Financial Management Flashcards

1
Q

Banking- Cashier’s Check

A

A check the bank prepares, signed by bank official, that is directly drawn from a person’s account.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Certified Check

A

A check that the bank authenticates and guarantees by setting aside the funds until it is presented for payment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Counter Check

A

A check that the bank prepares as a substitute for a regular check to permit the drawer to withdraw funds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Money order

A

Similar to cashiers check, but can be purchased at the post office or convenience store.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Limited Check

A

A check that is restricted by amount and time of negotiability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Traveler’s check

A

Special check prepared for those who are traveling or where personal check is not accepted or where carrying cash is not prudent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Trial Balance

A

A list of all account balances to determine whether the debts equal the credits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Balance Sheet

A

Is a statement that summarizes assets, liabilities and capital balances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Income Statement

A

A financial statement that summarizes revenue and expense for a specified period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Journal

A

An account document that serves to record all daily transaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

General Journal

A

Is the book of all original entry of all transactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Account Balance

A

The balance of an account will be the difference between the debt amount and the credit amount.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Blank endorsement

A

The check has only the payee’s signature. Thus making to any bearer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Restrictive Endorsement

A

The payee directs how the check is to be paid, such as “for deposit only”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Bank

A

Is also known as a “drawer”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drawer

A
  • The depositor

- The person writing the check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drawee

A

The bank in which the drawer has money on deposit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Payee

A

The party to receive the money as I reacted by the drawer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Types of checks

A
  • Cashier’s check
  • Certified check
  • Counter check
  • Limited check
  • Money orders
  • Traveler’s check
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MICR

A

Magnetic Ink Character Recognition.
- preprinted forms containing MICR characters that can be read by a machine.
- The MICR include an ABA (American Banking Association) number that indicates where the bank is located and information
needed to sort and route deposit tickets and checks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Check stub

A

Small form to the left of each check that contains spec to record all relevant information about a check and checking account balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Check register

A

Information recorded on the check stub, instead recorded in a booklet maintained with the bound check.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dishonored checks

A

A check the bank refuses to pay generally because of insufficient funds deposited. (NSF- not sufficient funds).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Post dated checks

A

Checks dated after the date is was written.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bank statement

A

Statement of account rendered to each depositor once a month by a bank.

 - Balance on deposit at the beginning of the month. 
 - Amount of deposit credited during the period. 
 - Amount f checks honored (debited) during the period. 
 - other items debited or credited during the period. 
 - Balance on deposit at the end of the period.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bank statement reconciliation

A

Is the process of adjusting both balances to reflect the transaction not represented by both the bank statement and check register in order to determine the true balance of the account. If done properly, the check register and the bank statement balance should agree after the adjustments have been made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Reconciliation procedure

A
  • Compare the deposited amounts recorded on the check register with those shown on the bank statement.
  • Compare the canceled amounts with those stated on the bank statement and check register.
  • Identify ll debits and credits to the account listed on the bank statement.
  • Errors found on the check register that mistakenly elevate be deducted or added to the check register, respectively. Errors
    should be reported to the bank promptly and adjusted accordingly.
  • Add and subtract all of the bank statement and check register. Both adjusted should be equal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping

A

Describes the language of business, it’s the process of recording, classifying, summarizing, reporting, analyzing, and interpreting financial and economic data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping purpose

A

Provide financial information regarding the current operation to interested parties, especially outsiders.

 - Financial condition of a business: Profitability and solvency. 
 - Managerial performance 
 - Effectiveness and efficiency of operations
 - Compliance with directive regulations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- “users of accounting information”

A
  • Owners/managers
  • Creditors
  • Government agencies
  • Accrediting agencies
  • Third-party payers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- “Accounting elements”

A
  • Assets
  • Money
  • Land/ building/ fixtures/ furnishings
  • Machinery/ equipment
  • Accounts receivable
  • Securities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- “Assets”

A

Property of value owned or controlled by a business.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- “Securities”

A

Stocks and bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- “Liabilities”

A

Debt obligations; creditor interest.

 - Accounts payable: Suppliers/ vendors 
 - Notes payable: Bank debits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- “Revenue”

A

Inflow of assets through sale of product or services. Has the effect of increasing owner’s equity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- “Owner’s equity”

A

The amount by which assets exceed liabilities; net worth; ownership interest; capital.

