Final Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q
A

Transverse

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2
Q
A

Frontal/Coronal

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3
Q
A

Sagittal

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4
Q

Two examples of superior/inferior

A

Head is superior to the chest

Knee is inferior to the shoulder

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5
Q

Two examples of Ventral/Dorsal

A

Vertebral column is dorsal to the rib cage

Quadriceps is ventral to the hamstrings

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6
Q

Two examples of superficial/deep

A

Epidermis is superficial to dermis

Heart is deep to pectoral muscles

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7
Q

Two examples of medial/lateral

A

Nose is medial to eyes

Heart is medical to lungs

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8
Q

Two examples of prosimians/distal

A

Elbow is proximal to wrist

Knee is distal to thigh

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9
Q

1

A

Olfactory bulb

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10
Q

2

A

Olfactory tract

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11
Q

3

A

Mineral cell

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12
Q

4

A

Glomerulus

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13
Q

5

A

Olfactory nerves

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14
Q

6

A

Olfactory sensory neurons

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15
Q

7

A

Olfactory sensory cilia

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16
Q

1

A

Olfactory bulb

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17
Q

2

A

Olfactory nerves

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18
Q

3

A

Olfactory tract

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19
Q

1

A

Sclera

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20
Q

2

A

Choroid

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21
Q

3

A

Retina

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22
Q

4

A

Optic Nerve

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23
Q

5

A

Macula/fovea

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24
Q

6

A

Lens

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25
Q

Unlabeled but pointed to by white line

A

Pupil

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26
Q

1

A

Auricle

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27
Q

2

A

Ossicles

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28
Q

3

A

Semi-circular canals

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29
Q

4

A

Cochlea

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30
Q

5

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve

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31
Q

6

A

Tympanic membrane

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32
Q

7

A

Auditory Tube

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33
Q

8

A

Auditory Canal

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34
Q

1

A

Humerus

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35
Q

2

A

Olecranon fossa

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36
Q

3

A

Olecranon

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37
Q

4

A

Humeroulnar joint

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38
Q

5

A

Proximal radioulnar joint

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39
Q

7

A

Radius

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40
Q

8

A

Humeroradial joint

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41
Q

1

A

Biceps Brachii

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42
Q

2

A

Brachialis

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43
Q

3

A

Lateral collateral ligaments

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44
Q

4

A

Brachioradialis

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45
Q

5

A

Anconeus

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46
Q

6

A

Triceps brachii

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47
Q

List two movements possible at the elbow

A

1: Pronation/supination

2: Flexion Extension

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48
Q

Agonist(s), Antagonist(s), and Synergist(s) of an arm in a flexed (flexion) position

A

Agonists: Biceps brachii, Brachialis, and Brachioradialis

Antagonists: Triceps Brachii

Synergists: None

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49
Q

Agonist(s), Antagonist(s), and Synergists for an arm at an extended (extension) position

A

Agonists: Triceps brachii

Antagonists: Biceps brachii, Brachialis, Brachioradialis

Synergists: Anconeus

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50
Q

What class of lever is shown?

A

3rd class

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51
Q

What class of lever is shown?

A

2nd class

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52
Q

What class of lever is shown?

A

1st class

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53
Q

Label the levers by class

A

A: 3rd Class

B: 2nd Class

C: 1st Class

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54
Q

Label the fulcrum (F), Resistance Force (RF), and the Applied Force (AF)

A

A: F

B: AF

C: RF

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55
Q

Label the fulcrum (F), Resistance Force (RF), and the Applied Force (AF)

A

A: F

B: RF

C: AF

56
Q

Label the fulcrum (F), Resistance Force (RF), and the Applied Force (AF)

A

A: RF

B: F

C: AF

57
Q

Label the fulcrum (F), Resistance Force (RF), and the Applied Force (AF)

A

A: F

B: AF

C: RF

58
Q

Label the fulcrum (F), Resistance Force (RF), and the Applied Force (AF)

A

A: AF

B: RF

C: F

59
Q

Label the fulcrum (F), Resistance Force (RF), and the Applied Force (AF)

A

A: AF

B: F

C: RF

60
Q

Describe a fibrous joint

A

Fixed joint such was a skull sutures or slightly mobile joints connected by interosseus ligaments

61
Q

Describe cartilaginous joints

A

Composed of fibrocartilage disks such as intervertebral disks or the pubic symphysis, slight movement possible

62
Q

Describe synovial joints

A

Freely movable joints; ligaments surround joint capsule lined by the synovial membrane which contains synovial fluid; articulated surfaces of bone covered in hyaline cartilage.

