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NUR 334: Pharmacology > Final: Scavenger Hunt/Module Questions > Flashcards

Final: Scavenger Hunt/Module Questions Flashcards

1
Q

first line for depression

A

SSRIs

o sertraline
o paroxetine
o fluoxetine
o citalopram
o escitalopram

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2
Q

drug for bipolar disorder that needs sodium levels checked

A

lithium

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3
Q

what are three medications for bipolar disorder?

A

o lithium
o valproate
o 2nd gen antipsychotics
- aripiprazole
- lurasidone
- olanzapine
- quetiapine
- risperidone
- ziprasidone

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4
Q

heroin (opioid) overdose reversal

A

o naloxone (opioid antagonist)

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5
Q

CAM for insomnia

A

melatonin

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6
Q

first line for short term insomnia

A

benzodiazepines

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7
Q

name five indications for benzodiazepines

A

o insomnia
o anxiety
o seizures
o sedation
o muscle relaxation

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8
Q

what are non-pharmacological interventions for insomnia

A

o lower temp
o lights
o noise
o reduced screen time
o strenuous activity before bed
o no large meals before bedtime
o lower nicotine use

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9
Q

what is the risk of abruptly stopping insomnia medications

A

rebound insomnia

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10
Q

what is rebound insomnia

A

insomnia stops -> you stop meds -> insomnia returns

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11
Q

used for ED and BPH

A

Tadalafil
(phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor)

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12
Q

first line for peptic ulcer

A

PPIs

o omeprazole
o esomeprazole
o pantoprazole

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13
Q

insomnia medication with BB warning for dependency and abuse

A

benzodiazepine receptor agonist (BZRA)

(zolpidem, eszopiclone)

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14
Q

celecoxib drug class

A

NSAID - cox 2 inhibitor

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15
Q

interacts with tyramine

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitors

o phenelzine

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16
Q

may cause weight gain and sexual dysfunction

A

SSRI

o sertraline
o paroxetine
o fluoxetine
o citalopram
o escitalopram

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17
Q

ADHD medication that is not a controlled substance

A

atomoxetine

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18
Q

may cause EPS

A

first gen antipsychotics

(chlorpromazine, haloperidol)

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19
Q

can be used for acute psychosis

A

haloperidol

(1st gen antipsychotic)

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20
Q

BB warning for causing GI Bleeding

A

NSAIDs

o ibuprofen
o meloxicam
o naproxen
o ketorolac
o aspirin

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21
Q

“Strongest” prescription opioid

A

fentanyl

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22
Q

includes NS, LR, D5W

A

crystalloids (isotonic fluid)

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23
Q

opioid used for cough relief

A

codeine

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24
Q

used for insomnia and allergic reactions

A

1st gen
histamine 1 receptor antagonist

o diphenhydramine
o hydroxyzine
o doxylamine

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25
Q

what is one major difference between first- and second- generation histamine receptor antagonists?

A

first gen makes you drowsy
o diphenhydramine
o hydroxyzine
o doxylamine

second gen is non-drowsy
o loratidine
o fexofenadine
o cetrizine

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26
Q

what three conditions do histamine receptor antagonists treat

A

o insomnia
o EPS
o allergies

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27
Q

used for fever, pain, and antiplatelet properties

A

aspirin

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28
Q

first line for migraines

A

sumatriptan

(serotonin 5-HT agonist)

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29
Q

reverses diazepam overdose

A

flumazenil
(GABA receptor antagonist)

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30
Q

first line for RA treatment

A

NSAIDs

o ibuprofen
o meloxicam
o naproxen
o ketorolac
o aspirin

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31
Q

can cause tinnitus and Reye’s syndrome

A

aspirin

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32
Q

second line for depression

A

SNRI

o duloxetine
o venlafaxine

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33
Q

reversed with N-Acetylcysteine

A

acetaminophen (central acting antagonist) overdose/toxicity

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34
Q

used to introduce the body to a pathogen without making the person sick

A

vaccines

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35
Q

an immunostimulant

A

interferons

(interferon alfa-2b, interferon alfa-2a)

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36
Q

what antibiotic is used for exposure prophylaxis to man deadly pathogens

A

fluoroquinolones

(ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)

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37
Q

BB warning for tendonitis and tendon rupture

A

fluoroquinolones

(ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)

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38
Q

used to treat symptoms of anxiety (HTN and palpitations)

A

beta-blockers

(metoprolol, propranol)

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39
Q

treats most herpes viruses

A

antivirals

(acyclovir, valacyclovir)

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40
Q

ABX coverage for MRSA and VRE

A

linezolid

(oxazolidinones)