 - Revenue 
 - Expense
 - Drawing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- “Expense”

A

Outflow of assets to generate revenue. Has the effect of reducing owner’s equity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- “Drawing”

A

Withdrawal of assets for personal use. Has the effect of reducing owner’s equity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- “Accounting equation”

A
  • Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity
  • Liabilities = Assets + owner’s Equity
  • Owner’s Equity = Assets - Liabilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Accounting & Bookkeeping- Bookkeeping system

A
  • Single-entry system

- Double entry system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bookkeeping- Single-entry “system”

A

All transaction are recorded once using a pegboard system.

  • Materials
    • Pegboard
    • Journal
    • Ledger cards
    • Charge slip/ receipt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Bookkeeping- Single entry

“Pegboard”

A

Lightweight metal or plastic board that contains pegs along the left edge to hold the corresponding perforated accounting document.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bookkeeping- Single entry

“Journal”

A

A page that approximate the size of the pegboard also known as the daysheet, daybook, or daily log. Maintains a record of all daily charges (fees) and receipts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Bookkeeping- Ledger cards

A

Records of all fees and payments for each patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bookkeeping- Charge slip/ receipt

A
  • A form used to record a charge to serve as a bill, or as a receipt given to the patient for a fee payment.
  • Superbill: Multicopy charge slip that may be retained by the clinic, patient and insurance carrier.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry

A

Each transaction is recorded in a way that maintains a balancing of the accounting elements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry

Account

A

Double entry- Account:

  • A record used to keep track of the increases and decreases to each element of the accounting equation.
    • Title and account number
    • Debit and credit column
    • Date column
    • Posting reference
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry

“Trial balance”

A

Trial Balance:

- A list of all accounts by titles and their respective debit or credit balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry

“Financial statement”

A
  • Income statement (profit-loss statement)

- Balance sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Financial statement

“Income statement”

A
Income statement (profit-loss statement:
     - Summarizes revenue and expenses to determine the level of profit or loss.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Financial statement

“Balance sheet”

A

Balance sheet:

- Summarizes the assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity at a specific date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- “Accounting documents”

A

Accounting documents:

 - Source documents
 - Chart of account
 - Journal
 - Ledger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting documents

“Source documents”

A

Source documents:

- Any document that indicates a transaction has occurred such as a receipt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting documents

“Chart of accounts”

A

Chart of accounts:

- A list and numbering of all accounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting documents

“Journal”

A

Journal:

- A book of original entry that serves as a chronological record of all daily business transaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting documents

“Ledger”

A
Ledger:
A collection of individual records of each account.
     - General ledger
     - Account receivable ledger
     - Accounts payable ledger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting document- Ledger

General ledger

A

General Ledger:

- Asset, liability, and capital accounts grouped together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting document- Ledger

“Accounts receivable ledger”

A

Accounts receivable ledger:

- A ledger of all persons and businesses that own money to the company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting document- Ledger

“Accounts payable ledger”

A

Accounts payable ledger:

- A ledger of all businesses the company owes money to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry

“Accounting Process”

A

Accounting process:

  • The source document is reviewed to determine whether it should be ordered as a transaction.
    • Journalize
    • Posting
    • Adjustment
    • Closing
    • Trial balance
    • Accounting statement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting Process

“Journalize”

A

Journalize:

- Daily transactions are recorded in the journal as debits and credits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting Process

“Posting”

A

Posting:
- Periodically, the information recorded in the journal is transferred to each ledger record reserved for the account debited or credited in the journal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting Process

“Adjustments”

A

Adjustments:

- Accounts are adjusted for any changes in the amounts not already recorded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting Process

“Closing”

A

Closing:

- Expense and revenue accounts are closed (zeroed out) at the end of the accounting period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting Process

“Trial Balance”

A

Trial balance:

- At the end of an accounting period (month or year), a trial balance is prepared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Bookkeeping- Double entry- Accounting Process

“Accounting Statements”

A

Accounting statements:

- From the trial balance an income statement and balance sheet is prepared.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Bookkeeping- Accounts “Receivable”

A

Accounts receivable:

  • Fees owed by patients for service rendered.
  • Often clinics receive less than the total charge for patient services due to:
    • Uncollectible accounts balance
    • Charity allowance
    • Contractual allowance (discounts)
    • Courtesy allowance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Bookkeeping- Accounts Receivable

“Uncollectible Accounts Allowance”

A

Uncollectible accounts allowance:

- bad debts, unpaid fees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Bookkeeping- Accounts Receivable

“Charity Allowance”

A

Charity allowance:

- Discounts given to indigent patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Bookkeeping- Accounts Receivable

“Contractual Allowance (discounts)”

A
Contractual accounts (discounts):
     - Lower fees paid by third-party payers.
71
Q

Bookkeeping- Accounts Receivable

Courtesy Allowance

A

Courtesy Allowance:

- Discounts given to employees, physicians, and clergy.

