Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Brain and Behavior Exam 1 > First Aid Stuff > Flashcards

First Aid Stuff Flashcards

1
Q

What part of neuron does not stain via Nissl substance?

A

axon [b/c it does not contain RER]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is wallerian degneration?

A
  • if axon injured, process by which degenerates distal to injury and axon retracts proximally
  • allows for potential regeneration of axon [if in PNS]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What 3 CNs are responsible for taste of tongue?

A

CN VII [anterior 2/3]
CN IX [posterior 1/3]
CN X [for epiglottis / extreme posterior]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What 3 CNs are responsible for sensation of tongue?

A

CN V3 [anterior 2/3]
CN IX [posterior 2/3]
CN X [for extreme posterior]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What CN is responsible for motor innervation of tongue?

A

CN XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In what 3 diseases are oligodendroglia injured?

A
  • multiple sclerosis
  • progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
  • leukodystrophies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the predominant type of glial cell in white matter?

A

oligodendroglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is change in NE and 5-HT and GABA in anxiety?

A
  • NE increase
  • 5HT decrease
  • GABA decrease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is change in NE, dopamine, 5HT in depression?

A
  • NE decrease
  • dopamine decrease
  • 5HT decrease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is change in dopamine, ACh, and GABA in huntington disease?

A
  • increase dopamine
  • decrease ACh
  • decrease GABA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is change in dopamine, 5HT, and ACh in parkinsons?

A
  • decrease dopamine
  • increase 5HT
  • increase ACh
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is change in ACh in alzheimers?

A

decrease ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is location of synthesis of NE?

A

locus ceruleus [pons]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is location of synthesis of Dopamine?

A

ventral tegmentum and SNc [midbrain]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is location of synthesis of 5HT?

A

raphe nucleus [pons, medulla, midbrain]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is location of synthesis of ACh?

A

basal nucleus of meynert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is location of synthesis of GABA?

A

nucleus accumbens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Match these two

  1. locus ceruleus
  2. nucleus accumbens and septal nucleus

A. stress and panic
B. reward center, pleasure, addiction, fear

A
  1. locus ceruleus — A. stress and panic

2. nucleus accumbens and septal nucleus — B. reward center, pleasure, addiction, fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do glucose/AA cross BBB? lipid soluble substances?

A
  • glucose/AA by carrier mediated transport mech

- lipid-soluble cross rapidly by diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are 3 specialized brain regions with fenestrated capillaries and no BBB?

A
  1. area postrema – vomiting after chemo
  2. OVLT – osmotic sensing
  3. neurohypophysis – ADH release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of edema is this: infarcation/neoplasm destroys endothelial cell tight junctions?

A

vasogenic edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the mnemonic for hypothalamus function?

A

hypothalamus wears TAN HATS

  • Thirs and water balance
  • Adenohypophysis control [regulates AP]
  • neurohypophysis releases hormones from hypo
  • hunger
  • autonomic regulation
  • temp regulation
  • sexual urges
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What part of the hypothalamus makes ADH?

A

supraoptic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What part of the hypothalamus makes oxytocin?

A

paraventricular nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where are ADH and oxytocin made? where released?

A
  • both made in hypothalamus [ADH in supraoptic, oxy in paraventricular nucleus]
  • released by posterior pituitary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is function of lateral hypothalamus?

A
  • hunger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens if you destroy lateral area of hypothalamus?

A
  • destruction causes anorexia, failure to thrive in infants

- if you zap your LATERAL nucleus you shrink LATERALly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is action of leptin on lateral area of hypothalamus?

A
  • leptin inhibits lateral area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is function of anterior hypothalamus?

A

cooling, parasympathetic

- Anterior nucleus = cool off, pArasympathetic –> anterior cooling = A/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What happens if you destroy ventromedial area of hypothalamus?

A

destruction –> hyperphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is function of posterior hypothalamus?

A

heating, sympathetic
- posterior nuclues = ged fired up.
- if you zap your Posterior hypo, you becomes a Poikilotherm [cold-blooded, like a snake]
this is a total stretch, from first aid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is function of suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus?

A

circadian rhythm

- you need SLEEP to be charismatic [= chiasmatic]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is function of ventromedial area of hypothalamus?

A

satiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is action of leptin on ventromedial area of hypothalamus?

A
  • leptin stimulates lateral area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where does posterior pituitary [neurophyophysis] receive input from?

