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Oral Pathology > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

The initial infection and signs and symptoms of deep fungal infections, including histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis and blastomycosis are usually related to disease in which of the following locations?

A. Lung

B. kidney

C. lymph nodes

D. nasal cavity

A

A. Lung

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning a positive reaction to the Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) skin test.

A) The patient has been infected previously with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

B) The patient is contagious

C) The patient is in need of hospitalization.

D) The patient has active tuberculosis.

A

A) The patient has been infected previously with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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3
Q

The most common type of candidiasis affecting the oral mucosa is the _______ type.

A) Pseudomembranous

B) Erythmatous

C) Chronic hyperplastic

D) Chronic atrophic

A

D) Chronic atrophic

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4
Q

Healing of an injury in which there is little loss of tissue such as in a surgical incision is referred to as healing by:

A. tertiary intention

B keloid formation

C. Secondary intention

D. Primary intention

A

D. primary intention

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5
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a systemic sign of inflammation?

A. Redness

B. Pain

C. Loss of normal tissue function

D. Fever

A

D. Fever

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6
Q

The first microscopic event in the inflammatory response is:

A. decreased blood flow.

B. constriction of the microvasculature.

C. phagocytosis.

D. dilation of microvasculature.

A

C. phagocytosis.

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7
Q

Graves disease;

A. is contagious

B. is an Autoimmune disease

C. Causes hyperactivity

D. 2 and 3 only

A

D. 2 and 3 only

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8
Q

Hypothyriodism in infants and children is called Cretinism and may exhibit which of the following characteristics?

A. Delayed eruption of teeth and thickened lips

B. Loss of hair and microdontia

C. Marcoglossia and anodontia

D. None of the above

A

A. Delayed eruption of teeth and thickened lips

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9
Q

Primary Hyperparathyroidism is associated with;

A. Females over 60 more than men

B. hypercalemia and kidney stones

C. Parathyroid Adenoma

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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10
Q

Which of the following oral manifestations are not associated with hyperparathyroidism;

A. Multilocular radiolucency

B. Osteoma

C. Giant Cell Granuloma

D. Ground glass appearance of trabeculae

A

B. Osteoma

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11
Q

Addison disease, pernicious anemia and graves disease are all associated with which of the following?

A. Leukemia

B. Type 1 Diabetes

C. Hyperpituitarism

D. Immunodeficiency

A

B. Type 1 Diabetes

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12
Q

The Schilling test detects an inability to absorb;

A. an injected dose of vitamin B-6

B. An oral dose of vitamin C

C. An injected dose of vitamin B-12

D. An oral dose of vitamin B-12

A

D. An oral dose of vitamin B-12

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13
Q

Hematocrit describes the;

A. The volume of packed red blood cells in a sample of whole blood

B. The total number of red blood cells per mm3 or whole blood

C. The amount of Hemoglobin/ 100ml of whole blood

D. none of the above

A

A. The volume of packed red blood cells in a sample of whole blood

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14
Q

The normal range of WBC count is;

A. 2,000-10,000 cells/microliter

B. 10,000 to 20,000 cells/microliter

C. 4,500- 10,000 cells/ microliter

D. 4,500-10,000 cells/deciliter

A

C. 4,500- 10,000 cells/ microliter

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15
Q

Surgical and dental procedures are contraindicated in;

A. Leukemia

B. Agranulocytosis

C. Cyclic Neutropenia

D. pernicious anemia

A

B. Agranulocytosis

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16
Q

A nonspecific presentation of cervical lymphadenopathy, atypical periodontal disease and petechiae may be symptoms of;

A. Thrombocytopenia

B. Pernicious anemia

C. Iron deficiency anemia

D. Chronic Leukemia

A

D. Chronic Leukemia

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17
Q

Which of the following is associated with the rare condition, Acromegaly;

A. Hypersecretion of growth hormone

B. Macroglossia

C. occurs after closure of long bones in adult life

D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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18
Q

Diabetes is considered to be;

A. Chronic and incurable

B. Acute and reversible

C. Associated with Adenomas

D. Of gastrointestinal origin

A

A. Chronic and incurable

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19
Q

Type 1 Diabetes may cause;

A. Blindness

B. End stage kidney failure

C. Paresthesia and amutation of fingers and toes

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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20
Q

Which one of the following is a feature of Type 2 Diabetes;

A) Insulin dependence

B) Sudden onset in 35 to 40 year old patients

C) Insulin resistance

D) Cannot be controlled by diet and exercise

A

C) Insulin resistance

(Type 2 Diabetes is also called non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.)