72
Q

Bookkeeping- Aging Accounts “Receivable”

A

Aging accounts receivable:

  • Process of classifying each account receivable according to the amount of time the balance is unpaid.
  • Aging categories include current, 31-60, 61-90, 91-120, and greater than 120 days past due.
  • Category = age category total / total accounts receivable x 100.
73
Q

Bookkeeping- Accounts Payable

A

Money owed to outside businesses for sales and services rendered.

74
Q

Bookkeeping- Petty Cash Fund

A

A cash amount maintained in the office to pay minor expenses, eliminating the need to write a check.

 - Petty cash voucher
 - Petty cash register
 - Replenishment
75
Q

Bookkeeping- Petty Cash Fund

Petty Cash Voucher

A

Petty cash voucher:
- A special form of receipt showing the name of the payee, the amount, the purpose of payment, and the account to to charged is generally required to aid in controlling the fund.

76
Q

Bookkeeping- Petty Cash Fund

“Petty Cash Register”

A

Petty Cash Register:

- A record having multiple columns used to record petty cash disbursement.

77
Q

Bookkeeping- Petty Cash Fund

“Replenishment”

A

Replenishment:
- When the fund has reached a low enough level, a check is written to cover all of the disbursement since the last replenishment period to bring the fund back up to the designated amount.

78
Q

Billing & Collection

A
  • Billing: Maintain consistent generation of revenue and even, steady cash flow.
  • Collection clearly defined and made known to the patient.
79
Q

Billing & Collection- Professional “Fee Structure”

A

Professional fee structure:

  • Should reflect the revenue needed to maintain the financial stability of a practice.
    • Fees are influenced by the time and degrees of difficulty in providing the service.
    • Fees should cover operating expenses such as labor, materials, and overhead.
80
Q

Billing & Collection- Fee Schedule

A
  • A list of common service with accompanying code numbers, description, and prices.
  • Under federal regulations, the fee schedule explaining this patient right should be posted in the office.
81
Q

Billing- Fee Schedule

A
  • A list of common service with accompanying code numbers, description, and prices.
  • Under federal regulations, the fee schedule explaining this patient right should be posted in the office.
82
Q

Billing & Collection- Usual, Customary, and Reasonable charges (UCR)

A
  • Usual fee: Fee that a provider most frequently charges for a service.
  • Customary Fee: Range of usual fees charged for the same service by practitioners of similar training and experience within a geographic area.
  • Reasonable: A fee assigned to a service that has some unusual or complex features. It typically meets the criteria of both usual and customary.
83
Q

Billing & Collection- Usual, Customary, and Reasonable charges (UCR)

A
  • Usual fee: Fee that a provider most frequently charges for a service.
  • Customary Fee: Range of usual fees charged for the same service by practitioners of similar training and experience within a geographic area.
  • Reasonable: A fee assigned to a service that has some unusual or complex features. It typically meets the criteria of both usual and customary.
84
Q

Billing & Collection- Fee Discounts and Allowances

A
  • It is better to adjust a fee before rather than after treatment.
  • Reducing the fee after treatment may imply that a lower quality of care was rendered.
  • Discounts may be commonly given to fee-for-service patients or for cash payments.
85
Q

Billing & Collection- Release of Information

A

Release of information:

  • Used to request information from other providers and to authorize third parties such as insurance company to be given information.
  • The release is good for 1 year.
86
Q

Billing & Collection- Release of Information

A

Release of information:

  • Used to request information from other providers and to authorize third parties such as insurance company to be given information.
  • The release is good for 1 year.
87
Q

Billing & Collection- Assignment of Benefits

A

Requests insurance payments to be sent directly to the provider rather than the patient.

88
Q

Billing Systems-Ttime-of-service

A

Time-of-service:

-

88
Q

Billing Systems- Time-of-service

A

Time-of-service:

- Fees are collected when the service is rendered. Improved cash flow and reduces collection costs.

89
Q

Billing- Monthly billing

A

Monthly billing:

Sending the patient a bill on a monthly basis.

90
Q

Billing- Cycle billing

A

Cycle billing:
Billing segments of the patient population at different times consistently each month; e.g., patients names starting A-F are billed the first week of each month, G-L the second week, and so on.