A
  • receives hypothalamic axonal projectsions from supraoptic [ADH] and paraventricular [oxytocin] nuclei
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the adenohypophysis mean?

A

anterior pituiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What sensory information does the ventroal posterolateral nucleus [VPL] of the thalamus relay?

A
  • pain and temp, pressure, touch, vibration, proprioception

- relays from spinothalamic and dorsal colums to primary somatosensory cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What sensory information does the ventral posteromedial nucleus [VPM] of the thalamus relay?

A
  • face sensation and taste from the trigeminal/gustatory paths to the primary somaotsensory cortex
  • Makeup [vpM] goes on the face? again questionable first aid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What sensory info does the LGN [lateral geniculate nucleus] of the thalamus relay?

A
  • vision from CNII to the calcarine sulcus

Lateral = Light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What sensory info does the MGN [medial geniculate nucleus] of the thalamus relay?

A
  • hearing from the superio olice and inferiorcolliculus of tectum to the auditory cortex of temporal lobe
  • Medial = Music
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What sensory info does the ventral lateral [VL] nucleus of the thalamus relay?

A
  • motor from basal ganglia/cerebellum to motor cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the famous 5 Fs of limbic system function?

A
  • feeding
  • fleeing
  • fighting
  • feeling
  • sex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What structures are included in the limbic system?

A
  • hippocampus
  • amygdala
  • fornix
  • mammillary bodies
  • cingulate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is function of cerebellum?

A
  • modulates movement

- aids in coordination and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is is function of basal ganglia?

A
  • important in voluntary movements, making postural adjustments
    0 receives cortical input, provides negative feedback to cortex to modulate movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What 2 structures make up the striatum

A
  • putamen [motor]

- caudate [cognitive]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What 2 structures make up the lentiform?

A
  • putamen

- globus pallidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the excitatory pathways of the basal ganglia?

A
  • cortical inputs stimulate striatum –> stimulates release of GABA –> disinhibits thalamus via globus pallidus internus
  • increases motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is inhibitory pathway of basal ganglia?

A
  • cortical inputs stimulate striatum
  • disinhibits subthalamic nucleus via globus pallidus externus
  • subthalamic nuclues stimulates globus pallidus internus to inhibit thalamus
  • decreases motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is effect on dopamine release in basal ganglia [ie in path to increase/decrease motion]?

A
  • dopamine binds D1 receptors to stimulate excitatory path
  • dopamine also binds D2 to inhibit the inhibitory path
  • increases motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where is principal visual cortex located?

A

in occipital lobe

52
Q

Where is wenicke’s area?

A
  • in dominant hemisphere in superior temporal gyrus of temporal lobe
  • associative auditory cortex
53
Q

Where is broca area?

A
  • in dominant hemisphere in interior frontal gyrus of frontal lobe
  • responsible for motor speech
54
Q

Where is principal motor cortex in brain?

A

prefrontal gyrus [frontal]

55
Q

Where is principal somatosensory area in brain?

A

postcentral gyrus [parietal]

56
Q

What type of aphasia in broca area?

A
  • nonfluent aphasia with intact comprehension [can understand but can’t speak]
  • broca broken boca
57
Q

What type of aphasia in wernicke’s area?

A
  • fluent aphaisa with impaired comprehension and repetition
  • wernicke is wordy but makes no sense
    Wernicke = What?
58
Q

What happens in global aphasia?

A
  • nonfluent aphasia with impaired comprehension

- if both broca and wernicke areas affected

59
Q

When do watershed zones get injured

A

in severe hypotension

60
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A
  • abnormal dilation of artery due to weakening of vessel wall
61
Q

What is berry aneuryism?

A
  • aneurysm at bifurcation in circle of willis
  • most common in anterior communicating artery
  • most common complication = rupture –> leads to subarachnoid hemorrhage or hemorrhagic stroke
  • can also cause bitemporal hemianopia via compression of optic chiasm
62
Q

What are risk factors for berry aneuryism?

A
  • ehlers-danlos syndrome
  • marfan
  • advanced age
  • hypertension
  • smoking
  • higher risk in blacks
63
Q

Where doe the dural venous sinuses empty?

A
  • into internal jugular vein
64
Q

What is a communicating hydrocephalus?

A
  • decreases CSF absorption by arachnoid grnualttions

- can lead to increase intracranial pressure, papilledema, herniation

65
Q

What is a normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A
  • no increase in subarachnoid space volume
  • expansion of ventricles distorts fibers of corona radiata and leads to triad “wet, wobbly, wacky”
    == urinary incontinence, ataxia, cognitive dysfunction
66
Q

What is a hydrocephalus ex vacuo?

