Fire Inspection and Code Enforcement Flashcards

1
Q

Thermosetting plastics

A

Plastics that are hardened into a permanent shape in the manufacturing process and are not subject to softening when reheated

Examples:

  • Vulcanized rubber
  • Bakelite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Thermoplastics

A

Synthetic material made from the polymerization of organic compounds….Can be reheated, melted, and remolded into new shapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Exit access examples

A
  • Corridor leading to the exit opening
  • Aisle within an assembly occupancy that is designed to accomodate and conduct people to an exit
  • Pathway leading from inside a space to an exit
  • Unenclosed ramp or stairs
  • Occupied room or space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Exit examples

A
  • Doors at ground level that lead directly to the outside of the building
  • Exit passageway to the outside: 1. Must be constructed of the same fire resistance material as exit stairs; 2. Must be wide enough to accomodate total capacity of all exits that discharge through it
  • Horizontal exit - Require 2 hr walls; 1.5 hr doors
  • Stairway that is enclosed by fire-resistance rated walls and self closing doors (Smokeproof enclosure) - Provide the highest degree of fire protection of stair enclosures that the model codes require
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Exit discharge examples

A
  1. Exterior walkway along the side of a structure from the exit to a public way
  2. Privately owned driveway or alley that connects exit to public way
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ramp dimensions

A
  • 44 inches wide w/ a maximum slope of 1 ft of rise for every 12 ft of horizontal distance
  • Max length - 30 ft without a landing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Required # of exits

A
  • 500 or less = 2
  • 500-1000 = 3
  • 1000 + = 4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Location of exits

one-half diagonal rule

A
  • When 2 exits are required, they are to be located not less than one-half the length of the overall diagonal dimension of the room.
  • 3 exits+ : at least 2 will meet the minimum separation requirements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dead-end corridor

A

Condition that exists when a corridor has no outlet to a means of egress and is more than 20 ft in length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Primary feeders

A
  • Arterial mains
  • 16-72 inches
  • Rarely attached to hydrants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Secondary feeders

A
  • 12-14 inches
  • Each can be isolated by control valves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Distributors

A
  • 6-8 inches
  • Serve individual hydrants and commercial and residential consumers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Control valves on water mains

A
  • Should be exercised once a year
  • Max lengths for valve spacing should be 500 ft in high value districts and 800 ft in other areas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Wet-pipe sprinkler system

A

Continually charged w/ water under pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dry-pipe sprinkler system

A

Continually charged w/ air under pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Deluge sprinkler system

A
  • Open sprinklers attached to unpressurized dry pipes
  • Activated when a detection device senses fire
  • All sprinklers discharge water simultaneously
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Preaction sprinkler system

A
  • Continually charged with air that may or may not be under pressure
  • Only operates when both a sprinkler opens and a detection device in the same area activate the water-flow control valve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Antifreeze sprinkler system

A
  • Wet-pipe system continually charged with antifreeze solution
  • Antifreeze solution must be changed once a year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system

A
  • Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating and cooling
  • Closed system in which water is not removed unless sprinklers are activated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Combined dry pipe and preaction sprinkler system

A
  • Continually charged w/ air pressure combined w/ a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve
  • The detection system activates water-control valve, the release of pressurized air in the system and the facility alarm
  • When charged w/ water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water
  • Rare and only installed on large wharves where large stockpiles are found
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gridded sprinkler system

A
  • System of parallel cross mains connected by multiple branch lines
  • Activated heads will receive water from both mains
  • Advantage of water flow to the heads from multiple directions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Looped sprinkler system

A
  • Interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system
  • Branch lines are not interconnected
  • Common design because of advantage of water flow from multiple directions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Multicycle sprinkler system

A
  • Designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device
  • Turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Water supply for Class I and Class III standpipe systems must provide the following

A
  • 500 gpm for 30 minutes with a residual pressure of 100 psi at the most hydraulically remote 2½” outlet
  • Min of 65 psi for most remote 1½” outlet
  • If more than one standpipe is required, 250 gpm for each additional riser to a max of 2,500 gpm
  • Horizontal standpipe systems that supply 3 or more Class I or III hose stations, a min of 750 gpm is required…
  • Class II 100 gpm for 30 min … 65 psi residual
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