63
Q

What are the four classes of biomolecule?

A

Carbohydrate

Proteins

Lipids

Nucleic acids

64
Q

Describe a carbohydrate

A

Complex or simple sugars; signaling and energy storage functions

65
Q

Describe a protein

A

Chain of amino acids folded into complex 3D structures; The end product of genes; do the work of the cell

66
Q

Describe lipids

A

Fats and oils; structural and energy storage functions

67
Q

Describe Nucleic acids

A

Monomers (ATP) or polymers (DNA, RNA); function in energy storage, signaling, and information storage

68
Q

What is the function of a Phospholipid head?

A

The head interacts with the inter and extra-cellular fluid

69
Q

What is the function of the phospholipid tail?

A

Hydrophobic tails interact with the tails of other phospholipids

70
Q

Overall form and function of a phospholipid?

A

Phospholipids spontaneously form membrane belayers when they are exposed to water. Thus, the form of the phospholipid is suited to great a barrier between the inside and outside of a cell.

71
Q

Compare and contrast Diffusion and osmosis

A

Diffusion: Occurs when particles move from high concentration areas to areas of low concentration.

Osmosis: Special type of diffusion in that it is specific to WATER moving from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration.

72
Q

Define Isotonic

A

Solute concentration is the same between two compartments

73
Q

Define Hypertonic

A

Solute concentration is high outside and lower inside

74
Q

Define Hypotonic

A

Solute concentration is lower outside and higher inside

75
Q

Pathophysiology of Cystic Fibrosis

A

Mutation in the CFTR protein

Mutation causes chloride channels to be closed

Chloride cannot leave the cell meaning water cannot leave the cell

Water not leaving the cell leads to thicker mucus

Thicker mucus means cilia can not clean airways leading to infections and difficulty breathing.

76
Q

Describe Simple squamous

A

Single layer of epithelial tissue

Creates a barrier while still allowing for transportation of nutrients

Found in lining of capillaries and air sacs of lungs

77
Q

Describe Stratified squamous

A

Multiple layers of epithelium tissues.

Found on surfaces prone to abrassion

78
Q

Describe Pseudo-stratified cells

A

Single layer of epithelium with varying heights and functions

Usually contains cilia

Lines surfaces such as the trachea

79
Q

Describe simple columnar

A

Single layer of column shaped epithelial tissue

Can be ciliated

Functions in digestive tract and airways

80
Q

1

A

Keratinocyte

81
Q

2

A

Melanocyte

82
Q

3

A

Stratum corneum

83
Q

4

A

Stratum lucidum

84
Q

5

A

Stratum granulosum

85
Q

6

A

Stratum Spinosum

86
Q

7

A

Stratum Basale

87
Q

8

A

Dermis

88
Q

9

A

Epidermis

89
Q

What are the 5 physical components of bone tissue?

A
  1. Fibers
  2. Cells
  3. Calcium
  4. Phosphate
  5. Ground Substance
90
Q

What are the 4 cell types in bone tissue?

A
  1. Osteoprogenitors
  2. Osteocytes
  3. Osteoblasts
  4. Osteoclasts
91
Q

What is the function of Osteoprogentors?

A

Bone stem cells

92
Q

What is the function of osteocytes?

A

Sense stress and strain on bones and regulates bone matrix remodeling

93
Q

What is the function of osteoblasts?

A

To build new bone matrix

94
Q

What is the function of osteoclasts?

A

To breakdown bone matrix

95
Q

1

A

Z line

96
Q

2

A

M line (band)

97
Q

3

A

I band

98
Q

4

A

H band

99
Q

5

A

A band

100
Q

6

A

Sacromere

101
Q

In muscle tissue, which band(s) shorten with contraction?

A

The H band and I band will shorten with contraction.

