Exam 4 quizlet (bre) Flashcards
what is another role/use of ethinyl estradiol combination in addition to contraception?
acne
off label:
o dysmenorrhea
o menstrual suppression
o PCOS symptoms
what is something that you educate your patient on that estrogen progesterone is NOT going to help with
will not prevent/protect against STDs
what drug is used to help treat bleeding post partum?
oxytocin
what are two assessments we must do on any patient that is being treated with magnesium sulfate
o deep tendon reflexes
o respiratory depression
how would you assess for respiratory depression
o chest depth
o rise and fall
o respiratory rate
what drug may be given to males for infertility
hCG
name three drugs that are teratogenic that is used to induce abortion
o mifepristone
o methotrexate
o misoprostol
up to how long are the OTC emergency contraceptives effective
within 5 days
what subset of patients do we need to educate that emergency contraceptives are significantly less effective
patients who are obese
what is disadvantage of taking POP over OCP
less effective than OCP
what is an advantage of taking POP over OCP
o decreased risk of clots
o can be taken immediately after delivery
what would you suggest to a patient who missed one day of their estrogen progesterone contraceptive
take it as soon as you remember
what would you recommend to a patient who missed two days of their estrogen progesterone contraceptive
use an alternative method of contraceptive
what are the two ingredients in an estrogen progesterone OCP
o norethindrone
o ethinyl/estradiol
which option of oral contraceptive is more effective
combination
o estrogen/progesterone OCP
what does the body release in response to a low level of calcium in the body
parathyroid hormone
what does parthyroid hormone do to the calcium levels in the bone
decrease it
what might be recommended to a patient if they have hypocalcemia other than calcium
Vitamin D
what will calcitonin do to the serum calcium levels
decrease it
what drug is used for both ED and BPH
Tadalafil
name two drugs used for BPH and HTN
o Tamsulosin
o Doxazosin
what does BPH stand for
benign prostatic hypertrophy (hyperplasia)
what drug is used off label for premature ejaculation?
paroxetine (paxil)
what education would you give patients that newly prescribed sildenafil
do not combine with nitrates (nitroglycerin)
S/E:
o headaches
o hearing and vision issues
o hypotension
o priapism
what is priapism
erection lasting more than 4 hours
what drug has a MOA of stimulating follicular growth
clomiphene
what is a patient education on how to properly take clomiphene
o start taking on day 5 of cycle
o have intercourse at least every other day for 5-10 days after final dose
What is the black box warning for testosterone
can cause virilization (male characteristics) in women and children
in addition to oral contraceptives, what are two other significant factors of developing clots
o smoking
o immobility
what is the MOA of methotrexate
o blocks folic acid thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis
what is another name for folic acid
Vitamin B9
what is the onset of action of antacids
5 - 15 minutes
what drug works by coating the ulcer
sucralfate
what is the pathophysiology of GERD
lining of esophagus exposed to the acidity of stomach contents due to a weakening of the lower esophageal sphincter
how does PPI help a person with GERD or PUD
by inhibiting the enzyme that generates gastric acid thereby lowering the acidity of the stomach
what drug did we learn about in this module should not be taken with any other medication
antacids
o wait 1 hour before or after
what are three examples of antacids
o magnesium hydroxide
o aluminum hydroxide
o calcium carbonate (tums)
o sodium bicarbonate (alka-seltzer)
what are potential side effects from taking antacids
o diarrhea
o constipation
what is the most potent option to treat PUD
PPIs
Name two examples of PPIs
o pantoprazole (protonix)
o omeprazole (prilosec)
give 2 examples of histamine 1 receptor antagonist
o diphenhydramine
o doxylamine
give an example of histamine 2 receptor antagonist
o famotidine
o ranitidine
for up to how long should PPIs be taken
4 - 8 weeks
what happens if a patient is taking omeprazole for the last 6 years
o female post menopausal will need to take vitamin D and calcium supplements due to increased risk of fractures
o they may become too dependent/used to it that cessation can cause rebound issues
What two frequency options do we have for H2RAs
daily or PRN
what drug can be used for both treatment and prevention of gout
colchicine
what is a known adverse effect of using colchicine
hepatotoxicity
what are the 3 nonpharmacological treatments for constipation
o increase fiber
o increase fluids
o increase mobility/ambulation/exercise
what is the first line universal treatment for contstipation
bulk forming laxatives
give an example of bulk forming laxative
o psyllium (metamucil)
o methylcellulose (citrucel)
what is another name for pyridoxine
o Vitamin B6
what is a known indication for vitamin B6
nausea
what would i educate my patient to expect from taking a laxative
o diarrhea
o frequent bowel movements
name lipid soluble vitamins
A, D, E, K
name the water soluble vitamins
B, C
what two vitamins are patients known to be deficient in if they suffer from AUD
B1, B6, B9
o thiamine
o pyridoxine
o folic acid
what is the mechanism that moves contents though the GI system
peristalsis
what is an OTC medication for the treatment of diarrhea
o loperamide (imodium)
o bismuth subsalicylate (pepto-bismo)
what is the MOA of bismuth subsalicylate
o direct action against viral and bacterial GI pathogens
which specific patients would I be especially concerned if they are having excessive vomiting or diarrhea
o elderly
o pediatric children
o pregnant women
what are three treatment options for inflammatory bowel disease
5-Aminosalicylates
o steroids
o immunosuppressants
o monoclonal antibodies
what are the major disadvantages of using monoclonal antibodies