3 reasons for a 2½” outlet on roof for Class I or III systems

A
  1. Combustible roof
  2. Combustible structure or equipment on the roof
  3. Exposures that present a fire hazard
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pressure restricting devices

A
  • Each standpipe discharge is fitted w/ a restricting orifice w/ different sizes being required for each floor and application
  • Limited to systems with 1½” hose discharges and 175 psi max pressure
  • Not preferred
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pressure-control devices

A
  • Preferred for managing excessive pressure
  • Considered most reliable - use pitot gauge to read and automatically reduce
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pressure-reducing devices

A
  • Preferred for managing excessive pressure
  • Use a spring mechanism that dompensates for variations in pressure
  • Balance available pressure within a system with pressure required for hoseline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CO2 systems are designed to deliver at least ___% concentration of CO2

A

34%

  • High pressure = 850 psi
  • Low pressure = 300 psi @ 0oF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In areas where class K fires are likely, the maximum travel distance from the hazard to the extinguisher is ___

A

30ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Common conditions that can generate a static discharge

A
  • Nonconductive fluids flowing through pipes
  • Liquids breaking into drops and drops hitting liquid or solid surfaces
  • Air, gas, or steam flowing from an opening in a hose or pipe (especially w/ cryogenics)
  • Pulverized materials, traveling thu chutes or pneumatic transfer devices
  • Slurry loading of materials including explosive, animal feed, or waste processing
  • Belts in motion
  • Moving vehicles

Note: Generation of static electricity cannot be prevented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Heated quenching

A
  • Temps range from 200º to 400o
  • Normal flash point is 500o
  • A quenching oil should never be allowed to be within 50o of its flash point
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Unheated quenching

A
  • Temps from 100o to 200o
  • Flash point of 300o
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Automatic-wet standpipe system

A
  • Contains water in the system
  • Water supply control valve is open
  • Pressure is maintained at all times
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Automatic-dry standpipe system

A
  • Contains air under pressure
  • Water is admitted by the operation of a valve controlled by an electrical switch located at each hose station
  • Disadvantage of greater cost and maintenence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Semiautomatic-dry standpipe system

A
  • Contains unpressurized air in the system
  • Admits water through the use of a dry-pipe valve when hose is opened
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Manual-dry standpipe system

A
  • Contains unpressurized air in pipes
  • Has no permanent water supply
  • Water must be supplied thru FDC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Manual-wet standpipe system

A
  • Maintains water from a domestic fill connection in the piping for the purpose of detecting leaks in the system
  • No permanently connected water source is attached
  • Water must provided thru FDC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Heat energy comes from one or more of the following sources

A
  1. Chemical
  2. Mechanical
  3. Electrical
  4. Light
  5. Nuclear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Factors that influence fire development in a compartment

A
  • Fuel type
  • Availability and location of additional fuels
  • Compartment volume and ceiling height
  • Ventilation
  • Thermal properties of the compartment
  • Ambient conditions (wind, temp, humidity)
  • Effects of changing conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Every structure is composed of the following building elements

A
  1. Structural fram
  2. Load bearing walls; interior and extertior
  3. Exterior nonbearing walls and partitions
  4. Interior nonbearing walls and partitions
  5. Floor construction
  6. Roof construction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Assembly occupancies are used for the gathering of ___ or more persons

A

50

Churches, synagogues, mosques, restaurants, theaters, arenas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Assembly occupancy classes

A
  • Class A: 1000+
  • Class B: 301-1000
  • Class C: 50-300
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Residential board and care occupancies are locations where lodging, boarding, and personal care are provided to ___ or more residents who are unrelated to the owner

A
  • 4
  • Staff members are responsible for safety and welfare of residents but do not provide medical or nursing care
  • Can be classified as slow, prompt, impractical for evac purposes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Educations occupancy

A
  • 6 or more; Pre-school-12th grade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Health care occupancies

A
  • 4 or more
  • Cannot evac without assistance from staff
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Rooming House

A
  • Provide 24 hour accomdations for 16 or fewer individuals for rent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Dormitory

A
  • 16 or more persons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Solubility

A

Extent to which a substance will mix with water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Piloted ignition

A
  • When a mixture of fuel and ogygen encounter an external heat source with sufficient heat energy to start combustion process
  • Most common
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Autoignition

