Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicina > Flashcards > Flashcards

Flashcards

1
Q

Cos’è una zoonosi

A

Con il termine zoonosi si intende una qualsiasi malattia infettiva che può essere trasmessa dagli animali (escluso l’uomo) all’uomo, direttamente o indirettamente

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

il vettore della Leishmania donovani

A

Flebotomo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tattamento della dissenteria amebica

A

metronidazolo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Quale test diagnostico conferma il tifo addominale

A

Reazione di widal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Corretta profilassi malarica con clorochina

A

2 settimane prima della partenza per la zona malarica e protraendolo per 4-6 settimane dopo l’arrivo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Quale esame fareste eseguire nel sospetto di teniasi

A

esame coproparassitologico

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long does the colera vaccination last

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antibiotici di prima scelta nella brucellosi

A

tetracicline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Terapia del Morbo di Hansen forma tubercoloide

A

dapsone + rifampicina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Corretta profilassi malarica con meflochina

A

1 settimana prima della partenza per la zona malarica e per 4 settimane dopo l’arrivo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cosa sono i dermatofagoidi

A

Principali costituenti allergenici della polvere domestica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What class of drug is divided into ergot and not ergot derived?

A

dopamino-agonisti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bioavailaibility

A

Fraction of administered drug reaching systemic circulation unchanged. For an i.v. dose, F = 100%.

Orally: F typically < 100% due to incomplete absorption and first-pass metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Volume di distribuzione

A

Theoretical volume occupied by the total amount of drug in the body relative to its plasma concentration.

Vd =amount of drug in the body/plasma drug concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Half-life t1/2

A

The time required to change the amount of drug in the body by 1⁄2 during elimination.
In first-order kinetics, a drug infused at a constant rate takes 4–5 half-lives to reach steady state. It takes 3.3 half-lives to reach 90% of the steady-state level.

t1/2 =(0.7 × Vd)/CL in first-order elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Zero order drug elimination

A

rate of elimination is constant regardless of Cp. Cp decreases LINEARLY with time. examples of drugs (Phenytoin, Ethanol, and Aspirin).

[PEA (a pea is round, shaped like the “0” in
zero-order)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

First order elimination

A

Rate of First-order elimination is directly proportional to the drug concentration. Cp decreases EXPONENTIALLY with time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Metabolism first order reactions

A

Reduction, Oxidation, Hydrolysis with cytochrome p-450.

R-OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Metabolism second order reactions

A

conjugation (Methylation, Glucuronidation, Acetylation, Sulfation).
usually yields very polar, inactive metabolites (renally excreted).

[More GAS]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Whipple desease most important symptoms

A

Cardiac symptoms, Arthralgias, and Neurologic symptoms are common. Diarrhea/steatorrhea occur later.

FOAMY Whipped cream in a CAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

REYE syndrome features

A

[REYE of sunSHINE]

Steatosis of liver/hepatocytes
Hypoglycemia/Hepatomegaly
Infection (VZV, influenza)
Not awake (coma)
Encephalopathy

Avoid aspirin in children except in those with kawasaki disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Terapia clostridium (posologia)

A

Vancomicina 2 g (500 mg ogni 6 ore)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most specific antibody in rheumatoid arthritis

A

anti cyclic cytrullinated peptide antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Differences between artrosi e artrite reumatoide clinicamente

A

Artrosi: Pain in weight-bearing joints after use (eg,
at the end of the day), improving with REST.
Asymmetric joint involvement.

Artrite Reumatoide: pain, swelling and morning stiffness > 1 hour, improving with USE. Symmetric joint involvement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Joint findings and joint involvement in artrosi

A

Osteophytes (bone spurs),
joint space narrowing,
subchondral sclerosis and cysts.

DIP (distal interphalangeal joint)-(Heberden nodes B ) 
PIP (proximal interphalangeal joint)-(Bouchard nodes) 
1st CMC (carpometacarapal joint)
not MCP (metacarpophlangeal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Joint involvement in rheumatoid arthritis

A 
MCP (metacarpophlangeal)
PIP (proximal interphalangeal joint)
wrist
not DIP (distal interphalangeal joint) 
not 1st CMC (carpometacarapal joint)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Terapia artrosi

A 
FANS
intra articular glucocorticoid injection for temorary relief
weight loss
physical therapy
(joint substitution)
28
Q

What are the seronegative spondyloarthritis?

