Flagged questions overview Flashcards

1
Q

Advection fog:
Occurs only at night and early morning
Is most likely with Polar Maritime Air
will only clear by insolation
can sometimes last for 24 hours in winter

A

can sometimes last 24 hours or more in winter

advection fog is war moist air over colder surface,
so it can form at any time of the day, polar maritime air is not the most likely source, can disperse without insolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Making approach and no landing clearance received from a non-radar traffic controller, must initiate missed approach:
5 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM
4NM
2NM

A

2NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When can one start an NDB approach:
When the cloud base is above system minimum
With any cloud base
When the cloud base is above 36’
When the cloud base report is received

A

Anytime.
Keyword is start.
Cannot continue however beyond the OM (PA) or 1000’ (NPA) if reported RVR/Vis is below minimum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RVR limit for Cat A airplane, with HI Edge and Center lights, and crew is IFR qualified / approved:
150m if threshold RVR is available
150m
200m
250m

A

200 m

(it would be 250m for Cat D acft)
for 150 we’d need multiple RVR info, OR RVR/Vis can be replaced with pilot assesment, so that answer is exclusionary; also it’s not explicitly stated that RVR/Vis not available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the cause of induced AoA?
Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity in he wing tips
Change in flow from effective AoA
The upward inclination of the free stream flow around the wing tips
Wing downwash altering the angle at which the airflow meets the tailplane

A

Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity of the wing tips

It is formed between the local relative wind (or effective airflow) that is redirected by the downwash of the finite wing, and the free stream air.
AoA = AoAi + AoAeff
Di = AoAi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

According to EASA Part-FCL, the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) holder are to conduct CPL(A) instruction, provided:
The FI has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the past 12 months
The FI has completed at least 500 hours flight time PiC, including 200 hours of instruction,
The FI has completed 200 hours instruction,
Without restriction

A

500 hours of flight time as PiC including 200 hours of instruction

Specifically,
500 hours on type,
200 hours of flight time under IFR (50 may be ground time)
200 hours of flight instruction
All applicable certificates
For ME, meet the requirements of the issue of a CRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Independent parralel approaches receiving vectors, minimum distance before intercepting an ILS (or MLS final approach track):
2.5NM before glide slope
1.5NM before glide slope
3.0NM before glide slope
2.0NM before glide slope

A

2.0NM before glide slope;
Specifically:
Distance between RWYs not less than 1035m
Missed approach point to divert at lest 30 degrees
At least 2NM straight and level before G/S intercept
At least 1NM straight and level before LOC intercept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:
30 hours of operation
48 hours of operation
10 hours of operation
the whole flight

A

10 hours of operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if the stalling speed at 15 degree bank is 60kts, how much is it at 45 degrees bank?
83kt
70kt
85kt
60kt

A

70kt
The formula is Vs = Vs1g * (1/Cos PHi)^1/2
From that Vs is 58.96
58.96*(1/Cos45)^1/2 is 70.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Regarding magnetism: Lines of flux run from:
Blue to red
Red to blue

A

From red, north seeking pole to blue, south seeking pole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MDH referenced to the threshold and not to ARP if:

A

Threshold is more than 2m below the ARP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TRS usually:
From close to one side of the equator and while moving slowly in a western direction, cross over to the other hemisphere
Move in a westerly direction before recurving towards the equator
Move in an easterly direction before recurving towards the nearest pole
Do not form within 5 degrees of the equator

A

Do not form within 5 degrees of the equator
the Coriolis force is too low. Also they do not form above 25 degrees, as its too cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The principle of operation of firewire is
A positive coefficient of impedance, negative coefficient of inductance
B positive coefficient of resistance, negative coefficient of capacitance
C positive coefficient of inductance, negative coefficient of impedance
D positive coefficient of capacitance, negative coefficient of resistance

