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Z.Fiser > Fiser.01.CellBiology > Flashcards

Fiser.01.CellBiology Flashcards

1
Q

Name three types of proteins contained in the lipid bilayer

A

Channels, enzymes, receptors

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2
Q

What component of the cell membrane increases fluidity?

A

Cholesterol

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3
Q

How many sodium and potassium ions are pumped by the Na/K-ATPase and in which direction?

A

3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in

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4
Q

What is the relative charge intracellularly vs extracellularly

A

Cells are negative intracellularly relative to extracellularly

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5
Q

What is the Na+ gradient used for in terms of the cell membrane?

A

Used for co-transport of glucose, proteins

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6
Q

What is the function of desmosomes / hemidesmosomes?

A

Adhesion molecules, anchor cells

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7
Q

What type of adhesion do desmosomes do?

A

Cell-cell adhesions

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8
Q

What type of adhesion do hemidesmosomes do?

A

Cell-ECM adhesions

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9
Q

What do “tight junctions” do?

A

Cell-cell occluding junctions to form an impermeable barrier

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10
Q

Give an example of a tissue that uses tight junctions

A

Epidermis

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11
Q

What is the function of “gap junctions”?

A

Allow communication between cells

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12
Q

What is the subunit that creates “gap junctions”?

A

Connexin subunits

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13
Q

What is the function of G-proteins?

A

Transmembrane proteins that allow signal transduction from receptor to response enzyme

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14
Q

How are G-proteins different from ligand-triggered protein kinases?

A

Receptor and response enzyme are a single TM protein

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15
Q

What happens when a ligand binds to a ligand-activated ion channel?

A

Results in conformational change that opens or activates the channel

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16
Q

What happens when a ligand binds to a ligand-activated protein kinase?

A

Activates the kinase domain which phosphorylates substrate protiens

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17
Q

What happens when a ligand binds to a G-protein

A

Activates an enzyme that generates second messengers

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18
Q

Name two examples of intracellular second messengers

A

cAMP, inositol 1,4,5 triphosphate

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19
Q

What molecule determines ABO blood type antigens?

A

Glycolipids on the cell membrane

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20
Q

What molecule determines HLA-type antigens?

A

Glycoproteins (Gp) on the cell membrane

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21
Q

Describe the process of osmotic equilibrium in terms of two areas of unequal solute concentration across a semipermeable membrane

A

Water moves from area of low sulte concentration to an area of high solute concentration to approach osmotic equilibrium

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22
Q

What is the [x] of sodium in extracellular vs intracellular fluid in mEq/L?

A

140 mEq extracellular / 12 mEq intracellular

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23
Q

What is the [x] of potassium in extracellular vs intracellular fluid in mEq/L?

A

4 mEq extracellular / 150 mEq intracellular

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24
Q

What is the [x] of calcium in extracellular vs intracellular fluid in mEq/L?

A

5 mEq extracellular / 10^-7 mEq intracellular

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25
Q

What is the [x] of magnesium in extracellular vs intracellular fluid in mEq/L?

A

2 mEq extracellular / 7 mEq intracellular

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26
Q

What is the [x] of chloride in extracellular vs intracellular fluid in mEq/L?

A

103 mEq extracellular / 3 mEq intracellular

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27
Q

What is the [x] of bicarb in extracellular vs intracellular fluid in mEq/L?

A

24 mEq extracellular / 10 mEq intracellular

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28
Q

What is the [x] of sulfate (SO4^2-) in extracellular vs intracellular fluid in mEq/L?

A

1 mEq extracellular / 0 mEq intracellular

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29
Q

What is the [x] of phophate (HPO4^3-) in extracellular vs intracellular fluid in mEq/L?

A

2 mEq extracellular / 116 mEq intracellular

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30
Q

What is the [x] of protein in extracellular vs intracellular fluid in mEq/L?

A

16 mEq extracellular / 40 mEq intracellular

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31
Q

What is the [x] of organic anions in extracellular vs intracellular fluid in mEq/L?

A

5 mEq extracellular / 0 mEq intracellular

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32
Q

Name the four steps of the cell cycle

A

G1, S, G2, M

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33
Q

What occurs in the S phase (2)

A

Protein synthesis, chromosomal duplication

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34
Q

What occurs in the M phase (2)

A

Mitosis, nucleus division

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35
Q

Which phase is the most variable?

A

G1

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36
Q

Which phase determines cell cycle length?

A

G1

37
Q

Which phase is affected by growth factors?

A

G1

38
Q

Name the four phases of mitosis

A

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

39
Q

What occurs during prophase (3)?

A

Centromere attachment, spindle formation, nucleus disappears

40
Q

What occurs during metaphase (1)?

A

Chromosome alignment

41
Q

What occurs during anaphase (1)?

A

Chromosomes pulled apart

42
Q

What occurs during telophase (1)?

A

Separate nucleus refomrs around each set of chromosomes

43
Q

How many membranes does the nucleus have?

A

Two, double membrane

44
Q

What intracellular structure is the outer nuclear membrane continuous with?

A

Rough ER

45
Q

Where is the nucleolus located?