A
  • appearance of increase CSF in atrophy
  • normal ICP
  • apparent increase in CSF on imaging actually due to decreased neural tissue due to neuronal atrophy
  • in alzheimer, advanced HIV, pick disease
67
Q

What is a noncommunicating hydrocephalus?

A
  • causes by structural block of CSF circulation in ventricular system
68
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 = just like 31 flavors of baskin robbins

  • 8 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 sacral
  • 1 coccygeal
69
Q

Where does each cranial nerve exit with respect to corresponding vertebra?

A

C1 - C7 exit above vertebra
C8 and below exit below
ex. C2 exits above 2nd cervical vert, L2 exits below 2nd lumbar vert

70
Q

What happens in vertebral disc herniation? where does it occur ost often?

A
  • nucleus pulposus [inner] herniates through annulus fibrosus [outer]
  • usually posterolateral at L4-L5 or L5-S1
71
Q

Where does the spinal cord extend in adults?

A

L1-L2 vertebrae

72
Q

Where does the subarachnoid space extend in adult spine?

A
  • to lower border of S2 vertebra
73
Q

Where do you usually perform a lumbar puncture?

A
  • L3-L4 or L4-L5 at level of cauda equina

“to keep the cord alive, keep the spinal needle between L3 and L5”

74
Q

What info is related in descending laterol corticospinal tract?

A

voluntary motor – cervical –> sacral from medial to lateral

Legs [lumbosacral ] are lateral in Lateral corticospinal, spinothalamic tracks

75
Q

What info is relayed in ascending dorsal column of spinal cord? The two parts?

A
  • pressure, vibration, touch, proprioception
  • fasciulus gracilis = lower body/legs [more medial]
  • fasciculus cuneatus = upper body/arms [more lateral]

“dorsal column is organized as you are, with hands at sides, arms outside, legs inside

76
Q

What info is relayed in ascending lateral spinothalamic tract?

A
  • pain and temp
  • cervical more medial –> sacral more lateral
    [legs are more lateral]
77
Q

What info is relayed in ascending anterior spinothalamic tract?

A
  • crude touch, pressure
78
Q

What 3 cranial nerves lie medially at the brain stem?

A
  • CN III
  • CN VI
  • CN XII

Motor = medial

79
Q

What are 2 functions of pineal gland?

A
  • melatonin secretion

- circadian rhythms

80
Q

What is function of superior colliculi of brainstem?

A
  • conjugate vertical gaze [motion of both eyes vertically at same time]
81
Q

What is function of inferior colliculi of brainstem?

82
Q

How do you remember difference in function superior vs inferior colliculi of brainstem?

A
  • your eyes are above your ears and the superior colliculus [visual] is above inferior [auditory]
83
Q

Where are the collicluli located?

A
  • on dorsal aspect of brain stem
84
Q

What is mnemonic for cranial nerves sensory vs motor vs both?

A 
Some [CN 1 = sensory] olfactory
Say [CN 2= sensory] optic
Marry [CN 3 = motor] occulomotor
Money  [CN 4= motor] trochlear
But  [CN 5 = both] trigeminal
My  [CN 6 = motor] abducens
Brother  [CN 7 = both] facial
Says [CN 8 = sensory] vestibulocochlear
Big  [CN 9 = both] glossopharyngeal
Brains  [CN 10 = both] vagus
Matter  [CN 11 = motor] accessory
Most  [CN 12 = motor] hypoglossal
85
Q

What is CN1: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: olfactory
function: smell [only CN without thalamic relay to cortex]
type: sensory

86
Q

What is CN2: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: optic
function: sight
type: sensory

87
Q

What is CN3: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: oculomotor

function:
- eye movement [superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, inferior oblique]
- pupillary constriction [sphincter pupillae]
- accomodation
- eyelid opening

type: motor

88
Q

What is CN4: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: trochlear
function: eye movement [superior oblique]
type: motor

89
Q

What is CN5: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: trigeminal
function: mastication, facial sensation [ophtalmic, maxillary, mandibular divisions], sensation from anterior 2/3 tongue
type: both

90
Q

What is CN6: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: abducens
function: eye movement [lateral rectus]
type: motor