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21
Q

Normal red blood cell production is controlled by:

A) blood oxygen levels

B) growth hormone

C) Erythropoietin

D) Somatotropin

A

C) Erythropoietin

(“Normal red blood cell production is carefully regulated and involves both the precursor cells in the bone marrow and the hormone erythropoietic, which is produced by the kidneys”)

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22
Q

Restrocuspid papillae are located:

A) palate

B) floor of the mouth

C) gingiva lingual to the mandibular canines

D) canine eminence

A

C) gingiva lingual to the mandibular canines

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23
Q

The first response of the body to injury is:

A) anaphylaxis

B) Erythemia

C) Fever

D) Inflammation

A

D) Inflammation

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24
Q

Healing of an injury in which there is little loss of tissue such as in surgical incision is referred to as healing by:

A) tertiary intention

B) keloid formation

C) secondary intention

D) primary intention

A

D) primary intention

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25
Q

Which one of the following is a systemic sign of inflammation?

A) redness

B) pain

C) loss of normal tissue function

D) fever

A

D) fever

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26
Q

The first microscopic event in the inflammatory response is:

A) decrease blood flow

B) constriction of the microcirculation

C) phagocytosis

D) dialation of microvasculature

A

C) phagocytosisf

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27
Q

Verruca vulgaris closely resembles a papillary benign tumor of squamous epithelium called:

A) Heck lesion.

B) fibroma.

C) lipoma.

D) papilloma.

A

D) papilloma.

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28
Q

Wickham striae is a term used to describe the oral mucosal lesions of:

A. linea alba.
B. frictional keratosis.
C. lichen planus.
D. erythema multiforme.

A

C. lichen planus.

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29
Q

This condition is thought to be a hypersensitivity reaction. It is characterized by skin and mucous membrane lesions. The skin lesions are referred to as target, iris, or bull’s eye lesions. The lips and mucosal lesions are more extensive and painful and often appear bloody and crusted. The intraoral lesions are extensive superficial ulcerations. The onset is explosive. On the basis of these clinical features you suspect:

A) erythema multiforme

B) fixed drug eruptions

C) Beçhet syndrome

D) angioedema

A

A) erythema multiforme

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30
Q

Apthous ulcers are found in all of the following systemic diseases except:

A) Bechet syndrome

B) Langerhans cell histiocytosis

C) Ulcerative Colitis

D) Cyclic neutropenia

A

B) Langerhans cell histiocytosis

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31
Q

Which is the most common precipitating factor in the development of apthous ulcers?

A) allergy

B) trauma

C) systemic disease

D) Citrus foods

A

B) trauma

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32
Q

The most common oral sire for cicatricial pemphigoid is the:

A. floor of the mouth

B. gingiva

C. palate

D. tongue

A

B. gingiva

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33
Q

A triad of keratoconjunctivitis sicca, xerostomia, and connective tissue disorder describes which autoimmune disease?

A. Scleroderma

B. Systemic lupus

C. Ciciatricial pempagoid

D. Sjogren syndrome

A

D. Sjogren syndrome

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34
Q

Germination is not:

A. a hereditary anomaly

B. an incomplete formation of two teeth

C. a condition that occurs often in anterior teeth

D. An abnormality of the size of a tooth

***

A

D. An abnormality of the size of a tooth

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35
Q

A cyst that is intraosseous, moves teeth, and extends between trabeculae and is associated with Gorlin syndrome (nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome) is called;

A. Nevoid cyst

B. Eruption cyst

C. Odontogenic Keratocyst

D. Calcifying Odontogenic cyst

A

C. Odontogenic Keratocyst

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36
Q

Pitting is the most common type of enamel hypoplasia seen in patients who have which condition during tooth development?