A
  • Occurs without any external flame or spark to ignite the fuel gases or vapors
  • Autoignition temperature - Temp to which the surface of a substance must be heated for ignition to occur
  • AIT is always higher than its piloted ignition temp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Class A fires

A
  • Ordinary, solid, combustible materials
  • Wood, cloth, paper, rubber, and many plastics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Class B fires

A
  • Flammable and combustible liquids and gases
  • Gasoline, oil, lacquer, paint, mineral spirits, alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Class C fires

A
  • Energized electrical equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Class D fires

A
  • Comustible metals
  • Aluminum, magnesium, potassium, sodium, titanium, zirconium
  • Particularly hazardous in powdered form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Class K fires

A
  • Oils and greases found in commercial kitchens and food prep facilities using deep fryers
  • Saponification turns fat and oils into soapy foam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Fire tetrahedron

A
  1. Fuel (Reduicing agent)
  2. Oxygen
  3. Heat
  4. Self-sustained chemical reaction
58
Q

Type IV (Heavy Timber) floor:

A
  • 3 inches thick floor decking
  • 1 inch finished floor
  • Decking is supported by 6x10 inch beams
59
Q

Panic hardware

A
  • Latch release - 15 pounds
  • Door in motion - 30 pounds
60
Q

Sprinklers can be omitted in the following areas in one-two family dwellings

A
  • Bathrooms not over 55 square feet
  • Small closets not more than 24 square feet and having a short wall that does not exceed 3 ft
  • Garages
  • Porches
  • Carports
  • Uninhabited attics
  • Entrance hallways
61
Q

Class D agents

A
  • NA-X
  • MET-L-X
  • LITH-X - does not form a crust on the burning metal
62
Q

Dry chemical agents

A
  • Sodium bicarbonate - Also know as ordinary dry chem
  • Potassium bicarbonate - Purple-K; most effective on Class B and C fires; same amount of this as sodium bicarb can put out a fire twice the size
  • Monoammonium phosphate - Multipurpose dry chem; effective on A, B, C fires
63
Q

Ionization detectors

A
  • Changes in humidity and atmospheric pressure can cause false alarm
  • Cooking fat/grease
  • Flammable liquids
  • Newspapers
  • Paint
  • Cleaning solutuions
64
Q

Photoelectric detectors

A

Best suited for:

  • Living rooms, bedrooms and kitchens
  • These rooms have large pieces of furniture and create more smoke than flames
  • Responds more quickly to smoldering fires than ionization detectors
65
Q

Protected premise (Local alarm) system

A
  • Alerts only buildings occupants
  • No provisions for offsite reporting
  • Can be activated manually (pull station) or by automatic device (smoke detectors)
  • Non-coded alarm - Simplest
  • Zoned-Annunciated alarm
  • Addressable alarm - Most effective; can pinpoint activated device
66
Q

Flashover

A
  • The rapid transition between growth and fully developed fire stages
  • Not a specific event like ignition
  • When the temp in a compartment results in the simultaneous ignition of all combustible elements in the space
  • Range from approx 900o to 1,200o
  • Fuel must have sufficient heat energy to develop flashover conditions
  • Ventilation is the 2nd factor, a developing fire must have sufficient oxygen to reach flashover
67
Q

The most fundamental fuel characteristics influencing fire development are ____

A

Mass and surface area

68
Q

Type II construction

A
  • Composed of building materials that will not contribute to fire spread
  • Consists of noncombustible materials that do no meet the stricter requirements of those used in Type I
  • Most common - metal framing, metal cladding, or concrete block walls w/ metal deck roofs supported by open web steel joists
  • Used when fire risk is low or when fire suppression and detection systems are designed to meet the hazard load
  • Can have combustible roof systems, flooring and display areas
  • Also combustible features can include balconies or wall coverings for aesthetic purposes
69
Q

Type III construction

A
  • Used when building churches, schools, apartments, or mecantile structures
  • Required exterior walls to be of noncombustible materials and interior elements be constructed of any material permitted by code
  • Brick, concrete, and reinforced concrete are used for exterior and interior nonbearing walls
  • Floors, roofs, and interior nonbearing framing and partitions are constructed of small dimension wood or metal stud systems
70
Q

Type V construction

A
  • Known as wood frame or frame construction
  • Exterior bearing walls are made entirely of wood and other combustible materials
  • A veneer of brick or stone may be used over wood framing
  • Common example is single family dwelling
  • Most often consists of 2x4 inch studs, steel or aluminum studs, or wood sill plates
71
Q

