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1
Q

Advection fog:
Occurs only at night and early morning
Is most likely with Polar Maritime Air
will only clear by insolation
can sometimes last for 24 hours in winter

A

can sometimes last 24 hours or more in winter

advection fog is war moist air over colder surface,
so it can form at any time of the day, polar maritime air is not the most likely source, can disperse without insolation

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2
Q

Making approach and no landing clearance received from a non-radar traffic controller, must initiate missed approach:
5 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM
4NM
2NM

A

2NM

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3
Q

When can one start an NDB approach:
When the cloud base is above system minimum
With any cloud base
When the cloud base is above 36’
When the cloud base report is received

A

Anytime.
Keyword is start.
Cannot continue however beyond the OM (PA) or 1000’ (NPA) if reported RVR/Vis is below minimum

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4
Q

RVR limit for Cat A airplane, with HI Edge and Center lights, and crew is IFR qualified / approved:
150m if threshold RVR is available
150m
200m
250m

A

200 m

(it would be 250m for Cat D acft)
for 150 we’d need multiple RVR info, OR RVR/Vis can be replaced with pilot assesment, so that answer is exclusionary; also it’s not explicitly stated that RVR/Vis not available

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5
Q

What is the cause of induced AoA?
Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity in he wing tips
Change in flow from effective AoA
The upward inclination of the free stream flow around the wing tips
Wing downwash altering the angle at which the airflow meets the tailplane

A

Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity of the wing tips

It is formed between the local relative wind (or effective airflow) that is redirected by the downwash of the finite wing, and the free stream air.
AoA = AoAi + AoAeff
Di = AoAi

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6
Q

According to EASA Part-FCL, the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) holder are to conduct CPL(A) instruction, provided:
The FI has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the past 12 months
The FI has completed at least 500 hours flight time PiC, including 200 hours of instruction,
The FI has completed 200 hours instruction,
Without restriction

A

500 hours of flight time as PiC including 200 hours of instruction

Specifically,
500 hours on type,
200 hours of flight time under IFR (50 may be ground time)
200 hours of flight instruction
All applicable certificates
For ME, meet the requirements of the issue of a CRI

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7
Q

Independent parralel approaches receiving vectors, minimum distance before intercepting an ILS (or MLS final approach track):
2.5NM before glide slope
1.5NM before glide slope
3.0NM before glide slope
2.0NM before glide slope

A

2.0NM before glide slope;
Specifically:
Distance between RWYs not less than 1035m
Missed approach point to divert at lest 30 degrees
At least 2NM straight and level before G/S intercept
At least 1NM straight and level before LOC intercept

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8
Q

FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:
30 hours of operation
48 hours of operation
10 hours of operation
the whole flight

A

10 hours of operation

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9
Q

if the stalling speed at 15 degree bank is 60kts, how much is it at 45 degrees bank?
83kt
70kt
85kt
60kt

A

70kt
The formula is Vs = Vs1g * (1/Cos PHi)^1/2
From that Vs is 58.96
58.96*(1/Cos45)^1/2 is 70.1

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10
Q

Regarding magnetism: Lines of flux run from:
Blue to red
Red to blue

A

From red, north seeking pole to blue, south seeking pole

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11
Q

MDH referenced to the threshold and not to ARP if:

A

Threshold is more than 2m below the ARP

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12
Q

TRS usually:
From close to one side of the equator and while moving slowly in a western direction, cross over to the other hemisphere
Move in a westerly direction before recurving towards the equator
Move in an easterly direction before recurving towards the nearest pole
Do not form within 5 degrees of the equator

A

Do not form within 5 degrees of the equator
the Coriolis force is too low. Also they do not form above 25 degrees, as its too cold

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13
Q

The principle of operation of firewire is
A positive coefficient of impedance, negative coefficient of inductance
B positive coefficient of resistance, negative coefficient of capacitance
C positive coefficient of inductance, negative coefficient of impedance
D positive coefficient of capacitance, negative coefficient of resistance

A

positive coefficient of capacitance, negative coefficient of resistance
2 in 1 system:
resistance type: the resistance of the insulating material will decrease with temperature.
Capacitance type: an increase in temperature will increase in capacitance