91
Q

Billing- Credit/debit card billing

A

Credit/debit card billing:

Payment is made using a major credit card or debit card.

92
Q

Billing- Billing service

A

Billing service:

The clinic contracts with an outside agency to prepare and mail patient bills.

93
Q

Billing Statements

A

Statements must be neat and accurate.

 - Typed statement
 - Ledger cards
 - Superbill
 - Computerized
94
Q

Billing Statements- Typed statements

A

Typed statements:

Each bill is individually typed. Out-of-date and time-consuming process.

95
Q

Billing Statements- Ledger Cards

A

Photocopied and mailed to the patient.

96
Q

Billing Statements- Superbill

A

Superbill:

- Given to the patient at the visit for payment or remitted at a later time usually within 30 days.

98
Q

Billing Statements- Computerized

A

Computerized:

- Financial data is keyed into a computerized and statements are automatically prepared.

99
Q

Fidelity bond:

A
  • Insurance against embezzlement.
  • Employees handling money should be bonded. The insurance or bonding agency replaces an amount that is stolen or lost.
    • Personal bond
    • Position-schedule bond
    • Blank-position bond
100
Q

Personal Bond

A

Covers an individual; requires a thorough background investigation and is usually done for persons handling large sums.

101
Q

Position-scheduled bond

A

Covers a specific job title, such as bookkeeper, rather than a named individual.

102
Q

Blanket-position bond

A

Covers all employees.

103
Q

Credit Arrangements

A

A service rendered before payment is an extension of credit.

104
Q

Equal Credit Opportunity Act

A

Federal law requiring equal extension of credit to all person demonstrating ability to pay. Prohibits discrimination.

105
Q

Federal Truth in Lending Act

A
  • Enforced by a Federal Trade Commission (FTC).
  • Governs interest charges or installment agreement of more than 4 payments.
  • Regulation Z: Requires completing a form disclosing information regarding finance charges.
106
Q

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

A

Federal law prohibiting abusive, deceptive , and unfair debt collection activities.

107
Q

Collections

A
  • The difficulty in collecting an account increases proportionately to its age.
  • Do not attempt to collect a debt through a third party.
108
Q

Collections- Rationale

A
  • Revenue must be collected to cover expenses.
109
Q

Collections- Rationale

Potential loss of patient

A

Potential loss of patient:

- Patient may not keep appointments out of embarrassment or may change providers.

110
Q

Collections- Rationale

Noncollection may imply guilt

A

Noncollection may imply guilt:

- The patient may perceive that inadequate care was provided.

111
Q

Collections- Rationale

Noncollection encourages nonpayment

A

Noncollection encourages nonpayment:

- The added costs of nonpayemnt may be unfairly shifted to paying patients.

112
Q

Collections Mailings- Dun message

A

Dun message:

 - Dunnen meaning "to make a loud noise". - A dun message is a reminder to the patient regarding payment of a debt.
113
Q

Progressive Collection Process

A

A color or written codes should be developed to keep track of collection efforts. At a minimum, create a codling system to symbolize the following actions.

114
Q

Progressive Collection Process- Coding system to symbolize the following actions.

A
  • First bill sen pending receipt of payment
  • A friendly reminder or two sent after 1 month.
  • Telephone calls requesting payment.
  • Collection letters sent.
  • Final notice sent.
  • Forwarding account to collection agency.
  • Updates on collection agency attempts.
  • Legal action such as small claims, lawsuit, etc.
115
Q

Collections- Disputed Charges

A

Disputed charges:

- The patient does not agree with the amount.

116
Q

Collections- Tracking Skips

A

Tracing skips:

  • Skips: Person who has moved purposely to avoid collection efforts.
    • It is illegal to communicate with a third party more than once.
    • Check with DMV for an address change.
117
Q

Collections- Claims against estates

A

A bill owed by a deceased patient requires the filing of a claim against the patient’s estate.

 - A creditor's claim form should be filed with the patients attorney or estate executor, or the county probate clerk. 
 - The claim should show an itemization of the bill, the total amount due, and the provider's signature.
118
Q

Collections- Bankruptcy

A

Filed under federal law when a business or individual has debts that exceed assets.

119
Q

Billing Minor’s

A

Determine the person financially responsible for the minor’s care at the first visit. Unless the minor is emancipated in some fashion or can receive care without parental consent (e.g., birth control, substance abuse, etc.), a legal guardian should be billed.