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41
Q

includes tazobactam

A

beta- lactamase inhibitor

o tazobactam
o sulbactam
o clavulanic acid

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42
Q

is a combination with amoxicillin and clavulanic acid

A

augmentin

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43
Q

ABX only available parenterally

A

carbapenems

(imipenem, meropenem)

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44
Q

coats a peptic ulcer to allow it to heal

A

sucralfate

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45
Q

is the most common alternative to penicillin’s

A

macrolides

(azithromycin, erythromycin)

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46
Q

first line for nausea

A

ondansetron

(serotonin receptor antagonist)

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47
Q

can be used in a patient allergic to PCN but has a slightly higher risk of cross reaction

A

cephalosporins

o cefazolin
o ceftriaxone
o cefepime

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48
Q

used for abortion and prevention of peptic ulcers

A

misoprostol

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49
Q

used intranasally for allergies and can cause rebound congestion

A

intranasal sympathomimetics (oxymetazoline)

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50
Q

first line for a UTI

A

nitrofurantoin

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51
Q

first line for long term management of asthma

A

inhaled glucocorticoids (ICS)
o fluticasone
o budesonide

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52
Q

an expectorant

A

guaifenesin

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53
Q

last line, short term option, for severe asthma exacerbation

A

systemic glucocorticoids
o prednisone
o methylprednisone

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54
Q

OTC for cough and can be abused

A

dextromethorphan (antitussive)

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55
Q

used for ED

A

phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor

o sildenafil
o tadalafil
o vardenafil

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56
Q

breaks up mucous

A

acetylcysteine (mucolytic)

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57
Q

used to dry up the secretions in asthma as well as for bronchodilation

A

anticholinergics
o ipratropium

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58
Q

asthma med that must be taken four ties daily

A

cromolyn (mast cell stabilizer)

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59
Q

includes salmeterol

A

beta agonist - long acting (LABA)

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60
Q

used for quick relief for GERD

A

antacids
o sodium bicarbonate
o calcium carbonate

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61
Q

often used for prevention of constipation in hospitalized patients

A

surfactant laxatives
o docusate sodium

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62
Q

OTC medication binds to toxins

A

bismuth subsalicylate

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63
Q

taken for contraception after unprotected sex

A

emergency contraception
o levonorgestrel
o ulipristal

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64
Q

treats menoupause symptoms

A

conjugated estrogen
o estrogen replacement

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65
Q

expensive option for RA that takes weeks to months to work

A

monoclonal antibodies (DMARDs)
o etanercept
o adalimumab

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66
Q

ed for preterm labor and acute asthma

A

magnesium

67
Q

can be given as an intraarticular injection for gout or OA

A

steroids

68
Q

used to prevent gout

A

Allopurinol
o xanthine oxidase inhibitors

probenecid
o uricosurics

69
Q

used to treat AND prevent gout

A

colchicine

70
Q

nausea medicine that may cause EPS

A

phenothiazines
o prochlorperazine
o promethazine

71
Q

used to treat scurvy

A

vitamin C
(ascorbic acid)

72
Q

ed to treat nausea in oncology patients

A

glucocorticosteroids

73
Q

sed for infertility in both male and female

A

Hcg

74
Q

BB warning for VTE/DVT/Blood cloths

A

oral contraceptives (OCP)
o norethindrone and ethinyl estradiol

75
Q

or inducing abortion, cancer, and autoimmune diseases

A

methotrexate

76
Q

first line for BPH

A

alpha one adrenergic antagonists
o tamsulosin
o doxazosin

77
Q

sends calcium in the bones

A

calcitonin

78
Q

metronidazole

A

antimicrobial

79
Q

treats narcolepsy

A

modafinil

80
Q

first line for IBD

A

5 aminosalicylates
o sulfasalazine

81
Q

helps bleeding after childbirth

A

oxytocin

82
Q

includes loratadine

A

Histamine 2 Receptor Antagonists (H2RA)
o famotidine
o ranitidine
o loratidine

83
Q

treats both BPH and HTN

A

alpha one adrenergic antagonists
o tamsulosin
o doxazosin

84
Q

oldest class of ABX

A

sulfonamides
o trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

85
Q

used for post exposure prophylaxis of deadly pathogens such as the plague

A

fluoroquinolones
o ciprofloxacin
o levofloxacin

86
Q

should be recommended to take with food to avoid GI upset

A

penicillin
o amoxicillin
o ampicillin
o penicillin G & V

87
Q

must be taken within 48 hours for flu relief

A

oseltamivir

88
Q

requires adequate calcium and vitamin D to be effective

A

Bisphosphonate
o alendronate
o zoledronic acid

Selective estrogen receptor modulators
o raloxifene

Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)
o omeprazole
o pantoprazole