A

[PAIR]

Psoriasic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Reactive arthritis

29
Q

Symptoms in reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome)

A

[can’t see, can’t pee, can’t bend my knee]

Conjunctivitis
Urethritis
Arthritis

30
Q

Eziologia reactive artritis

A

[ShY ChiCS]

Shygella
Yersinia
Chlamydia
Campylobacter
Salmonella
31
Q

LES features

A

[RASH OR PAIN]

Rash (malar or discoid)
Arthritis (non erosive)
Serositis (eg, pleuritis, pericarditis)
Hematologic disorders (eg, pancytopenias)
Oral/nasopharyngeal ulcers (usually painless)
Renal disease
Photosensitivity
Antinuclear antibodies
Immunologic disorder (anti-dsDNA, anti-Sm, antiphospholipid)
Neurologic disorders (eg, seizures, psychosis)

32
Q

Most common death causes in LES

A

[patients die with Redness In their Cheeks]

Renal failure (mosto common)
Infections
Cardiovasculare disease

33
Q

Libman Sacks Endocarditis (LSE)

A

LES

34
Q

Gout involvements

A

first MTP joint (podagra) and the midfoot,
knees
ankles
wrists

the hips and shoulders are generally spared.

35
Q

Difference between Cushing Syndrome and Cushing Disease

A

Cushing’s syndrome = too much cortisol.

Cushing’s disease = too much cortisol from an ACTH-producing pituitary adenoma.

36
Q

Most frequent cause of Cushing syndrome

A

Iatrogenic

37
Q

Differences between ENDOGENOUS insulin and EXOGENOUS insulin

A

EXOGENOUS insulin lacks of C-peptides

38
Q

Farmaco anti diabetico spesso associato a ipoglicemie

A

Sulfaniluree

39
Q

Oral drugs in diabetes

A

[Be Sure My Grey Dog Swallows ALFA]

Biguanidi
Sulfoniluree
Metglinidi
Glitiazioni/tiazolidinedioni
DPP-4 inibitori
Sodio-Glucosio cotrasporto (SGLT2) inibitori
Alfa glucosidasi inibitori
40
Q

Patogenesi dell’anemia di Kwasharkior

A

anemia da carenza proteica

41
Q

Cos’è lo hiatus leucaemicus

A

assenza di forme di maturazione intermedia nel sangue periferico

42
Q

Differences between Direct Coombs test and Indirect Coombs test

A

Direct Coombs test—anti-Ig antibody (Coombs
reagent) added to patient’s RBCs. RBCs
agglutinate if RBCs are coated with Ig.

Indirect Coombs test—normal RBCs added to
patient’s serum. If serum has anti-RBC surface
Ig, RBCs agglutinate when Coombs reagent
added.

The indirect Coombs’ test detects
antibodies to RBCs in the patient’s
serum. The direct Coombs’ test detects
sensitized erythrocytes.

43
Q

Pulse pressure

A

sistolic pressure-diastolic pressure

Pulse pressure is proportional to SV (gittata sistolica), inversely proportional to arterial compliance

PP increases:

  • hyperthyroidism,
  • aortic regurgitation,
  • aortic stiffening (systolic hypertension in elderly),
  • obstructive sleep apnea
  • anemia,
  • exercise (transient).

PP decreases

  • aortic stenosis,
  • cardiogenic shock,
  • advanced heart failure (HF).
  • cardiac tamponade,
44
Q

Cardiac Contractility when does increase and decrease? What is the best contractility index?

A

Contractility INCREASES

  • Catecholamine stimulation via β1 receptor:
  • intracellular Ca2+
  • LESS extracellular Na+
  • Digitalis

Contractility DECREASES

  • β1-blockade
  • HF with systolic dysfunction
  • Acidosis
  • Hypoxia/hypercapnia ( Po2/  Pco2)
  • Non-dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers

FE is the best index contractility

45
Q

Frazione di eiezione

A

EF = gittata sistolica/EDV(end diastolic volume)

= (EDV-ESV)/EDV

46
Q

Cardiac sounds features

A

S1—mitral and tricuspid valve closure.
S2—aortic and pulmonary valve closure.
S3—in early diastole during rapid ventricular
filling phase. Associated with increased filling
pressures (eg, mitral regurgitation, HF) and
more common in dilated ventricles (but can
be normal in children, young adults, and
pregnant women).
S4—in late diastole (“atrial kick”). (Best heard
at apex with patient in left lateral decubitus
position). High atrial pressure. Associated with
ventricular noncompliance (eg, hypertrophy).
Left atrium must push against stiff LV wall.
Consider abnormal, regardless of patient age.