91
Q

What is CN7: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: facial

function:
- facial movement
- taste anterior 2/3 tongue
- lacrimation, salivation
- eyelid closing
- stapedius muscle in ear

type: both

92
Q

What is CN8: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: vestibulocochlear
function: hearing/balance
type: sensory

93
Q

What is CN9: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: glossopharyngeal

function: taste and sensation from posterior 1/3 tongue
- swallowing, salivation [parotid]
- monitoring carotid body and sinus chemo and baroreceptors
- stylopharyngeus

type: both

94
Q

What is CN10: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: vagus

function:

  • taste from epiglottis
  • swallowing
  • midline uvula
  • talking, coughing
  • moitoring aortic arch chemo and baroreceptors

type: both

95
Q

What is CN11: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: accessory
function: head turning, shoulder shrugging
type: motor

96
Q

What is CN12: name? function? type [sensory, motor, both]?

A

name: hypoglossal
function: tongue movement
type: motor

97
Q

What cranial nerve is responsible for movement of each of these eye muscles:

  • superior oblique
  • inferior oblique
  • lateral rectus
  • inferior rectus
A

SO: trochlear [4]
IO: oculomotor [3]
LR: abducens [6]
IR: oculomotor [3]

98
Q

Where are the cranial nerve nuclei all located?

A
  • in tegmentum portion of brain stem [between dorsal and ventral]
99
Q

What 2 CN nuclei are located in midbrain?

A
  • CN III, IV
100
Q

What 4 CN nuclei are located in pons?

A
  • CN V, VI, VII, VIII
101
Q

What 3 CN nuclei are located in medulla?

A
  • CN IX, X, XII
102
Q

What 1 CN nucleus is located in spinal cord?

103
Q

Which are lateral nuclei vs medial nuclei of cranial nerves?

A
  • Lateral nuclei = sensory [aLar plate]

- Medial nuclei = Motor [basal plate]

104
Q

Where does CNI [olfactory] exit the brain?

A

via cribiform plate

105
Q

Which CNs exit through the middle cranial fossa [through sphenoid bone]?

A
  • CN II through VI
106
Q

Where does CN II [optic] exit?

A
  • optic canal
107
Q

What 3 things go through the optic canal?

A
  • CN II [optic nerve]
  • opthalmic artery
  • central retinal vein
108
Q

What Seven things go through the Superior orbital fissure [hint 4 different CNs]?

A
  • CN III
  • CN IV
  • CN V1
  • CN VI
  • opthalmic vein
  • sympathetic fibers
109
Q

Where does CN III [oculomotor] exit?

A
  • superior orbital fissure
110
Q

Where does CN IV [trochlear] exit?

A
  • superior orbital fissure
111
Q

Where does CN V [trigeminal] exit? [hint mneumonic]

A
  • CN V1 [opthalmic] –> Superior orbital fissure
  • CN V2 [maxillary] –> foramen Rotundum
  • CN V3 [mandibular] –> foramen Ovale

CN V exits owing to Standing Room Only

112
Q

What goes through the foramen spinosum?

A
  • middle meningeal artery
113
Q

Where does CN VI exit?

A

superior orbital fissure

114
Q

Where does CN VII exit?

A

internal auditory meatus

115
Q

What 2 things go through internal auditory meatus?

A
  • CN VII

- CN VIII

116
Q

What 4 things go through the jugular foramen?

A
  • CN IX
  • CN X
  • CN XI
  • jugular vein
117
Q

Where does CN VIII exit?

A
  • internal auditory meatus
118
Q

Where does CN IX exit?

A
  • jugular foramen
119
Q

Where does CN X exit?

A

jugular foramen

120
Q

Where does CN XI exit?

A

jugular foramen

except spinal roots go through foramen magnum

121
Q

Where does CN XII exit?

A

hypoglossal canal

122
Q

What are the 4 types of herniation syndromes?

A
  • cingulate [subfalcine] herniation under falx cerebri
  • downward transtentorial [central] herniation
  • uncal herniation
  • cerebellar tonsillar herniation into foramen magnum
123
Q

What is possible effect of subfalcine herniation?

A
  • can compress anterior cerebral artery
124
Q

What is possible effect of uncal herniation?

A
  • compress ipsilateral CN III –> down and out gaze, blown pupil
  • compress ipsilaterl PCA
  • compress contralateral crus cerebri [ipsilateral paralysis, false localization]
125
Q

What is possible effect of cerebellar herniation?

A
  • coma and death result when compresses brain stem and inhibits respiration

Brain and Behavior Exam 1 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions