Fischer Reproduction Test 3: Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Q8:

What is the most common location for breast cancer?

A

Upper outer quadrant (45%)

Central, underneath the areola (25%)

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2
Q

Q9:

Define comedocarcinoma

A

old terminology for non-invasive intraductal carcinoma.

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3
Q

Q10:

What’s the difference between in situ and invasive?
What determines what type of tumor it is (soft or hard)

A

Whether or not the tumor cells penetrate basement membrane
Invasive: Breaching of the basement membrane

    • Ductal (non-or invasive) –> unilateral, hard tumor
    • Lobular (non-or invasive, terminal ducts) –> multi-focal, bilateral, soft/deep tumors.
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4
Q

Q11:

What is the single prognostic factor that is characteristic of breast cancer?

A

Breast cancer tends to METASTASIZE VIA LYMPHATICS; most found in the AXILLARY AREA.

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5
Q

Q12:

What are the clusters seen in Hydatidiform Mole (molar pregnancy)? (complete vs. incomplete)

  • Swollen hydropic villi
  • Hydropic villi
  • Snowstorm pattern
A

Swollen hydropic villi:
Complete: paternal 23 duplicates to 46 without maternal chromosome by androgenesis –> placenta undergo hydropic degeneration
——————————————————————-
Hydropic villi:
Incomplete: 2 sperm fertilize 1 egg –> 69 chromosomes –> embryo develop partially –> has scattered grape like clusters
———————————————————————
- The snowstorm pattern is found within the uterus’
- Best method – Ultrasound – early detection (SnowStorm Pattern)
- No fetal heart beat
- No fetal movement

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6
Q

Q13:

Placenta that invades passed the endometrium, at the level of myometrium is called?

    • At underlying myometrium is called?
    • At full thickness of the uterine wall
A
  • Placenta Accreta
  • Increta
  • Percreta
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7
Q

Q14:

What is the normal volume of amniotic fluid at birth?
- How much amniotic fluid does a fetus swallow and excrete daily?

A
    • One liter
  • Swallows: 400ml of amniotic fluid
  • Excretes 500ml urine daily.
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8
Q

Q15:

In a normal placenta, which side (maternal or fetal) would you find the cotelydon?

A
  • Maternal side

maternal surface = dark side, divided in to lobules/cotyledons

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9
Q

Q16:

In a normal placenta, which side (maternal or fetal) would you find the amniocorionic membrane?

A
  • Fetal side

fetal surface = shiny, gray, amnio-chorionic membrane (wrinkled, translucent

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10
Q

Q17:

What happens during a decidual reaction
-Where would you find it?

A
  • endometrial stroma thickens, become more vascularized => decidual cells.
  • appears in the generalized area where the blastocyst contacts the endometrial decidua.
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11
Q

Q18:

Which hormone in the placenta is the pregnancy hormone?
What is its function?

A

hCG = pregnancy hormone, increase progesterone secretion by the corpus luteum

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12
Q

Q18:

Which hormone in the placenta is the growth hormone?
What is its function?

A

Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) = fetal growth hormone, induces lipoysis, increase FFA in mother.

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13
Q

Q 18:

What is a placental abnormality that has NO clinical significance?

A

ACCESSORY (SUCCENTURIATE) LOBES: one or many extra lobes of placental tissue near the main placenta, linked by thin chorionic tissue. (Might be retained after birth –> postpartum bleeding)

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14
Q

Q19:

What is the normal distribution of arteries and veins in the umbilical cord?

A
  • Two arteries ( right and left, deoxy to placenta)

- One vein ( left, oxy to fetus)

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15
Q

Q20:

Define Amnion Nodosa?

A
  • The presence of numerous small, gray or yellow nodules on the fetal surface which may be associated with OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS (low amniotic fluid) and renal agenesis (POTTERS SYNDROME).
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16
Q

Q21:

What is the most feared complication of having thick meconium of the baby?

A

Meconium: earliest stool of a baby.

ASPIRATION causing a fetal chemical pneumonitis

17
Q

Q22:

What is the most common cause of the acute chorioamnionitis, inflammation of the placental membranes?
– How is it induced.