A

positive coefficient of capacitance, negative coefficient of resistance
2 in 1 system:
resistance type: the resistance of the insulating material will decrease with temperature.
Capacitance type: an increase in temperature will increase in capacitance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The maximum theoretical range of a radar is determined by:
power
PW
beamwidth
PRF

A

PRF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When take-off mass is limited by Vmbe, an increase in the uphill slope will:
Have no effect
require a decrease in mass
allow an increase in mass
decrease the TODR

A

Allow an increase in the mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Airfield operating minim, what is the lowest MDH:
A - NDB - MDH 350’
B - VOR - MDH 250’
C - ILS (LLZ only) DH 200’
D - VOR/DME - MDH 300’

A

NDB - MDH 350’

NDB-DME is 300’
LLZ only is 250’
VOR only is 300’
VOR DME is 250’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

To obtain Heading information from a gyro stabilized platform, the gyros should have:
1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis
1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis
2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

A

1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis

the gyro-s on an INS platform are on only 1 degree of freedom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the minimum width for a code 4 runway?
40m
45m
50m
35m

A

45m

(30m for code 3, 23 and 18 for code 2 and 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Regarding thunderstorms:
There will always be windshear under the cloud
The average movement is in accord the 10000’ wind
IF the cloud base has a temperature of 0C, then freezing rain will occur
The number of lighting flashes is directly proportional to the degree of turbulence

A

The average movement is in accord the 10000’ wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The outputs of a flux valve are initially sent to:
An amplifier
An error detector
A compass card
A feedback loop

A

An error detector

The detector unit (flux valve)’s signal is compared to that of the compass, this is done in the error detector; the error is amplified and fed to the precession motor, and keeps it running until the gyro and the flux valve are aligned again, and the error is nil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

VLO definition

A

Max landing gear operation speed (extension or retraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Changes in RVR are reported in increments of:
25m up to 400m
25m up to 250m
50 between 300 and 800
50 between 500 and 800

A

25m up to 400m

then 50 meter increments between 400m and 800m,
and 100 meter increments above 800m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

in ILS mode, 1 dot on the lateral scale indicates:
1NM
2NM
1 degree
2 degrees

A

1 degree

lateral scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

NPA MDH 250’, minimum viz 800m. ATC gives threshold, mid-rwy and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started?

When threshold and mid-rwy RVRs are greater than 800m
When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m
When the met viz is greater than 800m, RVR is for PA
When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