89
Q

three times stronger than calcium gluconate

A

calcium chloride

90
Q

includes albumin

A

colloids
o albumin
o dextran 40% in D5W
o plasma protein fraction
o hetastarch 6% in NS

91
Q

used for stable/non-acute hyperkalemia

A

o polystyrene sulfonate
o patiromer

92
Q

used for both seizures and bipolar disorder

A

anticonvulsant
o valproate

93
Q

alternative to ICS for long term asthma management

A

montelukast
o leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA)

94
Q

includeds cefepime

A

cephalosporins
o cefazolin
o ceftriaxone
o cefepime

95
Q

brand name bactrim

A

sulfonamides
o trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

96
Q

treats candida

A

fluconazole (anti-fungal)

97
Q

first line OTC for long term prevention of constipation

A

bulk forming laxatives
o psyllium
o methylcellulose

98
Q

includes phenelzine

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

99
Q

hepatoxic drug used for the treatment of TB

A

rifampin

100
Q

used for cancer, asthma, cholesterol, RA, covid and more

A

monoclonal antibodies aka DMARDs
o etanercept
o adalimumab

101
Q

can cause a rash if given with a diagnosis of EBV

A

penicillin
o amoxicillin
o ampicillin
o penicillin G & V

102
Q

what six drugs used for inflammation

A

NSAIDs
o meloxicam
o ibuprofen
o naproxen
o ketorolac

+ celecoxib

103
Q

what enzyme causes inflammation

A

cyclooxygenase

104
Q

what does the nurse need to monitor for/anticipate with a patient taking opioids?

A

respiratory depression

105
Q

what causes something to be placed on the list of controlled substances

A

risk of abuse and dependency

106
Q

what does a nurse need to know about a drug that is teratogenic

A

not for pregnant patients or those planning to become pregnant

107
Q

name two conditions that opioids are used to treat besides pain

A

o cough
o diarrhea

108
Q

what are the roles of ASA (aspirin)

A

o suppression of platelet aggregation
o anti-inflammatory
o fever
o analgesic

109
Q

what are examples of non-pharmacological pain interventions

A

o massage
o distraction
o open windows
o lower sound

110
Q

what scope do nurses have to advise patients in regard to medication questions

A

none,

that’s for the provider to do

111
Q

what drug classes are used to prevent migraines

A

beta-blockers
o metoprolol
o propanol

SNRIs
o duloxetine
o venlafaxine

Anticonvulsant
o valproate

112
Q

what most patients avoid while taking disulfiram

A

alcohol of any kind

113
Q

what syndrome can happen from taking multiple different antidepressants

A

serotonin syndrome

114
Q

what are the two primary neurotransmitters that are altered by using antidepressants

A

o norepinephrine
o serotonin

115
Q

what is the BB warning for amphetamine and methylphenidate

A

CNS stimulants

o abuse and dependency

116
Q

what BB warning do antidepressants come with

A

increased risk for suicide

117
Q

what are the side effects of TCAs

A

amitriptyline, imipramine

o anticholinergic effect
o ECG changes
o CNS depression
o orthostatic hypotension

118
Q

what patient complaints would you anticipate from patient taking antidepressants

A

that they are not working because it takes several weeks to take effect

119
Q

what are S/S of an infection

A

o increased WBC count
o chills
o fatigue

120
Q

what is the definition of sepsis

A

shock due to infection

121
Q

what is the VAERS

A

vaccine adverse event reporting system

122
Q

what is a benefit of narrow-spectrum antibiotics

A

prevents antibiotic resistance

123
Q

what is the role of cranberry juice

A

CAM for UTI PREVENTION

124
Q

what is antibiotic stewardship

A

global approach to address antibiotic resistance

125
Q

what will antibiotics not be effective against

A

viruses
(ex: bronchitis)