o injection only
o extremely expensive
o takes several months for effects
name an example of a monoclonal antibody
o etanercept
o adalimumab
what are the 3 prescription treatment options for RA other than steroids
o methotrexate
o 5-Aminosalicylates
o hydroxychloroquine
what is the first line agent for the treatment of nausea
ondanestron
what is an adverse effect of taking promethazine (phenergan) or prochlorperazine (compazine) for nausea
EPS
what is the treatment for EPS
o benedryl
o benztropine
what drug class is benzotropine
anticholinergic
how would you treat a patient for nausea that is chemotherapy related different from everyone else
give prior to treatment/premedicate
what is the purpose of vitamin E
antioxidant
what do we use vitamin K for
help clotting
what is a drug in the class androgens
testosterone
explain the different between vitamins that are lipid soluble vs water soluble
o lipid soluble - can be stored in the body
o water soluble - is excreted
how would we treat the body with mild hypocalcemia
o calcium
o vitamin D if needed
what happens from a deficiency in vitamin C
scurvy
what happens from a deficiency in vitamin B3
pellagra
what is a known adverse effect from long term PPI use
risk for fractures
what is the drug name for Plan B
levonorgestrel
what class of drugs are known to reduce the efficacy of OCP
antiseizure drugs (also teratogenic)
what would be sources of dietary calcium
o fortified grains and juices
o dairy
o vitamin D
what is hydroxychloroquine used for besides RA
malaria
name another drug for malaria
chloroquine
what does it mean when a drug is taken cyclically
o when you take it for a period of time
o come off it for a period of time
o go back on it for a period of time
in cycles: ex - OCP
what would be a patient education point for alendronate
take with first meal of day with full glass of water and remain upright for 30 mins following administration
what is the MOA of sulfasalazine
reduces inflammation
what other drugs are anti-inflammatory
o NSAIDs
o Steroids
what are the top 3 causes of PUD
o H. Pylori bacteria
o overuse of NSAIDs
o Stress
what is used for acute treatment of gout
o colchicine
o steroids
o NSAIDs
what is the MOA of NSAIDs
o COX I Inhibitor
o COX II Inhibitor
what is the most common type of arthritis
osteoarthritis
what NSAID do we NOT use for the treatment of RA
aspirin
what is another drug class that aspirin fit into besides NSAIDs
salicylate
what drug class is allopurinol
xanthine oxidase inhibitor
what drug class is probenecid
uricosurics
what is a patient teaching point for a patient prescribed allopurinol or probenecid
may exacerbate gout
initially peak effects can take 1-3 weeks
what vitamin is teratogenic
vitamin A
a deficiency in what vitamin causes rickets
vitamin D
what is a deficiency in thiamine called
beriberi
what is a deficiency in niacin called
pellagra
what is the medication name for cyanocobalamin
vitamin B12
what happens if I do not have enough folic acid
iron deficiency anemia
what is a drug that reduces the absorption of fat
orlistat
what drug is used for weight loss and DM
liraglutide
what weight loss drug is a controlled substance
phentermine
what route is the preferred route for TPN
central-line
what is the drug class for ondanestron
serotonin receptor antagonist
name an anticholinergic agent used for nausea
scopolamine
what two OTC recommendations do we have for nausea and pregnancy
o pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
o doxylamine (unisom)
what nausea medication must be tapered when stopped
dexamethosone
what drug class is sulfasalazine
5-Aminosalicylates
what are two indications for sulfasalazine
o ulcerative colitis
o RA
what are two BBW for monoclonal antibodies
o malignancy
o increase chance of serious infections
what is a DMARD
disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs
a group of medications commonly used in patients with RA
what drug is used for the treatment of paget’s disease
zoledronate
what must you assess prior to prescribing zoledronate
o pregnancy test
o contraceptive
what is the drug class for raloxifene
selective estrogen receptor modulators
what is the MOA of psyllium
action of fiber
fiber bulks up the stool to help it move along the GI tract
what is docusate sodium used for
treatment and prevention of constipation
what are 3 risk factors for developing constipation
o immobility
o lack of fiber
o dehydration
o opioid use
what controlled substance do we have for the treatment of diarrhea
opioid - diphenoxylate
explain the pathophysiology of what dicyclomine is used for IBS
o decrease activity of digestion in rest and digest (parasympathetic)
o an anticholinergic is an “anti-rest and digest”
what IBS-D drug is specifically only for women
alosetron
what is a controversial use for omeprazole
prevention of ulcers in hospitalized patients
what drug learned in this module is taken 4 times a day
sucralfate
what is the treatment for H. Pylori related PUD
antibiotics
a patient is taking 6 different medication and has become pregnant.
she asks if she should stop taking her medications, what is your recommendation
talk to your doctor
what is the BBW for pitocin (oxytocin)
not labeled for use in elective induction of labor
what is the off label use for pitocin (oxytocin)
induction of labor
what is the indication for conjugated estrogen
symptoms of moderate to severe menopause only
we DO NOT treat mild symptoms of menopause with estrogen
what drug treats pulmonary artery HTN
phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
o sildenafil
o tadalafil
o vardenafil
what drug has a clinical trial for efficacy and treatment of FSAD - female version of ED
sildenafil
Indications of anticholinergics
o motion sickness
o nausea
Off label use for nausea in pregnancy
Doxylamine (unisom)
Nausea relief for nausea in pregnancy
Pyridoxine B6
Forms of vitamin D
o ergocalciferol
o cholecalciferol
BBW vitamin K
DEATH
Parenteral administration can cause adverse reactions