A

When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

for an NPA we need at least 750m RVR, or 600m in case of APV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A cyclist of 40kg exerting a force of 300N to move his bicycle with an acceleration of 3.5m/s^2. How much is the friction force between the pavement and the wheel? 200N 180N 220N 160N
160N F=MA = 40*3.5 = 160N The rest is lost in friction
26
The amber ALERT sign on an INS control and display unit: Illuminates steadily for 2 mins before the next WP Starts flashing 2 minutes before reaching the next WP, and goes out 30 seconds to run Illuminates if the main power goes out Illuminates steadily after passing a WP in manual mode, until the next leg is programmed in
Illuminates steadily for 2 mins before reaching the next WP The ALERT announciator is for for this purpose, in AUTO the light will come on 2 mins in and goes out at the track change over the WP, in MANUAL it comes on 2 mins in and starts flashing 30 seconds in, and continues to flash until the track is changed Also the announciator will not illuminate below a set speed (100 or 250 kts typically)
27
Radalt frequency band: VHF 30 - 300 MHz SHF 3000 MHz - 30 GHz UHF 300 MHz - 3 GHz HF 3MHz - 30MHz
4200-4400 MHz so SHF 3 - 30GH band
28
uphill slope effect on MBE: No effect Require a decrease in mass allow an increase in mass decrease the TODR
Allow an increase in mass
29
The critical zone of hypoxia begins at: 18000' 20000' 23000' 3600'
20000' Indifferent till 10000' Compensatory till 15000' Disturbance till 20000' critical zone from 20 to 23000'
30
What is the most northern destination
Tromsö
31
1 ha in m^2
10000
32
Tailwind on take-off will not affect: Climb limit mass obstacle clearance field limit mass VMBE
Climb limit mass its calculated for still air
33
What is the cause of induced angle of attack? Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity of the wingtips Change in flow from effective AoA The upward inclination of the free stream flow around the wing tips Wing downwash altering the angle at which the airflow meets the tailplane
Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity of the wing tips
34
RNP1 route, at or below FL190 all turns within 30 and 90 degrees shall be within a radius of: 10NM 15NM 22.5NM 30NM
15NM
35
When considering the lift and drag forces on an aerofoil section A they are only normal to eachother at one angle of attack B they both depend on the pressure distribution of the aerofoil section C they vary linearly D lift is proportional to drag
B they both depend on the pressure distribution on the aerofoil section
36
Which law is relevant to decompression sickness? Boyle's law Henry's law Dalton's law combined gas law
Henry's law At equilibrium, the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the gas pressure
37
An error applicable to VDF would be Synchronous transmission scalloping selective availability garbling
Synchronous transmission it's when 2 or more aircraft will cause momentary errors in bearings Scalloping is for VOR-s and due to terrain reflection Selective availability is deliberate GNSS service degradation (S/A) Garbling is for SSR, overlap of two or more transponders with nearly the same bearing from the ground station
38
If flaps are extended in level flight: list and drag increase CLMAX increases CL and drag increases CL increases
CLMAX increases It's level flight... lift and drag increases will be compensated by reduced AoA and speed. But CLMAX will increase
39
When was Wizz founded?
Sept 2003
40
A clearway is established to: Protect the aircraft during take-off and landing Enable stop in case of an aborted takeoff Enable the aircraft to make part of the initial climb to a specified altitude Decrease risk of damage to an aircraft that overrun the runway
Enable the aircraft to make part of the initial climb to a specified altitude Length of the clearway may be included in the TODA...
41
SFC definition Is it affected by C of G ?
Fuel used per unit of thrust No, the engine runs the same within normal operating parameters
42
purpose of the volumetric top off unit (VTO): To keep the feeder box full at all times To close the fuelling when the tank is full To close the surge check valves in the outboard tanks to keep the tank full until the centre tank is emptied to close the tank vent system when the tank is full
To close the fuelling when the tank is full
43
Flight plan amended in case of a delay in excess of: 30 mins to EOBT 30 mins to ETD
30 mins to EOBT
44
Flap deployment will cause what? Pitch up Pitch down Depends on CG
Depends on CG The centre of pressure will move back, causing pitch-down The downwash will be changed due to the change in position at the trailing edge of the wing. This will generate nose-up Whicever is dominant will depend on CG position
45
O2 cylinders are normally charged to 1000 psi 1200 psi 1800 psi 2000 psi
1800 psi
46
Fog may be defined as viz reduction to 1000 metres due to the presence of water vapour or water droplets
Water droplets
47
Which of the following statements are correct: 1. highest levels of ionization will be experienced in low latitudes 2. ionization levels increase linearly with increasing altitude 3. the lowest levels of ionization occur and midnight 4. the E-layer is higher by night than by day because ionization levels are lower at night
1 and 4 are correct: low latitudes get more sun, so more ionization the increase is not linear, it's layered (D, E, F layer) E layer is always present and indeed higher at night