126
Q

what are the cobination antibiotic drugs

A

augmentin
o amoxicillin and clavulanate

zosyn
o piperacillin and tazobactam

127
Q

what should tetracyclines (tetracycline, doxycyline) not be taken with

A

food

128
Q

drugs ending in what are macrolides

A

-mycin

129
Q

what is the BBW for levofloxacin

A

o tendon rupture
o tendinitis

130
Q

name two classes of antibiotics that are not preferred as first line agents

A

aminoglycosides
o gentamicin
o tobramycin

fluoroquinolones
o ciprofloxacin
o levofloxacin

131
Q

what patient education is needed for the treatment for HIV

A

o take everyday
o do not miss a dose

132
Q

how should patients be instructed in the treatment for lice

A

o wash hair
o apply product and leave for 10 minutes
o remove nits with nit comb

133
Q

what antibiotic drug classes work by inhibiting the synthesis of proteins

A

tetracyclines
o tetracycline
o doxycycline

oxazolidines
o linezolid

macrolides
o azithromycin
o erythromycin

134
Q

what is omalizumab

A

monoclonal antibodies;
alternative agent for trigger related asthma patients

135
Q

what does histamine release cause

A

inflammation

136
Q

what is the most effective OTC medication for allergic rhinitis

A

intranasal glucocorticoids
o fluticasone

137
Q

why are systemic steroids less ideal versus intranasal

A

systemic steroids have more systemic effect such as:
o hypertension
o high blood sugar
o immunosuppression
o osteoporosis in post menopausal women

138
Q

what medication for a cough cannot be taken with alchol

A

codeine (controlled substance class V)

139
Q

what is the difference between oxygenation and ventilation

A

Ventilation
o moving air in and out of the lungs

Oxygenation
o increasing the amount of oxygen molecules in air you are breathing

140
Q

what four drug classes are used for the relief of acute asthma

A

SABA
o albuterol

Anticholinergic
o ipratropium

Magnesium

Systemic Glucocorticoids
o prednisone
o methylprednisolone

141
Q

what are two alternative medications (not ICS) for the long term prevention of asthma

A

methylxanthines
o theophylline

leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
o montelukast

142
Q

what drugs treat acute hyperkalemia?

A

insulin & glucose

143
Q

what drugs treat stable hyperkalemia

A

polystyrene sulfonate or patiromer

144
Q

what are two indications for IV calcium

A

hypocalcemia and to protect the heart in the case of severe electrolyte imbalances

145
Q

what fluid pulls volume into central circulation

A

hypertonic - 3% sodium chloride

146
Q

what are the two primary drug classes for the treatment of PUD/GERD

A

PPIs
o omeprazole
o esomeprazole
o pantoprazole

Histamine 2 Receptor Antagonists (H2RA)
o famotidine
o ranitidine

147
Q

what are common vitamin deficiencies in those with alcohol use disorder

A

o B1
o B6
o B9

148
Q

list diseases that come from specific vitamin deficiencies
(i.e. what is deficiency of vitamin C called)?

A

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid):
o Scurvy
o bleeding gums, bruising, impaired wound healing

Vitamin D (ergocalciferol, cholecalciferol):
o Rickets (kids)
o Osteomalacia (adults)
o softening and weakening of bones

B1 (Thiamine):
o beriberi

B3 (niacin):
o pellagra

B12 (cyanocobalamin):
o pernicious and other megaloblastic anemias

149
Q

what are two OTC medications for diarrhea

A

o loperamide
o bismuth subsalicylate

150
Q

what is a controlled substance that treats diarrhea

A

opioid
o diphenoxylate

151
Q

what is the patient teaching for antacids

A

dont take other meds with them at the same time

152
Q

what are lipid soluble vitamins

A

A, D, E, K

153
Q

what is the preferred route for TPN

A

central venous

154
Q

what are the two most common active ingredients in oral contraceptives

A

estrogen and progesterone

155
Q

name five patient education points regarding standard 28 day OCP

A

o should be started greater than 5 days from onset of bleeding
o is generally started on a sunday
o use alternative methods of contraceptives for the first seven days after starting OC
o if you miss a dose, take two pills on your next dose (if you miss two or more doses, use alternative methods until next cycle of meds)
o stop in case pregnancy occurs

156
Q

what major risk factor is associated with estrogen

A

blood clots

157
Q

name three patient education points regarding POP (norethindrone)

A

o take it at the same time every day
o its okay to use immediately after childbirth/while breastfeeding
o it is less effective than OCP (orethindrone and ethinyl estradiol)

158
Q

what drug is give to induce ovulation and to promote follicular growth

A

clomiphene (ovulation stimulant)

159
Q

what causes a shift of calcium supply from the bones to the blood

A

parathyroid hormone
o can cause hypercalcemia

160
Q

which vitamins are fat soluble

A

A, D, E, K

161
Q

which vitamins are water soluble

A

B, C

162
Q

what vitamin deficiencies does alcohol use disorder most commonly cause

A

B1, B6, B9

163
Q

what is TPN

A

o amino acids
o carbs
o minerals
o vitamins
o lipids

164
Q

what are two things the nurse should know about giving TPN

A

o it contains everything you need to survive
o blood glucose levels can be affected
o the body gets used to it and stops using the GI system so it atrophies and stops being viable

NUR 334: Pharmacology (13 decks)

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