120
Q

Garnishment

A
  • Attaching personal assets, especially wages, to pay debts.
  • The Consumer Credit Protection Act limits the amount of employees earnings withheld for garnishment.
121
Q

Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)

A
  • Also known as “federal wage and hour law”.

- Sets the minimum wage employers are required to pay employees.

122
Q

Title VII (7)– Civil Rights Act of 1964

A

Prohibits discrimination in hiring, firing, or promoting employees because of race, color, religion, notional origin, or gender.

123
Q

Age Discrimination in Employment Act

A

Prohibits the use of unfair employment practices regarding people over 40 years of age.

124
Q

Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA)

A

Prohibits unfair employment practices regarding occupationally qualified persons with disabilities. The law requires that employers make reasonable accommodations for such disabilities.

125
Q

Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA)

A

Protects pension fund and regulates pension fund operations.

126
Q

Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA)

A

Protects pension fund and regulates pension fund operations.

127
Q

Immigration Reform Act of 1985

A

Employees must certify that newly hired employees are either United States Citizens or authorized to work in the U.S.

128
Q

State Minimum Wage Law

A

Some states set their own minimum wage rate; state rates must be higher than the federal rate.

129
Q

Worker’s Compensation Law

A

Most states have laws requiring employers to provide employees with worker’s compensation insurance, which protects employees from losses associated with job-related illness, injuries, or death. Employers must purchase such insurance or contribute to a state fund.

130
Q

State Disability Benefit Laws

A

California, Hawaii, New Jersey, New York, Rhode Island, and Puerto Rico have laws intended to provide disability insurance to employees who are absent from work because of illness or injuries that are not job-related.

131
Q

Immigration and Nationality Act

A
  • Employers are required to verify that all employees, U.S. citizens or not are authorized to work.
  • Employment Eligibility Verification for I-9 is completed for each new hire and filed with the Immigration and Naturalization Service (INS) within 3 business days.
132
Q

Gross earnings- Absence

A

Although some states may have specific requirements, FLSA don’t require employers to pay employees for hours not worked because of illness.

133
Q

Gross earnings- Absence

A

Although some states may have specific requirements, FLSA does not require employers to pay employees for hours not worked because of illness.

134
Q

Gross Earnings- Tardiness

A

Unless required by state law, FLSA don’t require employers to pay employees for periods of tardiness.

135
Q

Gross earnings- Rest periods/coffee breaks

A

Unless required by state law, FLSA don’t require employees be given rest periods; however, if the time spent on a rest period is 20 minutes or less, the time must be counted as hours worked.

136
Q

Gross- Rest periods/coffee breaks

A

Unless required by state law, FLSA don’t require employees be given rest periods; however, if the time spent on a rest period is 20 minutes or less, the time must be counted as hours worked.

137
Q

Gross earnings- Meal periods

A

Unless determined otherwise by state law, only meal periods during which the employee is relieved from duty may be considered nonworking time and don’t require compensation.

138
Q

Employee

A

A person who performs specified job duties in the U.S.

139
Q

Employee

A

Compensation for administrative, managerial, or professional work.

140
Q

Salary

A

Compensation for administrative, managerial, or professional work.

 - Exempt
 - Nonexempt
141
Q

Salary- Exempt

A

A salaried employee is exempt from FLSA rule requiring overtime at time and half. The employer is not required to pay time and a half for overtime.

142
Q

Salary- Nonexempt

A

The employer is required to pay time and a half for overtime.

143
Q

Wage

A

Compensation for skilled or unskilled labor. Generally, wage employees must be paid minimum of time and a half for overtime.

144
Q

Independent contractor

A

One who provides a service for a fee.

145
Q

Payroll Taxes- Income tax

“The Current Tax Payment Act”

A

The Current Tax Payment Act of 1943:

- Requires employers to withhold income tax on a pay-as-you-go basis.

146
Q

Federal Insurance Contribution Act (FICA)

A
  • Social Security and Medicare Tax.
  • FICA consists of 2 main parts that are reported separately.
    1. Old-age survivors, and disability insurance (OASDI)
    2. Hospital insurance (Medicare)
147
Q

Tax rates

A
  • OASDI = 6.2%
  • Medicare = 1.45%
  • FICA total is 7.65%.
148
Q

Tax rates

A

OASDI = 6.2% = 1.45%; FICA total is 7.65%.

149
Q

Unemployment compensation tax

A

Federal and state programs established by the Social Security Act of 1935 to provide economic security during periods of temporary unemployment.

