First Aid 101-124 Flashcards

1
Q

Fruity odor in ketoacidosis is caused by

A

acetoacetate in blood –> acetone –> breathed out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What enzyme matures nascent HDL to mature HDL?

A

LCAT - lethicin-cholesterol acetyltransferase

CETP - cholesterol ester transfer protein then transfers cholesterol esters to VLDL, IDL, LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Function of apolipoprotein E

A

Mediates remnant uptake

in everything but LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Function of apolipoprotein A1

A

Activates LCAT

only in chylomicrons and HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Function of apolipoprotein C-II

A
Lipoprotein lipase cofactor
In VLDL (to make IDL), chylomicrons, HDL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Function of apolipoprotein B-48

A

Mediates chylomicron secretion

In chylomicrons and chylomicron remnants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Function of apolipoprotein B-100

A

Binds LDL receptor

In VLDL, IDL, LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In general, all lipases degrade

A

triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

LDL transports cholesterol from

A

liver to tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HDL transports cholesterol from

A

periphery to liver;
acts as repository for apolipoproteins C and E
alcohol increases HDL synthesis;
secreted from both liver and intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
AR
pancreatitis
hepatosplenomegaly,
no increased risk of atherosclerosis
eruptive/pruritic xanthomas
A

Type I familial dyslipidemia - hyperchylomicronemia
deficiency in either LPL (VLDL –> IDL and chylomicrons –> chylomicron remnants) or C-II (LPL cofactor)

increased cholesterol, TG, chylomicrons in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AD
corneal arcus
can have MI before age 20

A
familial hypercholesterolemia (type II familial dyslipidemia);
absent or defective LDL receptors;
accelerated atherosclerosis

high blood levels of LDL and cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

AD

hypertriglyceridemia can cause pancreatitis

A

type IV familial dyslipidemia - hypertriglyceridemia;
hepatic overproduction of VLDL

high blood levels of TG and VLDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Function of MTP - microsomal triglyceride transfer protein

A

chaperone for apo B and helps with lipid transfer to new chylomicrons and VLDL;
defective in Abetalipoproteinemia (AR)
very low VLDL, chylomicrons, absent apoB –> poor lipid absorption, acanthocyte RBCs, vitamin deficiencies (E bc no essential FAs absorbed), progressive ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, enterocytes with clear, foamy cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

acanthocyte RBCs, vitamin deficiencies (E bc no essential FAs absorbed), progressive ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, enterocytes with clear, foamy cytoplasm

A

Abetalipoproteinemia (AR)

loss of MTP fx or gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lipoteichoic acid unique to

A

gram positive organisms

induces TNF and IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What parts of the cell’s exterior are unique to gram negative organisms?

A

Porin in cell wall;
Endotoxin/LPSs on cell wall exterior (antigenic outer membrane proteins “OMPs”);
Periplasmic space in between thin peptidoglycan cell wall and inner cell membrane - where beta-lactamase is found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gram negative sphere besides Neisseria

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give 3 examples of Giemsa staining organisms

A
Chlamydiae
Ricketssiae
Borrelia
Trypanosoma (NOT treponema)
Plasmodium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Legionella, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, Bartonella, Ehrlichia, Anaplasma, have in common?

A

Primarily intracellular

Chlamydia lack classic peptidoglycan because low in muramic acid (mermaid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

India ink or mucicarmine stain for

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

22
Q

3 other organisms that silver stain identifies besides legionella

A

Coccidiodes, PJP, Heliobacter pylori

23
Q

“Very Typically Cultures Neisseria”

A

Thayer-Martin agar - selective media

Vancomycin, Trimethoprim, Colistin, Nystatin

24
Q

“Bordet for Bordetella”

A

Bordet-Gengou agar
Rean Lowe medium
for Bordatella pertussis isolation

25
Q

Loffler medium for

A

C. diphtheriae (also Tellurite)

26
Q

Eaton agar for Mycoplasma requires

A

cholesterol

27
Q

Lowenstein-Jensen agar for

A

M. tuberculosis

28
Q

Legionella requires charcoal yeast extract buffered with

A

cysteine and iron

29
Q

Sabouraud agar for

A

fungi

30
Q

What antibiotics are ineffective against anaerobes because they require O2 to enter the bacterial cell/

A

Aminoglycosides

31
Q

“Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY”

A
Salmonella
Neisseria
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Listeria
Francisella
Legionella
Yersinia pestis
32
Q

LPS induces what three effects?

A

Macrophage activation (TLR4)

  • -> IL-1, IL-6 –> fever
  • -> TNF-alpha –> fever, hypotension
  • -> NO –> hypotension

Complement activation

  • -> C3a –> histamine release, hypotension and edema
  • -> C5a –> neutrophil chemotaxis

Tissue factor activation
–> coagulation cascade –> DIC

33
Q

Pyrrolidonly arylaminidase (PYR) positive

A

Strep pyogenes

Enterococcus

34
Q

Fidaxomicin for

A

recurrent C. Diff

35
Q

Elek test to identify

A

toxin in diphtheriae

black colonies on cystine-tellurite agar

36
Q

Treatment for Actinomyces

A

Penicillin

37
Q

Treatment for Nocardia

A

TMP-SMX

38
Q

Azithromycin prophylaxis in AIDS patients with CD4

A

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare

39
Q

H2S production on TSI agar

A

Salmonella

Proteus

40
Q

What is the key defining cell of granulomatous inflammation?

A

Epitheloid histiocyte (macrophages with abundant pink cytoplasm)

41
Q

What is the histologic hallmark of Crohn disease?

A

Non-caseating granuloma

42
Q

What is the histologic hallmark of Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Crypt abscesses - neutrophils in the bottom of crypts

43
Q

Most common type of thyroid carcinoma

A

Papillary carcinoma

44
Q

Second most common thyroid cancer

A

Follicular carcinoma

45
Q

Thyroid carcinomas that involve activation of receptor tyrosine kinases

A

Papillary and medullary carcinomas

RET proto-oncogene

46
Q

Hashimoto thyroiditis is a risk factor for

A

B cell lymphoma

47
Q

Cancer arising from parafollicular C cells

A

Medullary carcinoma

48
Q

Cancer commonly associated with either a RAS mutation or a PAX8-PPAR gamma 1 rearrangement

A

Follicular carcinoma

49
Q

Cancer commonly associated with rearrangements in the RET oncogene or NTRK1

A

Papillary carcinoma

50
Q

Most common mutation in the BRAF gene results in

A

Papillary carcinoma

51
Q

MOA Propothoiuracil

A

Inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3;
inhibits thyroglobulin to diiodotyrosine in the follicle

NOTE: PTU and Methimazole can both cause aplastic anemia

52
Q

What cholesterol labs are elevated in hypothyroidism?

A

LDL and total cholesterol