Final: Scavenger Hunt/Module Questions Flashcards
1
Q
first line for depression
A
SSRIs
o sertraline
o paroxetine
o fluoxetine
o citalopram
o escitalopram
2
Q
drug for bipolar disorder that needs sodium levels checked
A
lithium
3
Q
what are three medications for bipolar disorder?
A
o lithium
o valproate
o 2nd gen antipsychotics
- aripiprazole
- lurasidone
- olanzapine
- quetiapine
- risperidone
- ziprasidone
4
Q
heroin (opioid) overdose reversal
A
o naloxone (opioid antagonist)
5
Q
CAM for insomnia
A
melatonin
6
Q
first line for short term insomnia
A
benzodiazepines
7
Q
name five indications for benzodiazepines
A
o insomnia
o anxiety
o seizures
o sedation
o muscle relaxation
8
Q
what are non-pharmacological interventions for insomnia
A
o lower temp
o lights
o noise
o reduced screen time
o strenuous activity before bed
o no large meals before bedtime
o lower nicotine use
9
Q
what is the risk of abruptly stopping insomnia medications
A
rebound insomnia
10
Q
what is rebound insomnia
A
insomnia stops -> you stop meds -> insomnia returns
11
Q
used for ED and BPH
A
Tadalafil
(phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor)
12
Q
first line for peptic ulcer
A
PPIs
o omeprazole
o esomeprazole
o pantoprazole
13
Q
insomnia medication with BB warning for dependency and abuse
A
benzodiazepine receptor agonist (BZRA)
(zolpidem, eszopiclone)
14
Q
celecoxib drug class
A
NSAID - cox 2 inhibitor
15
Q
interacts with tyramine
A
monoamine oxidase inhibitors
o phenelzine
16
Q
may cause weight gain and sexual dysfunction
A
SSRI
o sertraline
o paroxetine
o fluoxetine
o citalopram
o escitalopram
17
Q
ADHD medication that is not a controlled substance
A
atomoxetine
18
Q
may cause EPS
A
first gen antipsychotics
(chlorpromazine, haloperidol)
19
Q
can be used for acute psychosis
A
haloperidol
(1st gen antipsychotic)
20
Q
BB warning for causing GI Bleeding
A
NSAIDs
o ibuprofen
o meloxicam
o naproxen
o ketorolac
o aspirin
21
Q
“Strongest” prescription opioid
A
fentanyl
22
Q
includes NS, LR, D5W
A
crystalloids (isotonic fluid)
23
Q
opioid used for cough relief
A
codeine
24
Q
used for insomnia and allergic reactions
A
1st gen
histamine 1 receptor antagonist
o diphenhydramine
o hydroxyzine
o doxylamine
25
what is one major difference between first- and second- generation histamine receptor antagonists?
first gen makes you drowsy
o diphenhydramine
o hydroxyzine
o doxylamine
second gen is non-drowsy
o loratidine
o fexofenadine
o cetrizine
26
what three conditions do histamine receptor antagonists treat
o insomnia
o EPS
o allergies
27
used for fever, pain, and antiplatelet properties
aspirin
28
first line for migraines
sumatriptan
(serotonin 5-HT agonist)
29
reverses diazepam overdose
flumazenil
(GABA receptor antagonist)
30
first line for RA treatment
NSAIDs
o ibuprofen
o meloxicam
o naproxen
o ketorolac
o aspirin
31
can cause tinnitus and Reye's syndrome
aspirin
32
second line for depression
SNRI
o duloxetine
o venlafaxine
33
reversed with N-Acetylcysteine
acetaminophen (central acting antagonist) overdose/toxicity
34
used to introduce the body to a pathogen without making the person sick
vaccines
35
an immunostimulant
interferons
(interferon alfa-2b, interferon alfa-2a)
36
what antibiotic is used for exposure prophylaxis to man deadly pathogens
fluoroquinolones
(ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)
37
BB warning for tendonitis and tendon rupture
fluoroquinolones
(ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)
38
used to treat symptoms of anxiety (HTN and palpitations)
beta-blockers
(metoprolol, propranol)
39
treats most herpes viruses
antivirals
(acyclovir, valacyclovir)
40
ABX coverage for MRSA and VRE
linezolid
(oxazolidinones)
41
includes tazobactam
beta- lactamase inhibitor
o tazobactam
o sulbactam
o clavulanic acid
42
is a combination with amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
augmentin
43
ABX only available parenterally
carbapenems
(imipenem, meropenem)
44
coats a peptic ulcer to allow it to heal
sucralfate
45