Type I construction

A
  • Composed of only noncombustible or limited combustible materials
  • Provides the highest level of safety
  • Can be expected to remain structurally stable for duration of fire resistance of members
  • All structural members are made of ony noncombustible materials and posess a high fire-resistance rating
  • Reinforced concrete and precast concrete along with protected steel frame construction
72
Q

Type IV construction

A
  • Also know as Heavy Timber
  • Uses large-dimensioned lumber (greater than 4 inches for all structural members)
  • Any materials used and not composed of wood must have a fire-resistance rating of 1 hour
  • Extremely stable and more resistant to collapse than other types not protected by fire suppression system
  • When on fire, elements form an insulating effect derived from timbers own char
  • Exterior walls composed of noncombustibles
  • Interior elements are solid or laminated wood with no concealed spaces
73
Q

Masonry walls

A
  • Minimum of 6 inches thick
  • Thickness depends on the height of the building and method of construction
  • Course - Bricks laid side by side in a horizontal layer
  • Wythe - Horizontal course laid on top of each other in a vertica layer
  • The strength and stability of wall are derived from the weight of the masonry and horizontal bonding between adjacent wythes
  • Stretcher course - bricks are placed end-to-end
  • Soldier course - bricks are placed vertically on end
  • Header course - bricks are laid flat on its bed; face perpendicular to the face of the wall; bonds two wythes
74
Q

Curtain walls

A
  • When a building is constructed using a structural frame for its main structural support, the exterior wall functions only to enclose the building
75
Q

Enclosure walls

A
  • Use to encompass vertical openings such as stairwells, elevator shafts and pipe chases
  • The fire resistive walls used for shaft and enclosure walls must be fire barriers
  • Walls must have fire resistance rating of 1 or 2 hours depending on height building
  • Usually non-load bearing; sometimes with masonry stair enclosures
76
Q

Stairs

A
  • Must be at least 44 inches wide
  • 36 inches wide if occupant load for all floors is less than 50 people
  • Stair treads must be solid and slip-resistant
  • Landings must be provided so that no flight of stairs are greater than 12 feet
  • Handrails are required
  • Stairs that are really wide may have to have intermediate handrails in middle
  • Treads and risers must be in good condition
  • 3 stories or less = 1 hr fire rating
  • 4 stories or more = 2 hr fire rating
  • Doors are 1 hr for 1hr rated enclosure and 1.5 hr for 2 hr rated enclosure
77
Q

High rise buildings

A
  • Min riser is 4 inch for building less than 100’
  • Min riser is 6 inch for buildings over 100’
  • When a class I or Class II standpipe exceeds 100’, the top 100’ ft is allowed to be 4”
  • Class II risers - 2” for buildings less than 50 ft; 2½” for buildings over 50’; buildings over 275’ must be divided into sections
  • Combined standpipe and sprinklers - min is 6”
  • Locate all standpipes so that any part of floor within 130’ of the hose connection; 100 foot hose with 30’ fire stream
  • Standpipe connection commonly located in noncombutible fire-rated stair enclosures
  • Actual hose connections cannot be located no more than 6’ from floor level
78
Q

NA-X (Class D agent)

A
  • Class D extinguisher
  • Sodium, potassium, sodium-potassium alloy
  • NOT suitable for magnesium
  • Forms an encasing crust
  • Causes oxygen deficiency
  • For use on burning materials at fuel temps up to 1,400o
79
Q

MET-L-X (Class D agent)

A
  • Used on magnesium, sodium, potassium
  • Forms crust
  • Non-abrasive, no known toxic effects
80
Q

LITH-X

A
  • Graphite based
  • Extinguishes by conducting heat away from the fuel after a layer of the powder has been applied
  • Lithium, magnesium, zirconium, sodium
  • Does not form a crust
81
Q

Extinguisher placement

A
  • Extinguishers less than 40 lbs should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than 5 ft above the floor
  • Greater than 40 lbs, except wheeled types - 3.5 ft
  • Clearance between bottom extinguisher and the floor should never be less than 4 inches
82
Q