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14
Q

The maximum theoretical range of a radar is determined by:
power
PW
beamwidth
PRF

A

PRF

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15
Q

When take-off mass is limited by Vmbe, an increase in the uphill slope will:
Have no effect
require a decrease in mass
allow an increase in mass
decrease the TODR

A

Allow an increase in the mass

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16
Q

Airfield operating minim, what is the lowest MDH:
A - NDB - MDH 350’
B - VOR - MDH 250’
C - ILS (LLZ only) DH 200’
D - VOR/DME - MDH 300’

A

NDB - MDH 350’

NDB-DME is 300’
LLZ only is 250’
VOR only is 300’
VOR DME is 250’

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17
Q

To obtain Heading information from a gyro stabilized platform, the gyros should have:
1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis
1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis
2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

A

1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis

the gyro-s on an INS platform are on only 1 degree of freedom.

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18
Q

What is the minimum width for a code 4 runway?
40m
45m
50m
35m

A

45m

(30m for code 3, 23 and 18 for code 2 and 1)

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19
Q

Regarding thunderstorms:
There will always be windshear under the cloud
The average movement is in accord the 10000’ wind
IF the cloud base has a temperature of 0C, then freezing rain will occur
The number of lighting flashes is directly proportional to the degree of turbulence

A

The average movement is in accord the 10000’ wind

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20
Q

The outputs of a flux valve are initially sent to:
An amplifier
An error detector
A compass card
A feedback loop

A

An error detector

The detector unit (flux valve)’s signal is compared to that of the compass, this is done in the error detector; the error is amplified and fed to the precession motor, and keeps it running until the gyro and the flux valve are aligned again, and the error is nil

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21
Q

VLO definition

A

Max landing gear operation speed (extension or retraction

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22
Q

Changes in RVR are reported in increments of:
25m up to 400m
25m up to 250m
50 between 300 and 800
50 between 500 and 800

A

25m up to 400m

then 50 meter increments between 400m and 800m,
and 100 meter increments above 800m

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23
Q

in ILS mode, 1 dot on the lateral scale indicates:
1NM
2NM
1 degree
2 degrees

A

1 degree

lateral scale

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24
Q

NPA MDH 250’, minimum viz 800m. ATC gives threshold, mid-rwy and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started?

When threshold and mid-rwy RVRs are greater than 800m
When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m
When the met viz is greater than 800m, RVR is for PA
When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

A

When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

for an NPA we need at least 750m RVR, or 600m in case of APV

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25
Q

A cyclist of 40kg exerting a force of 300N to move his bicycle with an acceleration of 3.5m/s^2. How much is the friction force between the pavement and the wheel?
200N
180N
220N
160N

A

160N

F=MA = 40*3.5 = 160N
The rest is lost in friction

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26
Q

The amber ALERT sign on an INS control and display unit:
Illuminates steadily for 2 mins before the next WP
Starts flashing 2 minutes before reaching the next WP, and goes out 30 seconds to run
Illuminates if the main power goes out
Illuminates steadily after passing a WP in manual mode, until the next leg is programmed in

A

Illuminates steadily for 2 mins before reaching the next WP

The ALERT announciator is for for this purpose, in AUTO the light will come on 2 mins in and goes out at the track change over the WP,
in MANUAL it comes on 2 mins in and starts flashing 30 seconds in, and continues to flash until the track is changed
Also the announciator will not illuminate below a set speed (100 or 250 kts typically)

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27
Q

Radalt frequency band:
VHF 30 - 300 MHz
SHF 3000 MHz - 30 GHz
UHF 300 MHz - 3 GHz
HF 3MHz - 30MHz

A

4200-4400 MHz so SHF 3 - 30GH band

28
Q

uphill slope effect on MBE:

No effect
Require a decrease in mass
allow an increase in mass
decrease the TODR

A

Allow an increase in mass

29
Q

The critical zone of hypoxia begins at:
18000’
20000’
23000’
3600’

A

20000’

Indifferent till 10000’
Compensatory till 15000’
Disturbance till 20000’
critical zone from 20 to 23000’

