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Step Random Tidbits > First Aid 149-172 > Flashcards

First Aid 149-172 Flashcards

1
Q

Receptors used by CMV

A

Integrins (heparin sulfate)

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2
Q

Receptor used by EBV

A

CD21

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3
Q

Receptors used by HIV

A

CD4, CXCR4, CCR5

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4
Q

Receptor used by Rabies

A

Nicotinic AChR

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5
Q

Receptor used by Rhinovirus

A

ICAM-I

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6
Q

Bunyaviruses acquire their envelope from

A

the golgi

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7
Q

BOAR for segmented viruses

A

Bunyavirus - 3
Orthomyxovirus - 8
Arenavirus - 2
Reovirus - 11

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8
Q

“PERCH” for picornaviruses

A 
Polivirus
Echovirus
Rhinovirus
Coxsackie virus
Hepatitis A
All but rhino (acid labile) are enteroviruses (acid stable)
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9
Q

Yellow fever transmitted by

A

Aedes moasquito

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10
Q

Malaria transmitted by

A

Anopheles mosquito

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11
Q

Black vomit, think

A 
yellow fever;
Flavivirus - ssRNA, positive sense;
jaundice, bloody vomit and diarrhea;
LA vaccine;
Aedes mosquito
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12
Q

Uncommon complication of rotavirus vaccine

A

insussusception

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13
Q

Toxin in rotavirus

A

NSP4 –> villous destruction and atrophy –> Na absorption, K loss –> watery diarrhea

Reovirus - ssRNA positive sense, naked, 11 segments

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14
Q

Eastern Equine Encephalitis

Western Equine Encephalitis

A

Togaviruses
enveloped
ssRNA positive sense

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15
Q

Give what for RSV in infants

A

Ribavarin

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16
Q

Negri bodies of rabies (rhabdovirus) found where?

A

Hippcampus

  • -Purkinje cells
  • -Pyramidal cells
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17
Q

Antigenetic drift

A

Minor changes/point mutations in HA or NA genes

Can cause epidemics (shift –> pandemics)

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18
Q

Only RNA virus that replicates in the nucleus

A

Influenza (orthomyxovirus)

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19
Q

Guillan Barre, think a few causes

A

Influenza

Campylobacter

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20
Q

Influenza virus attaches to

A

sialic acid residues

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21
Q

MOA Amantadine

A

M2 protein inhibitor - prevents viral (influenza) uncoating;

M2 normally allows the virus to manipulate pH to facilitate viral entry into cells

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22
Q

Surface F (Fusion) protein in Paramyxovirus - function

A

causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form syncytia (multinucleated cells)

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23
Q

The live (Sabin) polio vaccine induces what response?

A

IgA

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24
Q

Vitamin A supplementation can reduce morbidity and mortality in children suffering from

A

Measles (rubeola - paramyxovirus)

25
Q

What gene mutation in CMV confers resistance to Ganciclovir?

A

UL97 kinase
use Foscarnet instead

latency mostly in monocytes

26
Q

Cutaneous neurofibromas in NF1 are prdominantly composed of

A

Schwann cells

neural crest

27
Q

(Event rate in control group) - (Event rate in experimental group) =

A

Absolute risk reduction

c/c+d) OVER (a/a+b

28
Q

Why is anticipation of HD seen more from paternal transmission?

A

CAG repeat in abnormal HTT gene (chrom 4p) more rapidly increases during spermatogenesis than during oogenesis

29
Q

Which hepatitis viruses are naked?

30
Q

What is the reason for antigenic variation of HCV envelope proteins?

A

No 3’-5’ exonuclease activity

31
Q

Smokers develop aversion to to smoking, what virus?

32
Q

Liver biopsy shows Councilman bodies, what virus?

33
Q

Liver biopsy shows granular eosinophilic ground glass appearance, cytotoxic T cells mediate damage, what virus?

34
Q

Liver biopsy shows lymphoid aggregates with focal areas of macrovesicular steatosis within portal tracts, what virus?

35
Q

Liver biopsy shows patchy necrosis, what virus?

36
Q

What hepatitis virus causes fulminant liver failure in pregnant women?

37
Q

What confers immunity to HIV?

A

Homozygous mutated CCR5;

Heterozygous mutated CCR5 confers slower infection course

38
Q

What receptor gets infected in the early stages of HIV infection? In the late stages?

A

CCR5 - early

CXCR4 - late

39
Q

Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused by

A

EBV

seen in HIV patients CD4

40
Q

Nonenhancing areas of demyelination on MRI;

AIDS illness

A

JC virus - progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy;

CD4

41
Q

Ring enhancing single lesion on MRI;

AIDS patient

A

CNS Lymphoma (EBV) - CD20, CD79a

42
Q

Green metallic sheen on EMB agar, organism?

43
Q

What virus can cause hydrops fetalis if exposure during pregnancy?

A

Parvovirus B19

44
Q

Erythematous sand-paper like rash with fever and sore throat;
Childhoos exanthem;
Organism?

A

Strep pyogenes;

Scarlet fever

45
Q

Haemophilus ducreyi - symptoms

A

PAINFUL genital ulcer with exudate;
inguinal adenopathy;
Chancroid

46
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3 - symptoms

A

painless genital ulcers but painful lymphadenopathy (buboes);
Lymphogranuloma venereum

47
Q

Name the antibiotic:

Inhibitor of mRNA synthesis/inhibits RNA polymerase

48
Q

Name the antibiotic:

Makes free radicals that challenge microbe DNA integrity

A

Metronidazole

49
Q

Name the antibiotic:

inhibit PABA –> DHF = no folid acid synthesis and reduction

A

Sulfonamides

  • -Sulfamethoxazole
  • -Sulfisoxazole
  • -Sulfadiazine
50
Q

Name the antibiotic:

Inhibits DHF –> THF

A

Trimethoprim

Methotrexate for human reaction, Pyramethamine for protazoan reaction

51
Q

Name the antibiotic:

Inhibits peptidogylcan synthesis - anti-cell wall

A

Vancomycin

Bacitracin

52
Q

Name the antibiotic class:

Inhibits peptidoglycan cross-linking - anti-cell wall

A 
Penicillinase-sensitive penicillins;
Penicillinase-resistant penicillins;
Antipseudomonals;
Carbapenems;
Monobactams;
Cephalosporins
53
Q

Name the antibiotic class:

Inhibit 30S subunit - inhibit protein synthesis

A

Aminoglycosides;

Tetracyclines

54
Q

Name the antibiotic class:

Inhibit 50S subunit - inhibit protein synthesis

A 
Macrolides;
Streptogramins;
Chloramphenicol;
Clindamycin;
Linezolid
55
Q

Name the antibiotic class:

Inhibit DNA gyrase

A

Fluoroquinolones;

Quinolone

56
Q

What are the antipseudomonal penicillins?

A

Ticarcillin;
Piperacillin;
Use with beta-lactamase inhibitors ie clavulanic acid, sulbactam, tazobactam

57
Q

What cephalosprin is routinely used before surgery to prevent staph wound infections?

A

Cefazolin

1st generation

58
Q

“HENS PecK” - explain

A 
2nd generation cephalosporins: Cefeclor, Cefoxitin, Cefuroxime for:
H. influenzae
Enterobacter
Neisseria
Serratia
Proteus
E Coli
Klebsiella
59
Q

Use what third generation cephalosporin for Pseudomonas?

A

Ceftazidime;

Only other cephalosporin that covers pseudomonas is Ceftaroline - 5th gen

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