is the most common alternative to penicillin's
macrolides
(azithromycin, erythromycin)
46
first line for nausea
ondansetron
(serotonin receptor antagonist)
47
can be used in a patient allergic to PCN but has a slightly higher risk of cross reaction
cephalosporins
o cefazolin
o ceftriaxone
o cefepime
48
used for abortion and prevention of peptic ulcers
misoprostol
49
used intranasally for allergies and can cause rebound congestion
intranasal sympathomimetics (oxymetazoline)
50
first line for a UTI
nitrofurantoin
51
first line for long term management of asthma
inhaled glucocorticoids (ICS)
o fluticasone
o budesonide
52
an expectorant
guaifenesin
53
last line, short term option, for severe asthma exacerbation
systemic glucocorticoids
o prednisone
o methylprednisone
54
OTC for cough and can be abused
dextromethorphan (antitussive)
55
used for ED
phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
o sildenafil
o tadalafil
o vardenafil
56
breaks up mucous
acetylcysteine (mucolytic)
57
used to dry up the secretions in asthma as well as for bronchodilation
anticholinergics
o ipratropium
58
asthma med that must be taken four ties daily
cromolyn (mast cell stabilizer)
59
includes salmeterol
beta agonist - long acting (LABA)
60
used for quick relief for GERD
antacids
o sodium bicarbonate
o calcium carbonate
61
often used for prevention of constipation in hospitalized patients
surfactant laxatives
o docusate sodium
62
OTC medication binds to toxins
bismuth subsalicylate
63
taken for contraception after unprotected sex
emergency contraception
o levonorgestrel
o ulipristal
64
treats menoupause symptoms
conjugated estrogen
o estrogen replacement
65
expensive option for RA that takes weeks to months to work
monoclonal antibodies (DMARDs)
o etanercept
o adalimumab
66
ed for preterm labor and acute asthma
magnesium
67
can be given as an intraarticular injection for gout or OA
steroids
68
used to prevent gout
Allopurinol
o xanthine oxidase inhibitors
probenecid
o uricosurics
69
used to treat AND prevent gout
colchicine
70
nausea medicine that may cause EPS
phenothiazines
o prochlorperazine
o promethazine
71
used to treat scurvy
vitamin C
(ascorbic acid)
72
ed to treat nausea in oncology patients
glucocorticosteroids
73
sed for infertility in both male and female
Hcg
74
BB warning for VTE/DVT/Blood cloths
oral contraceptives (OCP)
o norethindrone and ethinyl estradiol
75
or inducing abortion, cancer, and autoimmune diseases
methotrexate
76
first line for BPH
alpha one adrenergic antagonists
o tamsulosin
o doxazosin
77
sends calcium in the bones
calcitonin
78
metronidazole
antimicrobial
79
treats narcolepsy
modafinil
80
first line for IBD
5 aminosalicylates
o sulfasalazine
81
helps bleeding after childbirth
oxytocin
82
includes loratadine
Histamine 2 Receptor Antagonists (H2RA)
o famotidine
o ranitidine
o loratidine
83
treats both BPH and HTN
alpha one adrenergic antagonists
o tamsulosin
o doxazosin
84
oldest class of ABX
sulfonamides
o trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
85
used for post exposure prophylaxis of deadly pathogens such as the plague
fluoroquinolones
o ciprofloxacin
o levofloxacin
86
should be recommended to take with food to avoid GI upset
penicillin
o amoxicillin
o ampicillin
o penicillin G & V
87
must be taken within 48 hours for flu relief
oseltamivir
88
requires adequate calcium and vitamin D to be effective
Bisphosphonate
o alendronate
o zoledronic acid
Selective estrogen receptor modulators
o raloxifene
Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)
o omeprazole
o pantoprazole
89
three times stronger than calcium gluconate
calcium chloride
90
includes albumin
colloids
o albumin
o dextran 40% in D5W
o plasma protein fraction
o hetastarch 6% in NS
91
used for stable/non-acute hyperkalemia
o polystyrene sulfonate
o patiromer
92
used for both seizures and bipolar disorder
anticonvulsant
o valproate
93
alternative to ICS for long term asthma management
montelukast
o leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA)
94
includeds cefepime
cephalosporins
o cefazolin
o ceftriaxone
o cefepime
95
brand name bactrim
sulfonamides
o trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
96
treats candida
fluconazole (anti-fungal)
97
first line OTC for long term prevention of constipation
bulk forming laxatives
o psyllium
o methylcellulose
98
includes phenelzine
monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
99
hepatoxic drug used for the treatment of TB
rifampin
100
used for cancer, asthma, cholesterol, RA, covid and more
monoclonal antibodies aka DMARDs
o etanercept
o adalimumab
101
can cause a rash if given with a diagnosis of EBV
penicillin
o amoxicillin
o ampicillin
o penicillin G & V
102
what six drugs used for inflammation
NSAIDs
o meloxicam
o ibuprofen
o naproxen
o ketorolac
+ celecoxib
103
what enzyme causes inflammation
cyclooxygenase
104
what does the nurse need to monitor for/anticipate with a patient taking opioids?
respiratory depression
105
what causes something to be placed on the list of controlled substances
risk of abuse and dependency
106
what does a nurse need to know about a drug that is teratogenic
not for pregnant patients or those planning to become pregnant
107
name two conditions that opioids are used to treat besides pain
o cough
o diarrhea
108
what are the roles of ASA (aspirin)
o suppression of platelet aggregation
o anti-inflammatory
o fever
o analgesic
109
what are examples of non-pharmacological pain interventions
o massage
o distraction
o open windows
o lower sound
110
what scope do nurses have to advise patients in regard to medication questions
none,
that's for the provider to do
111
what drug classes are used to prevent migraines
beta-blockers
o metoprolol
o propanol
SNRIs
o duloxetine
o venlafaxine
Anticonvulsant
o valproate
112
what most patients avoid while taking disulfiram
alcohol of any kind
113
what syndrome can happen from taking multiple different antidepressants
serotonin syndrome
114
what are the two primary neurotransmitters that are altered by using antidepressants
o norepinephrine
o serotonin
115
what is the BB warning for amphetamine and methylphenidate
CNS stimulants
o abuse and dependency
116
what BB warning do antidepressants come with
increased risk for suicide
117
what are the side effects of TCAs
amitriptyline, imipramine
o anticholinergic effect
o ECG changes
o CNS depression
o orthostatic hypotension
118
what patient complaints would you anticipate from patient taking antidepressants
that they are not working because it takes several weeks to take effect
119
what are S/S of an infection
o increased WBC count
o chills
o fatigue
120
what is the definition of sepsis
shock due to infection
121
what is the VAERS
vaccine adverse event reporting system
122
what is a benefit of narrow-spectrum antibiotics
prevents antibiotic resistance
123
what is the role of cranberry juice
CAM for UTI PREVENTION
124
what is antibiotic stewardship
global approach to address antibiotic resistance
125
what will antibiotics not be effective against
viruses
(ex: bronchitis)
126
what are the cobination antibiotic drugs
augmentin
o amoxicillin and clavulanate
zosyn
o piperacillin and tazobactam
127
what should tetracyclines (tetracycline, doxycyline) not be taken with
food
128
drugs ending in what are macrolides
-mycin
129
what is the BBW for levofloxacin
o tendon rupture
o tendinitis
130
name two classes of antibiotics that are not preferred as first line agents
aminoglycosides
o gentamicin
o tobramycin
fluoroquinolones
o ciprofloxacin
o levofloxacin
131
what patient education is needed for the treatment for HIV
o take everyday
o do not miss a dose
132
how should patients be instructed in the treatment for lice
o wash hair
o apply product and leave for 10 minutes
o remove nits with nit comb
133
what antibiotic drug classes work by inhibiting the synthesis of proteins
tetracyclines
o tetracycline
o doxycycline
oxazolidines
o linezolid
macrolides
o azithromycin
o erythromycin
134
what is omalizumab
monoclonal antibodies;
alternative agent for trigger related asthma patients