30
Q

What is the most northern destination

A

Tromsö

31
Q

1 ha in m^2

A

10000

32
Q

Tailwind on take-off will not affect:
Climb limit mass
obstacle clearance
field limit mass
VMBE

A

Climb limit mass

its calculated for still air

33
Q

What is the cause of induced angle of attack?
Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity of the wingtips
Change in flow from effective AoA
The upward inclination of the free stream flow around the wing tips
Wing downwash altering the angle at which the airflow meets the tailplane

A

Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity of the wing tips

34
Q

RNP1 route, at or below FL190 all turns within 30 and 90 degrees shall be within a radius of:
10NM
15NM
22.5NM
30NM

A

15NM

35
Q

When considering the lift and drag forces on an aerofoil section
A they are only normal to eachother at one angle of attack
B they both depend on the pressure distribution of the aerofoil section
C they vary linearly
D lift is proportional to drag

A

B they both depend on the pressure distribution on the aerofoil section

36
Q

Which law is relevant to decompression sickness?
Boyle’s law
Henry’s law
Dalton’s law
combined gas law

A

Henry’s law

At equilibrium, the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the gas pressure

37
Q

An error applicable to VDF would be
Synchronous transmission
scalloping
selective availability
garbling

A

Synchronous transmission
it’s when 2 or more aircraft will cause momentary errors in bearings

Scalloping is for VOR-s and due to terrain reflection
Selective availability is deliberate GNSS service degradation (S/A)
Garbling is for SSR, overlap of two or more transponders with nearly the same bearing from the ground station

38
Q

If flaps are extended in level flight:
list and drag increase
CLMAX increases
CL and drag increases
CL increases

A

CLMAX increases

It’s level flight… lift and drag increases will be compensated by reduced AoA and speed. But CLMAX will increase

39
Q

When was Wizz founded?

A

Sept 2003

40
Q

A clearway is established to:
Protect the aircraft during take-off and landing
Enable stop in case of an aborted takeoff
Enable the aircraft to make part of the initial climb to a specified altitude
Decrease risk of damage to an aircraft that overrun the runway

A

Enable the aircraft to make part of the initial climb to a specified altitude

Length of the clearway may be included in the TODA…

41
Q

SFC definition
Is it affected by C of G ?

A

Fuel used per unit of thrust
No, the engine runs the same within normal operating parameters

42
Q

purpose of the volumetric top off unit (VTO):
To keep the feeder box full at all times
To close the fuelling when the tank is full
To close the surge check valves in the outboard tanks to keep the tank full until the centre tank is emptied
to close the tank vent system when the tank is full

A

To close the fuelling when the tank is full

43
Q

Flight plan amended in case of a delay in excess of:
30 mins to EOBT
30 mins to ETD

A

30 mins to EOBT

44
Q

Flap deployment will cause what?
Pitch up
Pitch down
Depends on CG

A

Depends on CG
The centre of pressure will move back, causing pitch-down
The downwash will be changed due to the change in position at the trailing edge of the wing. This will generate nose-up
Whicever is dominant will depend on CG position

45
Q

O2 cylinders are normally charged to
1000 psi
1200 psi
1800 psi
2000 psi

A

1800 psi

46
Q

Fog may be defined as
viz reduction to 1000 metres due to the presence of
water vapour or
water droplets

A

Water droplets

47
Q

Which of the following statements are correct:
1. highest levels of ionization will be experienced in low latitudes
2. ionization levels increase linearly with increasing altitude
3. the lowest levels of ionization occur and midnight
4. the E-layer is higher by night than by day because ionization levels are lower at night

A

1 and 4 are correct:
low latitudes get more sun, so more ionization
the increase is not linear, it’s layered (D, E, F layer)
E layer is always present and indeed higher at night

48
Q

Flying straight and level and constant IAS, when flaps are deployed, induced drag:
Increases
Decreases
Stays the same

A

Stays the same.
it’s induced drag and not total drag that is questioned
since it’s constant IAS and level flight, the AoA will be decreased and power will be increased to maintain that. End result is having the same induced drag.