Lumberyards

A
  • Primary hazard = high fuel load
  • Conditions that equal serious proportions: Large, undivided stacks of materials; congested storage conditions; delayed fire protection; inadequate fire protection; combos of Class A and B materials close proximity
  • Lumber stacks must be located on solid ground
  • Heights of stacks must not exceed 20’
  • Driveways must be spaced so that a maximum grid system of not more than 50’x150’ is produced
83
Q

Fire watch

A
  • Must be maintained 30 minutes after any job is completed
  • Must monitor 35’ radius
84
Q

Fire lanes

A
  • Fire lanes must extend to within 150’ of all portions of the building
  • Minimum of 16’ wide; 20’ adjacent to buildings for one way travel; 24’ for 2 way travel
  • Vertical clearance must be a minumum of 13.5’
85
Q

3 key elements to an evacuation plan

A
  1. Evacuation routes
  2. Monitor duties
  3. Employee/occupant duties
86
Q

Emergency evacuation drills should be conducted a minimum of ___ per year

A

Twice

87
Q

Chemical heat energy

A
  • Energy that is released when 2 or more chemicals combine and react with one another
  • Most common source of heat in combustion reactions
88
Q

Mechanical heat energy

A
  • Created by friction and compression
  • Heat of friction: When 2 surfaces move against each other
  • Heat of compression: When a gas is compressed
89
Q

Electrical heat energy

A
  • Generated as electrical current passes through a conductor such as copper wire
  • Overcurrent or overload: Unintended resistance heating
  • Arcing: High temp luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation
  • Sparking: Luminos particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing
90
Q

Suction tanks

A
  • Located at ground level and provide a water supply source for pressure increasing fire pumps
  • Usually 100,000 to 300,000 gallons
  • But 5,000 to 1,000,000 may be found
91
Q

Pressure tanks

A
  • Used for limited fire protection services
  • Contain water under air pressure
  • Should be provided with low/high water-level and air-pressure supervision gauges
  • Range from 3,000 - 9,000 gallons
92
Q

Fixed-temperature heat detectors

A
  • Inexpensive
  • Least prone to false activations
  • Slowest to activate under fire conditions
  • Must be placed in ceilings, atriums
  • Low - Uncolored - 100 -134
  • Ordinary - Uncolored - 135-174
  • Intermediate - White - 175-249
  • High - Blue - 250-324
  • Extra High - Red - 325-399
  • Very Extra High - Green - 400-499
  • Ultra High - Orange - 500-575
93
Q

Plot plan

A

Indicates how buildings are situated with respect to other structures and streets in area

94
Q

Floor plan

A

Shows the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs

95
Q

Elevation view

A

Shows side views of structures depicting # of floors and grades of surrounding ground

96
Q

3 factors to determine if inspector needs to obtain and administrative warrant

A
  1. Severity of the nature of the complaint
  2. Type of occupancy
  3. Location within the occupancy
97
Q

Fire walls

A
  • Can be constructed with fire ratings of 2 or more hours
  • Highest required is 4 hours
  • Allow a reduction in hourly rating when a building has sprinklers
  • Fire walls must extend beyond roofs to prevent the radiant heat from igniting adjacent surfaces
98
Q

Fire doors

A
  • Rates as 4, 3, 1.5, 1, 3/4 and 1/3
99
Q

Class B extinguishers are rated from 1-B through 640-B

A

The number indicates the approx area in square footage of fire involved

100
Q

Protected stairs

A
  • 1 or 2 hours depending on building height
  • Penetrations for building services are prohibited… only light and fire protection
  • non combustible or limited combustible construction
101
Q

Flame spread ratings

A
  • Class A (0-25) - vertical exits
  • Class B (26-75) - corridors that provide exit access
  • Max flame spread rating is 200
102
Q

Steel

A
  • Alloy of iron and carbon
  • Common structural steel has less 0.3% carbon
  • Cast Iron has 3-4% carbon which produces hard but brittle material
  • Lower carbon = less likely to break
  • Flame resistant but can melt
103
Q

Disadvantages of steel

A
  1. Tendency to rust when exposed to air and moisture
  2. Loss of strength when steel is exposed to fire

Factors when steel fails

  • Mass of steel members
  • Intensity of fire
  • Load supported by steel
  • Type of structural connections

Bar joists or slender trusses fail early

Massive steel beams and girders usually stay in place under heavy fire

104
Q

Rigid frames

A
  • Used for one story industrial buildings, farm buildings
  • Used for spans from 40-200 ft
  • Top is known as crown
  • Points where inclined members intersect the vertical members are knees
  • Must be braced diagonally
105
Q