47
Q

Jugular venous pulse

A

A WAVE—Atrial contraction (absent in atrial
fibrillation).
C WAVE—right ventricol Contraction (closed tricuspid valve bulging into atrium).
X DESCEND—downward displacement of closed
tricuspid valve during rapid ventricular ejection phase (reduced or absent in tricuspid regurgitation and right heart failure)
V WAVE—increasing right atrial pressure due to filling
(“Villing”) against closed tricuspid valve.
Y DESCEND—right atrial emptYing into right ventricole. (prominent in constrictive pericarditis, absent in cardiac
tamponade)

48
Q

Filtro di Kim Ray Greenfield

A

Filtro per la prevenzione dell’embolia polmomonare

49
Q

Manovre cliniche per la trombosi venosa profonda

A

-Segno di Homan: flessione dorsale forzata del piede evoca dolore al polpaccio.
-Segno di Bauer: dolore evocato comprimendo la muscolatura surale contro la membrana interossea
Segno di Laurel: dolore al polpaccio durante il colpo di tosse

50
Q

Terapia TVP

A 
-Use unfractionated heparin or low-molecularweight
heparins (eg, enoxaparin) for
prophylaxis and acute management.
-Use oral anticoagulants (eg, warfarin,
rivaroxaban) for treatment (long-term
prevention).
51
Q

Doppia aggregazione profilattica post intervento di angioplastica coronarica con BMS (bare metal stent) e con stent medicato

A

BMS: 1 mese

Stent medicato: 1 anno

52
Q

Definizione spondilolistesi

A

Scivolamento di una vertebra su quella sottostante

53
Q

Valgismo e Varismo

A

Alterato rapporto tra gli ossi di due segmenti ossei contigui che vengono a formare un angolo ottuso aperto all’esterno

vaRismo=Rombo
valgismo=imbuto

54
Q

Malattia di Pott (sintomi)

A

Paraplegia, dolore, gibbo (marcata sporgenza dorsale di una o più vertebre)

55
Q

Malattia di De Quervain (def)

A

Tenosinovite cronica stenosante della guaina comune dei muscoli: breve estensore e lungo abduttore del pollice

56
Q

Onde e intervalli ecg

A

-Onda P (depolarizzazione atri) 0,05-0,12 sec
-QRS (depolarizzazione ventricoli) <0,12 sec
-Onda T: (ripolarizzazione ventricoli) 0,18-0,20 sec
-Onda U: prominent in hypokalemia (think
hyp“U”kalemia), bradycardia.

  • Inter. PR: 0,16-0,20 sec
  • Inter. ST: 0,27 – 0,33 sec
  • Inter. QT: <0,44 sec (QTc>0,44 QT lungo)

-Inter RR: 0,8-0,9 sec

57
Q

Drug-induced long QT

A

[ABCDE]

AntiArrhythmics (class IA, III)
AntiBiotics (eg, macrolides)
Anti“C”ychotics (eg, haloperidol)
AntiDepressants (eg, TCAs)
AntiEmetics (eg, ondansetron)
58
Q

Congenital long QT syndrome

A
  • Romano-Ward syndrome—autosomal dominant, pure cardiac phenotype .
  • Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome— autosomal recessive, sensorineural deafness.
59
Q

Brugada syndrome

A
  • Autosomal dominant
  • ECG: pseudo blocco di branca destra e sopraST in V1-V3
  • Prevent SCD with implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)
60
Q

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

A
  • DELTA wave with widened QRS complex and shortened PR interval on ECG.
  • Reentry circuit
  • Supraventricular tachycardia
61
Q

Q waves in trasmural infarct

A

Onda Q>0,40 sec o di ampiezza >1/3 del complesso QRS

62
Q

Blocco di branca SINISTRA e DESTRA

A

SINISTRA

  • QRS>0,12 sec
  • no R, ma S ampie in V1,
  • R alte e ampie in D1, V5, V6

DESTRA

  • QRS>0,12 sec, RSR’ (rabbit ears)
  • qR o ampie R in V1
  • ampie S in D1, V5, V6
63
Q

Segno di Trendelemburg

A

Displasia congenita dell’anca

64
Q

Artrodesi

A

Azione chirurgica che trasforma una qualsiasi articolazione da mobile a statica .Può essere definita come una “anchilosi chirurgica”.

65
Q

Constant-Murley score

A

Determines the functionality after the treatment of a shoulder injury

Medicina (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions