B: AD information will be disconnected.
C: IR information will be disconnected.
D: The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.

A

D

21
Q

Q 21: Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?
A: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.
B: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
C: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

A

A

22
Q 
Q 22: Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL? 
A: Pitch attitude.
B: VLS.
C: ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)
D: Alpha floor.
A

D

23
Q

Q 23: What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?
A: Speed brakes have a fault.
B: Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at 0.
C: Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.
D: All of the above.

A

C

24
Q

Q 24: If LOW ACCURACY message is displayed, are there any approach restrictions?
A: No
B: Yes, ILS approach only.
C: Yes, both LNAV and VNAV approaches are forbidden.

A

C

25
Q

Q 25: The DDRMI provides the pilot with:
A: Bearing only for VOR 1.
B: Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.
C: Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.
D: Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

A

D

26
Q

Q 26: The ON BAT light will illuminate amber:
A: When one or more IR’s are operating on aircraft battery power.
B: For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.
C: Both are correct.

A

C

27
Q

Q 27: If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?
A: FACs.
B: SECs.
C: Elevator and stabilizer revert to mechanical backup.
D: Backup mode of ELAC’s

A

B

28
Q

Q 28: Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC #2?
A: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #2, ND #2 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM.
B: ADMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and UPPER ECAM.
C: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.
D: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM

A

C

29
Q

Q 29: While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral will command:
A: A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch attitude.
B: Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to straight and level flight.
C: Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and maintain its current attitude

A

A

30
Q

Q 30: In normal law all protections are active, which of the following lists is the most complete list?
A: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, and High speed.
B: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Alpha floor, angle of bank, and High speed.
C: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, VLS, Alpha floor, and High speed.
D: Protections, Load Factor and Pitch attitude.

A

B

31
Q 
Q 31: When in alternate law, all protections except \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ protection will be lost. 
A: Roll attitude.
B: Pitch attitude.
C: Bank angle.
D: Load factor.
A

D

32
Q

Q 32: When does the sideslip indicator change to a blue Beta target?
A: Flaps configuration 1.
B: Any EPR exceeds 1.25, and EPR’s differ by more than 0.30
C: Heading differs from track by 20 deg or more
D: Flaps configuration 1, 2.

A

B

33
Q

Q 33: High and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law, stabilities:
A: Will not allow the pilot to stall the aircraft.
B: Prohibit steep bank angles.
C: Prohibit steep climb angles and bank angles.
D: Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed Vmo, Mmo and stall the aircraft

A

D

34
Q

Q 34: What is the function of the FACs?
A: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations
B: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs
C: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs and windshear protection
D: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations, and windshear protection

A

D

35
Q

Q 35: What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?
A: The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped.
B: DMC failure.
C: No power.

A

B

36
Q

Q 36: Can the aircraft be controlled with a loss of all electrics?
A: Yes.
B: No.

A

A

37
Q

Q 37: The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that:
A: ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 1.
B: ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI; ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2

A

B

38
Q

Q 38: What action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost?
A: Nothing.
B: Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
C: Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

A

C

39
Q 
Q 39: How many Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU’s) are installed? 
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: Four
A

C

40
Q

Q 40: On an autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?
A: FMGC 1
B: FMGC 2
C: Both

A

A

41
Q

Q 41: After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?
A: Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable
B: No action is needed as recovery is automatic.
C: Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3

A

C

Airbus (16 decks)

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