Post and beam framing

A
  • Columns (posts) and beam dimensions are less than heavy timber but greater than light-frame
  • Posts are usually 4x4 or 6x6
  • Posts spaced 4-12 ft
  • Interior wood is left exposed
106
Q

Heavy timber

A
  • Columns are not less than 8x8
  • Beams (except roof beams) are not less than 6x10
  • Mortise and tenon joint: Timber member is cut to fit into a recess in a mating member
  • Heavy timbers cut from a single log are usually not greater than 20 ft
107
Q

Party walls

A
  • A wall that lies on a lot line between 2 buildings and is common to both buildings
  • Erected to limit the max spread of fire
  • Almost always load bearing walls
  • Frequently function as fire walls and extend through the roof
  • Common location for breach is in attic or cockloft
  • Against code to breach party wall for any reason
108
Q

3 Roof categories

A
  1. Flat
  2. Pitched
  3. Curved
109
Q

Trusses

A
  • Made of a group of triangles in one plane
  • Use less material and lighter than a beam or joist for an equal span
  • Reduced mass makes them vulnerable to early failure
  • Span lengths run from 10-over 60 ft
110
Q

5 Door types

A
  1. Swinging
  2. Sliding
  3. Folding
  4. Vertical
  5. Revolving
111
Q

Escalators

A
  • Move at speed of either 90 or 120 ft per minute
112
Q

Lead acid batteries contain the following 2 hazards

A
  1. Sulfuric acid
  2. Metallic lead
113
Q

Egress doors

A
  • Must be 36” wide but no more than 48” wide
  • Must be wide enough to fit the # of people expected to travel through the door in an emergency
  • Floor must be level on each side of door
114
Q

Hydrant inspections and flow test should be conducted:

A
  1. Inspections - Annually
  2. Flow test - Every 5 years
115
Q

Wet chemical extinguishers

A
  • Most effective on deep fat fryers
  • Typically composed of water and either potassium carbonate, potassium citrate, or potassium acetate
  • The generation of soapy foam is called saponification which occurs as a result of reactions with fats and generates steam
116
Q

5 major stationary fire pumps

A
  1. Horizontal split case pump - Most common
  2. Vertical split case pump
  3. Vertical inline pump
  4. Vertical turbine pump
  5. End suction pump
117
Q

CO2 Systems

A
  • High pressure, CO2 is stored at a pressure of about 850 psi
  • Low pressure: Protects much larger hazards and is stored at 300 psi at 0oF
118
Q

Gypsum board types

A
  • Regular: Used for most applications
  • Water-resistant
  • Type X: Fire rated assemblies
  • Type C: Fire rated assemblies
  • Foil-backed: Eliminates the vapor barrier in outside walls
  • Coreboard: Shaft walls and solid partitions
119
Q

Angle of approach

A

Generally and angle of 8o is necessary to allow apparatus to drive onto lane without striking the ground with that tailboard or front bumper

120
Q

3 common types of portable fire extinguishers

A
  1. Stored-pressure: Air-pressurized water most common
  2. Cartridge-operated: CO2 or nitrogen; found in industrial ops (paint spraying or solven manufacturing)
  3. Pump-operated: Limited to the use of water
121
Q

Alphabetical Letter Designations

Fire Doors

A
  • A - Openings in fire walls that divide a structure into separate fire areas
  • B - Vertical shafts
  • C - Rooms and corridors; 1 hr or less
  • D - Severe
  • E - Moderate
122
Q

Protected Premises (Local)

A
  • Transmits both a visible and an audible alarm only within the immediate premises
  • No off-site reporting
  • Alert building occupants
  • Activated by pull stations or detectors

3 Types

  • Noncoded - Simplest; All alarms simultaneously; Not capable of identifying device; small occupancies
  • Zoned/Annunciated - General location; building, floor, zone
  • Addressable - Most effective; each device connected to specific indicator on FACP
123
Q

Auxiliary Fire Alarm

A
  • Connected to municipal fire alarm system
  • Alarms are transmitted to telecommunications center
  • Same equipment; same alarms as manual fire alarm boxes

2 types:

  • Local energy system - Own power source
  • Shunt system - Connected to an integral part of the municpal fire-alarm system; depends municipal system power
124
Q