48
Flying straight and level and constant IAS, when flaps are deployed, induced drag: Increases Decreases Stays the same
Stays the same. it's induced drag and not total drag that is questioned since it's constant IAS and level flight, the AoA will be decreased and power will be increased to maintain that. End result is having the same induced drag.
49
One shall not initiate an IFR flight unless information indicate that at the destination aerodrome, conditions are predicted to be equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use at ETA or equal to minimum conditons for a reasonable time before and after ETA
equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use at ETA The question is about operating minima, not planning minima
50
It can be expected that the depth of the friction layer over the UK will be Greater in Polar maritime air due to the instability and moderate wind Greater in Tropical maritime air due to the warm temperature Greater in Polar continental air due to the very low temperatures Greater in Tropical continental air due to relatively high temperatures in winter
Greater in Polar maritime air due to the instability and moderate wind Depth of the friction layer depends on Terrain roughness Wind speed (the higher, the greater) Air mass stability
51
The altitude readout of a Mode C ground station will give the altitude within 300' 100' 50' 500'
50' The display is in 100' increments but the measurement is by 50'
52
A DME recognises its own interrogating pulses because Each pulse has its own unique modulation The PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered Each acft has a different time interval within the pulse pairs which is replicated by the transponder
The PRF interrogating pulses are jittered
53
In which bang does the ILS operate? Metric Centimetric Decimetric Hectometric
Decimetric (UHF)
54
The ILS glide slope coverage with reference to the localizer centerline is: +/- 10° to 8NM +/- 10° to 25NM +/-8° to 10NM +/-35° to 17NM
+/-8° to 10NM The question is on GS, LOC is the reference LOC: 25NM at +/-10 17NM at +/- 10-35 10NM at outside +/- 35 if provided GS 10NM at +/- 8 0.45 below 1.75 above. Lower limit can be 0.30 if required
55
The contents of the navigation and systems message include A satellite clock error, almanac, ionospheric propagation information B satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error C position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error
Satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information
56
NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by
Adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error
57
The PRN codes are used to Determine the time interval between the satellite transmission and the receipt at the receiver Pass ephemeris and clock data to the receivers Sync satellite and receiver clocks Determine the range of the satellites from the receiver
Determine the time interval
58
Grivation meaning
Combination of variation and grid convergence
59
How does scale change on a mercator chart? Expands as the cosine of the latitude Expands directly with the secant of the latitude Expands as the secant of the EW great circle distance
Expands with the secant Scale at any latitude = scale at equator * sec lat
60
What is the highest latitude listed below that the sun will rise above the horizon every day? 68 66 62 72
66 66 ½ the Arctic circle
61
Departure equation
Departure = change of longitude (in minutes) *cos latitude
62
What is the aphelion, the perihelion, and when are they?
Farthest from the sun: Aphelion: July Perihelion: January
63
Isogonal lines converge: At the magnetic North Pole At the North and south magnetic and both geographical poles At the North and south magnetic poles At the magnetic equator
Both at the North and south magnetic and geographical poles Since they're lines that connect equal variation
64
Certified transport category aircraft with less than 10 seats: May simply accept verbal mass of each passenger May estimate the total mass of the passengers and add a pre-determined constant to account for hand baggage handling May compute the actual mass of passengers and checked baggage All of the above
All of the above
65
At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change the most rapidly? Spring and autumn equinox Summer and winter solstice Spring equinox and summer solstice Autumn equinox and winter solstice
Spring and autumn equinox The largest change is at the equinox (March and Sept 21), the smallest is at the solstices
66
At what latitude does the maximum difference between geodetic and geocentric latitude occur?
45 degrees Imagine the earth cross-section and the two perpendiculars from the two circles
67
A lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80. A straight line course drawn from A (53N 004W) to B is 80 degrees at A, course at B is 92 degrees. What is the longitude of B?
011 E On lambert charts the meridians are straight lines, so convergence does not change with latitude. This gives the following formula: Chart convergence = change of longitude * sin parallel of origin 12 degrees = change of longitude * 0.8 Change of longitude = 15 degrees
68
Locator / Localizer abbreviations
LLZ Localizer LOC Local LO Locator outer LM Locator middle
69
Duty time limits, 7 / 14 / 28 days
60 / 100 / 190 hours
70
Flight time limits 28 days, calendar year, 12 month period
100 / 900 / 1000 hours
71
Vat speed calculation
1.3 times Vso in landing config or 1.23 times Vs1g at MLM Whichever is higher
72