A

Chorioamnionitis = infection/inflammation ( commonly due to premature rupture of the amniochorionic membranes) of the placental amnion, chorion, extraplacental membranes.

  • It is induced and occurs spontaneously.
  • INDUCED WITH HOOK.
18
Q

Q23:

If chorioamnionitis is the infection of the chorion and the amnion. what is the term for the spread of the infection to the umbilical cord?

A

FUNISITIS

19
Q

Q24:

What are the most common bacteria causing chorioamnionitis?

A

MYCOPLASMA SPECIES ( M. hominis and U. urealyticum)

    • Then in decreasing order:
      1) Anaerobic Bacteroides group
      2) Aerobes group B Strep E. Coli
      3) Gardnerella vaginalis
20
Q

Q25:

Germ cells start migration from where to where?
-What do they differentiate into in the male

A

Starts from the yolk sac to the urogenital (gonadal/genital) ridge.

  • Testes
21
Q

Q26:

What is semen?

A

semen = sperm + seminal secretions

2.5-6.0ml, 50-100 million sperms/ml. pH 7.35-7.50

22
Q

Q26:

Name the three accessory gland that produces seminal fluid and which one produces the most

A
  • Seminal vesicles: 60% volume of semen, alkaline, rich in sugar fructose
  • Prostate gland: 13-33% volume of semen, alkaline fluid, milky appearance.
  • Bulbourethral (Cowpers) glands: 7-10% of semen, alkaline fluid, mucoid consistency.
23
Q

Q27:

Histologically, which two structures have ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

Epididymis: stores sperm and its wall contains smooth muscle

Ejaculatory duct: long tube that delivers sperm

24
Q

Q29:

what is the role of Sertoli cells?

A

Produce secretions that are nutrients for sperm. (for support and nutrition of the spermatozoa, located between the germ cells)

25
Q

Q29:

What is the role of leydig cells

A

Typically produce testosterone.

26
Q

Q33:

What is cryptorchidism

A

Congenital malpositioning of the testes outside of their normal scrotal location.

27
Q

Q33:

What are the most feared complications of a cryptorchidism that’s not placed into the scrotum

A
  • One naturally –> INFERTILITY (adult men; if orchiopexy before age of 2 yrs –> prevented)
  • One malignancy –> GERM CELL TUMORS (95%), Sertoli cells (2%), Leydig cells (3%)
28
Q

Q34:

What is the Karyotype of Klinefelters

A

47 XXY

29
Q

Q34:

What are the main characteristics of Klinefelters:

  • Do they exhibit hypogonadisms?
  • Infertile?
A
  • Yes

- Yes

30
Q

Q34:

List the physical characteristics of Klinefelters

A
  • Lack of secondary male characteristic
  • Eunicoid body with elongated legs, small atrophic testes and penis
  • Gynecomastia: benign enlargement of breast tissue in males.
31
Q

Q34:

List the laboratory characteristics of Klinefelters

A
  • because of the atrophic seminiferous tubules, testosterone levels are LOW, therefore FSH (large leydig cells) are HIGH… feedback.
  • Hypogonadism
32
Q

Q35:

Differentiate between a hydrocele and a spermatocele?

A

Hydrocele (cystic scrotal masses): Spontaneous accumulation of clear serous fluid between layers of tunica vaginalis and testis or epididymis

  • know that they can cause testicle atrophy if large enough
  • Can compress epididymis.

Spermatocele: a benign cystic accumulation of sperm that arises from the head of the epididymis.

33
Q

Q36:

What is the most common etiology surrounding torsion of the testes?

A

Vigorous PHYSICAL ACTIVITY

  • Don’t wear tight undies
  • Severe pain and hemorrhagic infarcation of the testicular germ cells within a few hours.
34
Q

Q19:

What is a circumvallate placenta

A

Circumvallate Placenta

a. Fetal membrane presents with a thick ring, rolled and raised over the fetal surface instead of at the edge of the placenta
b. Chorionic plate is smaller than the basal plate of the placenta
c. Blood vessels at the chorionic plate stop at the raised membranes and continue to run deeper under the membrane
d. Variations may be associated with prematurity, prenatal bleeding, placental abruption, or multiparity