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Step Random Tidbits > First Aid 197-220 > Flashcards

First Aid 197-220 Flashcards

1
Q

Which immunoglobulins fix complement?

A

IgG

IgM

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2
Q

IgE binds to

A

mast cells and basophils;

activates eosinophils

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3
Q

What must be present to facilitate the presentation of an antigen by MHC?

A

Peptide component

For example, LPS is completely made of polysaccharide, and therefore cannot be presented to T cells

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4
Q

What are the two main opsonins?

A

C3b (b binds bacteria)

IgG

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5
Q

PNH is caused by GPI-anchored enzyme deficiency, aka:

A

DAF (delay-accelerating factor)

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6
Q

What is the reaction catalyzed by G6PD?

A

Glucose-6-P –> 6-phosphogluconate;

requires NADP+ –> NADPH (from HMP shunt)

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7
Q

What interferon is critical for immunity against viral infections and intracellular bacterial?

A

IFN-gamma

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8
Q

Where is CD14 found?

A

Macrophages;

CD14 is a receptor for PAMPS ie LPS

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9
Q

What is anergy?

A

T and B cells cannot become activated if no co-stimulatory signal is provided

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10
Q

Toxoid is an example of what kind of immunity?

A

Active

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11
Q

What hypersensitivity reactions are antibody mediated?

A

I, II, III

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12
Q

Direct Coomb’s test detects

A

antibodies that have adhered to a patient’s RBCs;

example, test an Rh + infant of an Rh - mother

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13
Q

Eczema is what kind of hypersensitivity reaction?

Contact dermatitis?

A

Eczema - type I

Contact dermatitis - type IV

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14
Q

Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

What kind of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type II

Host antibodies against donor HLA antigens/WBCs

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15
Q

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

What kind of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type II
ie ABO blood group incompatibility
hemoglobinuria = intravascular hemolysis
jaundice = extravascular hemolysis

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16
Q

Give the associated disorder with the following autoantibody:
anti-CCP

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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17
Q

Give the associated disorder with the following autoantibody:
Anti-U1 RNP (ribonuceloprotein)

A

Mixed connective tissue disease

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18
Q

Give the associated disorder with the following autoantibody:
Anti-smooth muscle

A

Autoimmune hepatitis type I

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19
Q

Give the associated disorder with the following autoantibody:
Antiphospholipase A2 rceptor

A

Primary membranous nephropathy

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20
Q

Give the associated disorder with the following autoantibody:
Antimitochondrial antibody

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

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21
Q

Give the associated disorder with the following autoantibody:
Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD-65)

A

Type 1 DM

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22
Q

STAT3 mutation results in deficiency of Th17 cells;
Leads to impaired recruitment of neutrophils to sites of infection;
Dx?

A 
Job syndrome aka AD Hyper-IgE syndrome;
"FATED" 
coarse Facies;
staph Abscesses (non-inflamed);
retained primary Teeth;
increase IgE and low IFN-gamma;
Dermatologic problems ie eczema
23
Q

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis involves dysfunction of what cell type?

A

T cells

24
Q

Selective IgA deficiency is a disorder of what cell type?

A

B cells

25
Q

CVID is a disorder or what cell type?

A

B cells

26
Q

IL-2R gamma chain dysfunction;

X-linked

A

A kind of SCID

27
Q

Ataxia telangectasia involves deficiency of what immunglobulin?

A

IgA, IgG, IgE;

combined B and T cell disorder

28
Q

Inheritance of:
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Hyper IgM syndrome
Chronic granulomatous disease

A

X-linked recessive

29
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency is the result of a defect in what protein on phagocytes?

A

LFA-1 integrin (CD18) protein;

AR

30
Q

Phagocyte dysfunction disorder with giant granules in granulocytes and platelets;
Dx?

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome;

AR

31
Q

Chronic transplant rejection involves what kind of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Types II and IV;
reaction is dominated by forms of arteriosclerosis

GVHD is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

32
Q

Main AE of cyclosporine

A

nephrotoxicity

33
Q

MOA cyclosporine

A

calcineurin inhibitor
binds cyclophilin
prevents IL-2 transcription

Tacrolimus (aka FK506) also prevents IL-2 transcription

34
Q

What medication blocks mTOR by binding to FKBP and is used to prevent kidney transplant rejection?

A

Sirolimus
Kidney “sir”vives
prevents response to IL-2

35
Q

What monoclonal antibodies are used as immunosuppressants because they bind to the IL-2 receptor?

A

Basiliximab

Deaclizumab

36
Q

6MP (is Azathioprine) is degraded by

A

xanthine oxidase

37
Q

Alemtuzumab targets:

A

CD52
for CLL, MS
“aLYMtuzumab”

38
Q

Bevacizumab targets:

A

VEGF

colorectal cancer, RCC, neovascular age-related macular degeneration

39
Q

Cetuximab targets:

A

EGFR

stage IV colorectal cancer, head and neck cancer

40
Q

Rituximab targets:

A

CD20

CLL, B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, RA, ITP

41
Q

Trastuzumab targets:

A

Her2/neu

42
Q

What mab to use for high risk infants for RSV prophylaxis?

A

Pavilizumab

43
Q

Abciximab targets:

A

platelet glycoproteins IIb/IIIa;

use in PCI to prevent ischemic complication

44
Q

Bcl2 prevents cytochrome c release by binding to and inhibiting

A

APAF-1

APAF-1 normally binds cytochrome c and induces activation of caspase 9 –> caspase cascade

45
Q

Nocardia causes what kind of cellular necrosis?

A

Caseous

46
Q

How does fibrinoid necrosis look on stain?

A

Vessel walls are thick and pink;
ie fibrinoid necrosis of the placenta in pre-ecclampsia;
immune complexes combine with fibrin –> vessel wall damage

47
Q

A common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

Polycythemia vera

48
Q

Neurons most vulnerable to hypoxic-ischemic insults include:

A

Purkinje cells of the cerebellum;

pyramidal cells of the hippocampus and neocortex

49
Q

Parts of colon most vulnerable to ischemia

A

rectum

splenic flexure

50
Q

Cyanosis
Chocolate-colored blood
Dx?

A

Methemoglobinemia

PaO2 normal, SaO2 down because Iron in heme has been oxidized to Fe3+ –> cannot bind oxygen

51
Q

Area of the cell that oxidizes very long chain FA and FA with branch points at odd numbered carbons through beta oxidation

A

peroxisome
Peroxisome defects result in build up of toxins and early death ie Zellwegger syndrome (leads to improper CNS myelination), Refsum disease

Mitochondria can beta oxidize only some/short FA

52
Q

Why can dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (Amlodipine, Nifedipine) cause peripheral edema?

A

Preferential dilation of the arterioles increases hydrostatic pressure

53
Q

Most common genetic source of Turner syndrome and missing gene

A 
Meiotic nondisjunction (paternal)
Missing SHOX gene which contributes to long bone growth

Meiotic nondisjunction also implicated in trisomy 13, 18, 21 and Klinefelter syndrome

54
Q

Benzos ok to use in patients with impaired liver function

A

Lorazepam
Oxazepam
Temazepam

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