49
Q

One shall not initiate an IFR flight unless information indicate that at the destination aerodrome, conditions are predicted to be

equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use at ETA

or

equal to minimum conditons for a reasonable time before and after ETA

A

equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use at ETA

The question is about operating minima, not planning minima

50
Q

It can be expected that the depth of the friction layer over the UK will be

Greater in Polar maritime air due to the instability and moderate wind
Greater in Tropical maritime air due to the warm temperature
Greater in Polar continental air due to the very low temperatures
Greater in Tropical continental air due to relatively high temperatures in winter

A

Greater in Polar maritime air due to the instability and moderate wind

Depth of the friction layer depends on
Terrain roughness
Wind speed (the higher, the greater)
Air mass stability

51
Q

The altitude readout of a Mode C ground station will give the altitude within
300’
100’
50’
500’

A

50’
The display is in 100’ increments but the measurement is by 50’

52
Q

A DME recognises its own interrogating pulses because
Each pulse has its own unique modulation
The PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered
Each acft has a different time interval within the pulse pairs which is replicated by the transponder

A

The PRF interrogating pulses are jittered

53
Q

In which bang does the ILS operate?
Metric
Centimetric
Decimetric
Hectometric

A

Decimetric
(UHF)

54
Q

The ILS glide slope coverage with reference to the localizer centerline is:
+/- 10° to 8NM
+/- 10° to 25NM
+/-8° to 10NM
+/-35° to 17NM

A

+/-8° to 10NM
The question is on GS, LOC is the reference

LOC: 25NM at +/-10
17NM at +/- 10-35
10NM at outside +/- 35 if provided

GS
10NM at +/- 8
0.45 below 1.75 above.
Lower limit can be 0.30 if required

55
Q

The contents of the navigation and systems message include
A satellite clock error, almanac, ionospheric propagation information
B satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error
C position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error

A

Satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information

56
Q

NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by

A

Adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error

57
Q

The PRN codes are used to
Determine the time interval between the satellite transmission and the receipt at the receiver
Pass ephemeris and clock data to the receivers
Sync satellite and receiver clocks
Determine the range of the satellites from the receiver

A

Determine the time interval

58
Q

Grivation meaning

A

Combination of variation and grid convergence

59
Q

How does scale change on a mercator chart?
Expands as the cosine of the latitude
Expands directly with the secant of the latitude
Expands as the secant of the EW great circle distance

A

Expands with the secant

Scale at any latitude = scale at equator * sec lat

60
Q

What is the highest latitude listed below that the sun will rise above the horizon every day?
68
66
62
72

A

66
66 ½ the Arctic circle

61
Q

Departure equation

A

Departure = change of longitude (in minutes) *cos latitude

62
Q

What is the aphelion, the perihelion, and when are they?

A

Farthest from the sun: Aphelion: July
Perihelion: January

63
Q

Isogonal lines converge:
At the magnetic North Pole
At the North and south magnetic and both geographical poles
At the North and south magnetic poles
At the magnetic equator

A

Both at the North and south magnetic and geographical poles
Since they’re lines that connect equal variation

64
Q

Certified transport category aircraft with less than 10 seats:
May simply accept verbal mass of each passenger
May estimate the total mass of the passengers and add a pre-determined constant to account for hand baggage handling
May compute the actual mass of passengers and checked baggage
All of the above

A

All of the above

65
Q

At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change the most rapidly?
Spring and autumn equinox
Summer and winter solstice
Spring equinox and summer solstice
Autumn equinox and winter solstice

A

Spring and autumn equinox
The largest change is at the equinox (March and Sept 21), the smallest is at the solstices

66
Q

At what latitude does the maximum difference between geodetic and geocentric latitude occur?

A

45 degrees
Imagine the earth cross-section and the two perpendiculars from the two circles

67
Q

A lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80. A straight line course drawn from A (53N 004W) to B is 80 degrees at A, course at B is 92 degrees. What is the longitude of B?

A

011 E
On lambert charts the meridians are straight lines, so convergence does not change with latitude. This gives the following formula:
Chart convergence = change of longitude * sin parallel of origin
12 degrees = change of longitude * 0.8
Change of longitude = 15 degrees

Aviation & General knowledge (20 decks)

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