A

Inside the nucleus

46
Q

Does the nucleolus have a membrane?

A

Nope

47
Q

What function does the nucleolus serve?

A

Ribosome synthesis

48
Q

Describe the template, enzyme, and product for DNA transcription

A

Template: DNA strand, enzyme: RNA-polymerase, product: mRNA

49
Q

What is the function of transcription factors?

A

Bind to DNA and help the transcription of genes

50
Q

Where do steroid hormones bind to their receptor?

A

In the cytoplasm

51
Q

Where do the steroid hormone-receptor complex go?

A

Into the nucleus to act as a transcription factor

52
Q

Where does the thyroid hormone bind to its receptor?

A

In the nucleus

53
Q

What does the thyroid hormone-R complex do after that

A

Acts as a transcription factor

54
Q

Name four other transcription factors

A

AP-1, NF-kappa-B, STAT, NFAT

55
Q

What are initiation factors?

A

Bind to RNA polymerase to initiate transcription

56
Q

Name the three functions of RNA-polymerase while transcribing

A

Unwinds the DNA helix; Catalyzes formation of a transient RNA-DNA helix; Releases RNA as a single strand copy while DNA rewinds

57
Q

How does the RNA-polymerase know what to transcribe?

A

Moves between a DNA start sequence and stop sequence

58
Q

What is the DNA polymerase chain reaction?

A

Uses oligonucleotides to amplify specific DNA sequences

59
Q

Name the two purine bases

A

Adenine, guanine

60
Q

Name the three pyramidine bases and the different nuclear strands they are used in

A

Cytosine, thymine (only in DNA), uracil (only in RNA)

61
Q

What is the base-pairing with guanine and how many hydrogen bonds does it form?

A

Guanine-cytosine form 3 hydrogen bonds

62
Q

What is the base paring with adenine and how many hydrogen bonds does it form?

A

Adenine-thymine/uracil forms 2 hydrogen bonds

63
Q

What is translation (in terms of protein synthesis)

A

mRNA is used as a template by ribosomes for the synthesis of proteins; As the ribosome moves along the mRNA, new amino-acyl tRNA complexes bind to the A-site of the ribosome, after which the new peptide bond is formed with the nascent polypeptide chain; Ribosome moves along and ejects the tRNA to make room for a new one

64
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

Have small and large subunits that read mRNA, bind appropriate tRNAs with amino acids, and eventually make proteins

65
Q

Name the input and output of glycolysis

A

One glucose molecule generates 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate molecules

66
Q

**PHOTO** How many membranes do mitochondria have?

A

2

67
Q

On which mitochondrial membrane does the Krebs cycle take place?

A

Inner membrane

68
Q

What is the input and output of the Krebs cycle

A

2 pyruvate molecules (from one glucose) creates NADH and FADH2

69
Q

What are the inputs into the electron transport chain?

A

NADH and FADH2 enter the ETC to create ATP

70
Q

How many ATPs do you get overall from one glucose molecule?

A

36 ATP from one glucose

71
Q

What is gluconeogenesis and what two substrates can be used?

A

Mechanism by which lactic acids and amino acids are converted to glucose

72
Q

What is the Cori cycle and name a critical molecule for this cycle

A

Occurs in the liver converting muscle lactate into glucose (GN), pyruvate is critical

73
Q

Why are fats and lipids not used for gluconeogenesis?

A

Acetyl CoA is the breakdown product of fat metabolism and cannot be converted back to pyruvate

74
Q

What does the rough ER do?

A

Synthesizes proteins that are exported

75
Q

Name a cell that has high levels of rough ER

A

Pancreatic acinar cells

76
Q

What does the smooth ER do? (2)

A

Lipid/steroid synthesis; detoxifies drugs

77
Q

Name two cells with lots of smooth ER

A

Hepatocytes, adrenal cortex

78
Q

What does the Golgi apparatus do and name its three targets

A

Modifies proteins with carbohydrates and targets for cell membrane, secretion, or lysosomes

79
Q

What do lysosomes do?

A

Have digestive enzymes that degrade engulfed particles and worn-out organelles

80
Q

What are phagosomes?

A

Engulfed large particles that fuse with lysosomes

81
Q

What are endosomes?

A

Engulfed small particles that fuse with lysosomes

82
Q

What activates protein kinase C? (2)

A

Calcium and diacylglylcerol (DAG)

83
Q

What activates protein kinase A? (1)

A

Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

84
Q

What are myosin?

A

Thick filaments in muscle

85
Q

What are actin?

A

Thin filaments in muscle

86
Q

How do myosin and actin interact?

A

Myosin uses ATP to slide along actin to cause muscle contraction

87
Q

Name three examples of intermediate filaments

A

Keratin (hair/nails); desmin (muscle); vimentin (fibroblasts)

88
Q

Name two functions of microtubules

A

Form specialized cellular structures (mitotic spindles, cilia, neuronal axons); Involved in transport of organelles by forming an intracellular latticework

89
Q

What is a centriole and what does it do?

A

A specialized microtubule involved in cell division, forms spindle fibers which pull chromosomes apart

Z.Fiser (22 decks)

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