Proprietary

A
  • Large commercial and industrial buildings; high rises, college campuses
  • Each building has its own system connected to a common receiving point in the facility
  • Reps of occupant summon fire thru telephone or system controls
125
Q

Central Station

A
  • Receiving point is located outside the protected premises and is monitored by a contracted service
126
Q

Remote Receiving

A
  • Common in localities not served by central station systems
  • Connected thru leased telephone line
  • Radio signal may also be used
127
Q

Rate of rise heat detectors

A
  • Pneumatic Line - Tubing arranged over a wide area of coverage
  • Pneumatic Spot - Self-contained
  • Rate-compensation - Areas w/ reg temp changes but slower than fire conditions; bimetallic sleeve; 2 bowed struts
  • Electronic spot-type - One or more thermistors
128
Q

Nature of hazard

Light, Ordinary, Extra

A
  • Light hazard = Classrooms, churches, assembly halls
  • Ordinary = Mercantile storage, light manufacturing, parking garages, warehouses below 12’ of storage
  • Extra = Auto repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing ops that use flammable liquids, restaurant w/ deep fat fryers; high piled storage
129
Q

True Scalar

A

*

130
Q

NFPA 86 Standard on Ovens and Furnaces

A
  • Class A - Atmospheric pressure; potential for explosion when flammable volatiles are processed or heated
  • Class B - Atmospheric pressure; No volatiles are being heated
  • Class C - Potential hazard due to a flammable material or special atmosphere present; any type of heating system; integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces
  • Class D - Operates from above ambient to over 5000oF; below atmospheric pressure; any type heating;
131
Q

Residential sprinkler systems

A
  • Omitted from
    • Bathroom < 55 sf
    • closets < 24 sf and wall < 3ft
    • garages
    • porches
    • carports
    • uninhabited attics
    • entrance hallways
  • spacing 144 sf per sprinkler
  • spacing between sprinklers = 12 ft
  • distance from wall = 6ft
  • minumum pipe size = 1/2 inch
  • 18 gpm
  • 2 or more = 13 gpm
132
Q

Horizontal split-case pump

A
  • Most common
  • Drive shaft on horizontal plane w/ pump one end of shaft and driver (motor) on the other
  • Not self-priming (cannot draft)
  • 500-1500 gpm
133
Q

Vertical split-case pump

A
  • Similar to horizontal split-case
  • Impellar shaft runs vertically
  • Always by electic motor that sits on top of the pump
  • 500-1500 gpm
134
Q

Vertical inline pump

A
  • Fits into the intake/discharge line w/ driver located above the inline impeller
  • ease of installation;ease of maintenence
  • up to 1500 gpm; 165 psi
135
Q

Vertical turbine

A
  • Well pumps in nonfire-protection applications
  • Multi stage
  • up to 500 psi
136
Q

Proportioners

A
  • Balanced pressure - Monitor demand; adjust amount of concentrate; concentrate from some outlets and water from other same time
  • Around-the-pump - bypass line; most common in fire trucks; does not allow foam and water at same time; if incoming pressure > 10psi
  • Pressure proportioning
  • Coupled - Positive displacement
137
Q

Polar solvents

A
  • Alcohol
  • Methanol
  • MEK
138
Q

Hydrocarbon

A
  • Gasoline
  • Diesel fuel
  • Pentane
139
Q

Recovery

A
  • Return the operational area to a safe condition
  • Debrief personnel before they leave the scene
  • Return equipment and personnel to conditions before incident
140
Q

Termination

A
  • Critiques
  • After-Action analysis
    • Operational weakness
    • Training needs
    • Necessary procedural changes
    • Required additional resources
    • Plan updates/required changes
141
Q

Blood Agents

  • Arsine
  • Hydrogen cyanide
  • Cyanogen chloride
A
  • Arsine
    • Colorless
    • Nonirritating Toxic
    • Garlic odor
  • Hydrogen cyanide
    • Colorless
    • Highly volatile
    • Highly soluble
    • Faint odor (bitter almonds)
    • Less dense than air
    • 25% of pop unable to smell it
  • Cyanogen chloride
    • Colorless
    • Highly volatile
    • Only slightly soluble
    • Heavier than air
    • Eyes and mucous membranes irritation
142
Q
A