135
what does histamine release cause
inflammation
136
what is the most effective OTC medication for allergic rhinitis
intranasal glucocorticoids
o fluticasone
137
why are systemic steroids less ideal versus intranasal
systemic steroids have more systemic effect such as:
o hypertension
o high blood sugar
o immunosuppression
o osteoporosis in post menopausal women
138
what medication for a cough cannot be taken with alchol
codeine (controlled substance class V)
139
what is the difference between oxygenation and ventilation
Ventilation
o moving air in and out of the lungs
Oxygenation
o increasing the amount of oxygen molecules in air you are breathing
140
what four drug classes are used for the relief of acute asthma
SABA
o albuterol
Anticholinergic
o ipratropium
Magnesium
Systemic Glucocorticoids
o prednisone
o methylprednisolone
141
what are two alternative medications (not ICS) for the long term prevention of asthma
methylxanthines
o theophylline
leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
o montelukast
142
what drugs treat acute hyperkalemia?
insulin & glucose
143
what drugs treat stable hyperkalemia
polystyrene sulfonate or patiromer
144
what are two indications for IV calcium
hypocalcemia and to protect the heart in the case of severe electrolyte imbalances
145
what fluid pulls volume into central circulation
hypertonic - 3% sodium chloride
146
what are the two primary drug classes for the treatment of PUD/GERD
PPIs
o omeprazole
o esomeprazole
o pantoprazole
Histamine 2 Receptor Antagonists (H2RA)
o famotidine
o ranitidine
147
what are common vitamin deficiencies in those with alcohol use disorder
o B1
o B6
o B9
148
list diseases that come from specific vitamin deficiencies
(i.e. what is deficiency of vitamin C called)?
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid):
o Scurvy
o bleeding gums, bruising, impaired wound healing
Vitamin D (ergocalciferol, cholecalciferol):
o Rickets (kids)
o Osteomalacia (adults)
o softening and weakening of bones
B1 (Thiamine):
o beriberi
B3 (niacin):
o pellagra
B12 (cyanocobalamin):
o pernicious and other megaloblastic anemias
149
what are two OTC medications for diarrhea
o loperamide
o bismuth subsalicylate
150
what is a controlled substance that treats diarrhea
opioid
o diphenoxylate
151
what is the patient teaching for antacids
dont take other meds with them at the same time
152
what are lipid soluble vitamins
A, D, E, K
153
what is the preferred route for TPN
central venous
154
what are the two most common active ingredients in oral contraceptives
estrogen and progesterone
155
name five patient education points regarding standard 28 day OCP
o should be started greater than 5 days from onset of bleeding
o is generally started on a sunday
o use alternative methods of contraceptives for the first seven days after starting OC
o if you miss a dose, take two pills on your next dose (if you miss two or more doses, use alternative methods until next cycle of meds)
o stop in case pregnancy occurs
156
what major risk factor is associated with estrogen
blood clots
157
name three patient education points regarding POP (norethindrone)
o take it at the same time every day
o its okay to use immediately after childbirth/while breastfeeding
o it is less effective than OCP (orethindrone and ethinyl estradiol)
158
what drug is give to induce ovulation and to promote follicular growth
clomiphene (ovulation stimulant)
159
what causes a shift of calcium supply from the bones to the blood
parathyroid hormone
o can cause hypercalcemia
160
which vitamins are fat soluble
A, D, E, K
161
which vitamins are water soluble
B, C
162
what vitamin deficiencies does alcohol use disorder most commonly cause
B1, B6, B9
163
what is TPN
o amino acids
o carbs
o minerals
o vitamins
o lipids
164
what are two things the nurse should know about giving TPN
o it contains everything you need to survive
o blood glucose levels can be affected
o the body gets used to it and stops using the GI system so it atrophies and stops being viable