150
Q

Payroll tax returns, reports and forms: - Form SS-4

A

Application for employers identification number. Federal tax identification number application. Required for employers withholding taxes from employees. States may require a separate number for state withholdings.

151
Q

Payroll tax returns, reports and forms: - Form SS-5

A

Social Security number application.

All employees are required to have a SS number.

152
Q

Payroll tax returns, reports and forms: -Form SS-5

A

Social Security number application.

All employees are required to have a SS number.

153
Q

Payroll tax returns, reports and forms: - Form W-2

A

Form W-2:

 - Wages and Tax statement. Given to employees to identify earnings and taxes witheld, as well as to prepare personal tax returns. 
 - Must be provided to employees no later than January 31 of the following year.
154
Q

Form W-2 packet of 6 sheets

A
  • Copy A: Sent to Social Security Administration.
  • Copy 1: Sent to sate tax department.
  • Copy B: Filed with employee’s federal tax returns.
  • Copy C: Kept by employee for personal record.
  • Copy 2: filed with employee’s state tax return.
  • Copy D: Kept with by the employer.
155
Q

Payroll tax returns, reports and forms: - Form W-4

A

Form W-4:

- Employee’s Withholding Allowance Certificate.

156
Q

Payroll tax returns, reports and forms: - Form 940 and Form 941

A
  • Form 940:
    • Employer’s Annual Federal Unemployment Tax Return. Must be filed by January 31, annually.
  • Form 941:
    • Should be filed by April 30, July 31, October 31, and January 31, annually.
157
Q

Pay Deductions

A
  • Income tax
  • FICA, FUTA, & SUTA
  • Garnishment
  • Tax levies
  • Union contracts
  • Insurance
  • Pensions
  • Miscellaneous
  • Net earnings
158
Q

Pay Deductions- Income tax

A

Income tax:

- The most common is the wage-bracket (tax table) method.

159
Q

Pay Deductions

A
  • Income tax
  • FICA, FUTA, & SUTA
  • Garnishment
  • Tax levies
  • Union contracts
  • Insurance
  • Pensions
  • Miscellaneous
  • Net earnings
160
Q

Pay Deductions- Income tax

A

Income tax:

- The most common is the wage-bracket (tax table) method.

161
Q

Pay Deductions- FICA, FUTA and SUTA

A
  • FICA: Federal Contribution Act
  • FUTA: Federal Unemployment Tax Act
  • SUTA: State Unemployment Tax
    • The percentage rate is multiplied by the taxable gross earnings.
162
Q

Pay Deductions- Insurance

A

Insurance:

- Such as life, medical or dental insurance.

163
Q

Pay Deductions- Union contracts

A

Union contacts:

- Such as union initiation fees, dues and assessments.

164
Q

Pay Deductions- Insurance

A

Insurance:

- Such as life, medical or dental insurance.

165
Q

Pay Deductions- Net earnings (pay)

A

Is computed by subtracting all deductions from gross earnings.

166
Q

Pay Deductions- Miscellaneous

A

Miscellaneous:

- Includes such deduction as savings plan, charitable contributions, or stock or bond purchase plans.

167
Q

Payroll System- Manual

A

Manual:
- Payroll is computed and processed by hand, using a calculator, typewriter, and forms. Pegboard payroll system, a payroll register is placed on a board containing alignment pegs.

168
Q

Payroll System- Computerized

A

Computerized:
- Payroll data is entered into the computer, where the necessary calculations, records and reports are prepared automatically.

169
Q

Payroll System- Manual

A

Manual:
- Payroll is computed and processed by hand, using a calculator, typewriter, and forms. Pegboard payroll system, a payroll register is placed on a board containing alignment pegs.

170
Q

Payroll System- Computerized

A

Computerized:
- Payroll data is entered into the computer, where the necessary calculations, records and reports are prepared automatically.

171
Q

Payroll System- Payroll processing service bureau

A

Payroll processing service bureau:
- Payroll data is sent to the service bureau. The service bureau processes the data by computer and delivers the completed payroll records and checks.

172
Q

Payroll register

A
  • Provides a summary of hours worked, earnings, deductions, and net pay for all employees each payroll period.
173
Q

Employee earnings record

A
  • Provides detailed annual payroll data on each employee.
174
Q

Payroll accounting

A

Payroll records are sent to the accountant or bookkeeper to be entered in the journal and posted to the ledgers, so that timely and accurate financial statements and tax returns can be prepared.