102
Q

Steps of excitation contraction, including the cycling of ATP

A
  1. An action potential arrives at the axon terminal of a motor neuron.
  2. Voltage-gated calcium channels open and stimulate the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft
  3. Acetylcholine is received by L-gated Na+ channels on the muscle fibers, which open and allow Na+ to flow in.
  4. Sufficient depolarization of the muscle fiber leads to opening of V-gated Na+ channels in the T-tubules.
  5. Action potentials flow down the T-tubules and stimulate the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
  6. Calcium binds to troponin.
  7. Troponin moves tropomyosin, exposing myosin binding sites on the actin filaments
  8. Myosin hydrolyses ATP and binds actin
  9. Powerstroke myosin releases ADP and Pi
  10. Myosin binds new ATP so that it can release actin
  11. Steps 8-10 repeat as long as calcium and ATP are present
103
Q

Define “Motor Unit”

A

A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates

104
Q

1

A

Dendrites

Receives neurotransmitters, membrane contains L-gated ion channels

105
Q

2

A

Soma

Where the nucleus and organelles are

106
Q

3

A

Axon Hillock

Membrane contained V-gated channels; where an action potential starts

107
Q

4

A

Axon

Action potential travels down the axon

108
Q

5

A

Axon terminal

Synapses with another cell, contains vesicles of neurotransmitters

109
Q

What percentage of neuroglia make up the nervous system?

A

50%

110
Q

Neuroglia cells of the PNS

A

Schwann cells

Satellite cells

111
Q

Neuroglia of the CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes

Atrocytes

Ependymal cells

Microglia

112
Q

Function of a Schwann cell

A

Produce myelin for the PNS

113
Q

Function of satellite cells?

A

Regulate micro environment of neurons and supply nutrients

114
Q

Function of Oligodendrocytes

A

Produce Myelin for the CNS

115
Q

Function of astrocytes

A

Regulate microenvironment of neurons, supply nutrients, and creat blood brain barrier.

116
Q

Function of Ependymal cells

A

Line ventricles and central canal; produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid

117
Q

Function of Microglia

A

Immune cells of the CNS

118
Q

Fill in the blank

1

A

(Nerve) tract; white matter

119
Q

Fill in the blank

2

A

Nucleus (plural nuclei) Gray matter

120
Q

Fill in the blank

3

A

Nerve

121
Q

Fill in the blank

4

A

Ganglion (plural Ganglia)

122
Q

Compare and contrast Concentration gradient and electrochemical gradient

A

Concentration Gradient is the difference between the concentration of specific particles on the inside and outside of a cell

Electrochemical gradient is the difference in concentration between charged ions inside and outside of a cell

123
Q

The plasma membrane is permeable to what and under what cercomstances

A

The phospholipid belayer is hydrophobic and therefore readily permeable to small polar molecules such as water and large non-polar molecules. For large polar molecules and ions the precedence of channel proteins, carrier proteins, and transporters are required.

124
Q

Describe and define a resting membrane potential.

A

A membrane where its excitable cells are at homeostasis.

Charge is usually -70mV

Energy from 1 ATP is used to move 3 Na+ ions out and 2 K+ ions in

Requires energy to maintain resting membrane potential it is not in a state of equilibrium

125
Q

Compare and contrast graded potential and action potential

A

Graded potential: a change in voltage due to the movement of ions down their electrochemical gradients. They can vary in strength and dissipate over time and space.

Action potential: a change in voltage that do not vary in strength and do not dissipate with time and space

126
Q

Step 1

A

Membrane is at resting potential

127
Q

Step 2

A

Local depolarization but not enough to stimulate V-gated ion channels

128
Q

Step 3

A

At threshold V-gated Na+ channels open and the membrane rapidly depolarizes

129
Q

Step 4

A

V-gated K+ channels open and K+ channels begin to flow out of the cell

130
Q

Step 5

A

The inactivation gates of the Na+ channels close, beginning the absolute refractory period. As K+ continues to flow out of the cell the membrane rapidly depolarizes.

131
Q

Step 6

A

The inactivation gates of the Na+ reopen but the activation gates are now closed. Na+ channels are capable of reopening.

132
Q

Step 7

A

K+ channels close after hyper-polarization of the membrane

133
Q

Step 8

A

Resting membrane is re-established

134
Q

Compare and contrast the “absolute refractory period” and “Relative refractory period

A

Absolute refractory period comes before the refractory period

Absolute refractory period is steps 5-6 and inactivation gates are closed so ABSOLUTELY no possibility for action potential.

Relative refractory period is steps 6-8 and requires a stronger than normal stimuli to reach threshold as compared to being at resting membrane

135
Q

What are two purposes for the absolute refractory period?

A
  1. Allow a membrane to repolarize
  2. Prevent an action potential from moving the wrong way down an axon