A. febrile illness

B. drinkingwater with 2.4 ppm of fluortide during tooth development

C. congenital syphilis

D. herpes simplex

A

A. febrile illness

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37
Q

The only hypoplastic defect in a patients’s dentition is located on the facial surface of a permanent maxillary central incisor. The most likely cause of this defect is:

A. dietary deficiency during tooth formation

B. abscence of primary canal

C. physical trauma of the primary central incisor

D. neonatal hypoplasia

A

C. physical trauma of the primary central incisor

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38
Q

Which disease is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum?

A. Necrotizing ulcertaive gingivitis

B. Actinomycosis

C. TB

D. Syphilis

A

D. Syphilis

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39
Q

Congenital syhilis may cause a specific form of enamel hypoplasia called:

A. mottling

B. mulberry molars

C. Turner Tooth

D. pitting of teeth

A

B. mulberry molars

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40
Q

Necrotizing sialometaplasia is thought to result from:

A. lack of blood supply to the area

B. a sialolith

C. trauma to the floor of the mouth

D. infectious causes

A

A. lack of blood supply to the area

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41
Q

The most common site for a polp polyp is:

A. The apex of the tooth

B. the occlusal surface of a large open carious lesion

C. The gingival margin of the tooth

D. Deep in the pulp canal

A

B. the occlusal surface of a large open carious lesion

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42
Q

A patient with Papillon-Lefevre syndrome will show a marked gingivoperiodontal inflammatory condition in the primary teeth at about ____ years of age.

A. 1

B. 1.5 - 2

C. 4 - 6

D. 8 - 9

A

B. 1.5 - 2

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43
Q

Neurofibromatosis of von Recklinghausen is characterized by:

A) multiple neurofibromas appearing as macules of various sizes.
B) inevitable malignant transformation.
C) oral involvement in about 90% of patients.
D) café au lait pigmentation of the skin in 90% of patients.

A
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44
Q

Pegged or absent maxillary lateral incisor

A. affect the secondary but not primary dentition

B. have a prevalence of 10% in the white population

C. are accompanied by congenitally lacking premolar teeth in 10% to 20% of the population

D. are genearlly an autosomal-recessive trait with variable expressivity

A

C. are accompanied by congenitally lacking premolar teeth in 10% to 20% of the population

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45
Q

Snow-capped amelogenesis imperfecta is a variation of type _____ amelogenesis imperfecta.

A) I: hypoplastic

B) II: hypocalcified

C) III: hypomaturation

D) IV: hypoplastic-hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta

A

C) III: hypomaturation

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46
Q

A hereditary abnormality of Teeth with normal crowns and abnormal roots describes;

A. dens in dente

B. Dentionogenesis imperfecta

C. Taurdontic teeth

D. Dentin dysplasia

A

D. Dentin dysplasia

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47
Q

‘Keratin pearls” are a characteristic feature of:

A. squamous cell carcimona

B. basal cell carcinoma

C. pleomorphic adenoma

D. monnomorphic adenoma

A

A. squamous cell carcimona

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48
Q

Severe epithelial dysplasia involving the full thickness of the epithelium is called:

a. anaplasia.
b. squamous cell carcinoma.
c. carcinoma in situ.
d. metastasis.

A

c. carcinoma in situ.

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49
Q

Which of the following characteristics are associated with Warthin tumor;

A. It occurs in a minor salivary gland

B. It occurs in the Parotid gland

C. It occurs in the sublingual gland

D. none of the above

A

B. It occurs in the Parotid gland

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50
Q

Which of the following is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor in children?

A) Adenoid cystic carcinoma

B) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

C) Monomorphic adenoma

D) Pleomorphic adenoma

A

D) mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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51
Q

70% of this tumnor occurs under age 20, and occur most frequently in the anterior part of the jaws.

A) Basal Cell Carcinoma

B) Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor

C) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

D) Odontogenic myxoma

A

C) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

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52
Q

“A 48 year old black woman has multiple painless radiopaque masses in the mandible and maxilla in the posterior areas. No bony expansion is noted. The most likely diagnosis is”;

a. central cementifying fibroma
b. florid cement osseous dysplasia
c. periapical cemento osseous dysplasia
d. fibrous dysplasia

A

b. florid cement osseous dysplasia

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53
Q

The most common radiographic appearance of fibrous dysplasia is;

A. Well circumscribed radiopacity

B. Well circumscribed multilocular radiolucency

C. Cotton-wool

D. Ground glass appearance

A

D. Ground glass appearance

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54
Q

Which of the following caries a risk of developing Osteosarcoma

A) Paget disease

B) Periapical cemento-osseous sysplasia

C) Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia

D) Giant cel granuloma

A

A) Paget disease

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55
Q

The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is;

A) Hyperplasia

B) Benign and malignant tumors of the gland

C) Pituitary gland disease

D) An autoimmune disorder

A

D) An autoimmune disorder

56
Q

An aneurysmal bone cyst occurs;

A) In men and women over 40

B) Found in the cranium

C) Unilocular in the maxilla and mandible

D) None of the above

A

C) Unilocular in the maxilla and mandible?

57
Q

Oral Manefestations of hyperthyroidism in adults include;

A. enlarged gingiva

B. leukoplakia

C. Candidiasis

D. osteoporosis affecting the alveolar bone and jaw function

A

D. osteoporosis affecting the alveolar bone and jaw function

58
Q

Multiple myeloma is a proliferation of plasma cells which produce large amounts of immunoglobulin. Which of the following are associated with this disease:

A) fibromas and bleeding

B) Bence Jones proteins in the urine and monoclonal spikes of a single type pf immunoglobulin

C) Localized lesions and gradual enlargements

D) B and C only

A

D) B and C only

59
Q

Which of the following oral manefestations are not associated with hyperparathyrodism?

A. Multilocular radiolucency

B. Osteoma

C. Giant Cell Granuloma

D. Ground glass appearance of trabeculae

A

B. Osteoma

60
Q

A compound Odontoma differs from a complex Odontoma in that the compound Odontoma;

A) Presents as a radiographic mass

B) Has unlimited growth potential

C) Is composed of several tooth-like structures

D) Is located on the posterior mandible

A

C) Is composed of several tooth-like structures

61
Q

Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor. It is secreted by;

A. Suprarenal gland

B. Parietal cells of the stomach

C. The gallbladder

D. Parietal cells of the liver

A

B. Parietal cells of the stomach

62
Q

Radiograph shows multiple radiolucent lesions of the mandible in a patient with ____;

A. Metastatic tumors

B. Multiple myeloma

C. Lymphoma

D. Osteoma

A

B. Multiple myeloma

63
Q

Retrocuspid papillae are located on the:

  1. Palate
  2. Floor of the mouth
  3. Gingiva lingual to the mandibular canines
  4. Canine eminence
A

c. Gingiva lingual to the mandibular canines

64
Q

The first response of the body to injury is:

  1. Anaphylaxis
  2. Erythema
  3. Fever
  4. Inflammation
A

d. Inflammation

65
Q

Healing of an injury in which there is little loss of tissue such as in a surgical incision is referred to as healing by:

  1. Tertiary intention
  2. Keloid intention
  3. Secondary intention
  4. Primary intention
A

d. primary intention

66
Q

Which of the following is a systemic sign of inflammation?

  1. Redness
  2. Pain
  3. Loss of normal tissue function
  4. Fever
A

d. fever

67
Q

The first microscopic event in the inflammatory response is:

  1. Decreased blood flow
  2. Constriction of the microcirculation
  3. Phagocytosis
  4. Blood in the microcirculation increase in viscosity
A

b. Constriction of the microcirculation

68
Q

Necrotizing sialometaplasia is thought to result from:

  1. Lack of blood supply to the area
  2. A sialolith
  3. Trauma to the floor of the mouth
  4. Infectious causes
A

a. lack of blood supply to the area

69
Q

The most common site for a pulp polyp is

  1. The apex of the tooth
  2. The occlusal surface of a large open carious lesion
  3. The gingival margin
  4. Deep in the pulp canal
A

b. the occlusal surface of a large open carious lesion

70
Q

Which disease is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum

  1. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
  2. Actinomycosis
  3. TB
  4. Syphilis
A

d. syhillis

71
Q

Congentital syphilis may cause a specific form of enamel hypoplasia called:

  1. Mottling
  2. Mulberry molars
  3. Turner tooth
  4. Pitting of teeth
A

b. mulberry molars

72
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning a postivie reaction to the Purified Protein Derivitive (PPD) skin test?

  1. The patient has been infected previously with Mycrobacterium tuberculosis
  2. Patient is contagious
  3. Patient is in need of hospitalization
  4. Patient has active TB
A
  1. The patient has been infected previously with Mycrobacterium tuberculosis
73
Q

The initial infection and signs and symptoms of deep fungal infections, including histoplasmosis, coccidiodomycosis, and blastomycosis, are usually related to disease in which of the following locations?

  1. Lung
  2. Kidney
  3. Lymph nodes
  4. Nasal cavity
A

a. lung

74
Q

Verruca vulgaris closely resembles a papillary benign tumor of squamous epithelium called:

  1. Heck lesion
  2. Fibroma
  3. Lipoma
  4. Papilloma
A

d. papilloma

75
Q

Wickham striae a term used to describe the oral mucosal lesions of:

  1. Frictional keratosis
  2. Erythema multiforme
  3. Lichen planus
  4. Linea alba
A

c. lichen planus

76
Q
A
77
Q
  1. This condition is thought to be a hypersensitivity reaction. It is characterized by skin and mucous membrane lesions. The skin lesions are reffered to as target, iris, or bull’s eye lesions. The lips and mucosal lesions are more extensive and painful and often appear bloody and crusted. Theintraoral lesions arer extensive and superficial ulcerations. The onset is explosive. On the basis ofthese clincal features you suspect:
    1. Erythema multiforme
    2. Fixeddrug eruptions
    3. Bechet syndrome
    4. Angioedema
A

Erythema multiforme

78
Q

Aphthous ulcers are found in all of the following systemic diseases except:

  1. Bechet syndrome
  2. Langerhans cell histocytosis
  3. Ulcerative colitis
  4. Cyclic neutropenia
A

b. Langerhans cell histocytosis

79
Q

The most common oral site for cicatricial pemphigoid is the:

  1. Floor of the mouth
  2. Gingiva
  3. Palate
  4. Tongue
A

b. gingiva

80
Q

A triad of keratoconjunctivitis sicca, xerostomia, and connective tissue disorder describes which autoimmune disease?

  1. Scleroderma
  2. Systemic lupus
  3. Cicatricial pemphagoid
  4. Sjogren syndrome
A

d. Sjogren syndrome

81
Q

Pitting is the most common type of enamel hypoplasia seen in patients who have whoch condition during tooth development?

  1. Febrile illness
  2. Drinking water with 2.4 ppm of fluoride during tooth development
  3. Congenital syphilis
  4. Herpes simplex
A

a. Febrile illness

82
Q

The only hypoplastic defect in a patient’s dentition is located on the facial surface of a permanent maxillary central incisor. The most likely cause of this defect is:

  1. Dietary deficiency during tooth formation
  2. Absence of primary central
  3. Physical trauma of the primary central incisor
  4. Neonatal hypoplasia
A

Physical trauma of the primary central incisor

83
Q

Gemination is not:

  1. An hereditary anomaly
  2. An incomplete formation of two teeth
  3. A condition that occurs often in the anterior teeth
  4. An abnormality of the size of a tooth
A

An abnormality of the size of a tooth

84
Q

A cyst that is intraosseous, moves teeth, and extends between trabeculae and is associated with Gorlin syndrome( nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome) is called:

  1. Nevoid cyst
  2. Eruption cyst
  3. Odontogenic keratocyst
  4. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
A

Odontogenic keratocyst

85
Q

Neurofibromatosis of von Recklinghausen is characterized by:

  1. Multiple neurofibromas appearing as macules of various sizes
  2. Inevitable malignant transformation
  3. Oral involvement in about 90% of patients
  4. Café au lait pigmentation of the skin in 90% of patients
A

d. Café au lait pigmentation of the skin in 90% of patients

86
Q

Pegged or absent max lateral incisors

  1. Affect the secondary but not the primary dentition
  2. Have a prevalence of 10% in the white population
  3. Are accompanied by congenitally lacking premolar teeth in 10% to 20% of the population
  4. Are generally an autosomal- recessive trait with variable expressivity
A

c. Are accompanied by congenitally lacking premolar teeth in 10% to 20% of the population

87
Q

A hereditary abnormality of teeth with normal crowns and abnormal roots describes:

  1. Dens in dente
  2. Dentinogensis imperfecta
  3. Taurodontic teeth
  4. Dentin dysplasia
A

d. Dentin dysplasia

88
Q

Which of the following statements about erythroplakia is TRUE

  1. Most cases occur on buccal mucosa
  2. It is more common than leukoplakia
  3. When examined microscopically, 90% of cases demonstrate epithelial dysplasia or squamous cell carcinoma
  4. It is considered a less serious finding than luekoplakia
A

d. When examined microscopically, 90% of cases demonstrate epithelial dysplasia or squamous cell carcinoma

89
Q
  1. Severe epithelial dysplasia involving the full thickness of the epithelium is called:
    1. Anaplasia
    2. Squamous cell carcinoma
    3. Carcinoma in situ
    4. Metastasis
A

c. Carcinoma in situ

90
Q

“keratin pearls” are a characteristic feature of:

  1. Squamous cell carcinoma
  2. Basal cell carcinoma
  3. Pleomorphic adenoma
  4. Monomorphic adenoma
A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

91
Q

Which of the following characteristics are associated with Warthin tumor:

  1. It occurs in a minor salivary gland
  2. It occurs in the partotid gland
  3. It occurs in the sublingual gland
  4. None of the above
A

b. It occurs in the partotid gland

92
Q

Which of the following is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor in children?

  1. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
  2. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
  3. Monomorphic adenoma
  4. Pleomorphic adenoma
A

b. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

93
Q

Ghost cells are characteristics of which of the following lesions?

  1. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
  2. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
  3. Odontogenic myxoma
  4. Ameloblastoma
A

a. Calcifying odontogenic cyst

94
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma is a proliferation of plasma cells which produce large amount of immunoglobulin. Which of the following are associated with this disease?
    1. Fibromas and bleeding
    2. Bence Jones proteins in the urine and monoclonal spikes of a single type of immunoglobulin
    3. Localized lesions and gradual enlargements
    4. B and c only
A

b. Bence Jones proteins in the urine and monoclonal spikes of a single type of immunoglobulin

95
Q

A congenital epulis lesion occuring on the anterior gingiva of newborn girls arising from mesenchymal calls is;

  1. Sessile or pedunculated
  2. Treated by surgical excision
  3. Resembles granular cell tumor
  4. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

96
Q

A compound odontoma differs from a complex odontoma in the a compound odontoma;

  1. Presents as a radiographic mass
  2. Has unlimited growth potential
  3. Is composed of several tooth- like structures
  4. Is located on the posterior mandible
A
  1. Is composed of several tooth- like structures
97
Q
  1. 48 y/o black woman has multiple painless radiopaque masses in the mandible and maxilla in the posterior areas. No bony expansion is noted. The most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Central cementifying fibromas
    2. Florid cemento- osseous dysplasia
    3. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
    4. Fibrous dysplasia
A

b. Florid cemento- osseous dysplasia

98
Q

All of the following have a characteristic radiographic appearance except:

  1. Paget’s disease
  2. Osteomalacia
  3. Florid cemento- osseous dysplasia
  4. Periaplical cemento- osseous dysplasia
A

b. Osteomalacia

99
Q

Which of the following is associated with Paget disease?

  1. Urinalysis testing
  2. Resorption and deposition of bone pattern called mosaic bone
  3. Immunoelectrophoresis
  4. Surgical treatment
A

b. Resorption and deposition of bone pattern called mosaic bone

100
Q

Which of the following carrier risks of developing Osteosarcoma

  1. Paget disease
  2. Periapical
  3. Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
  4. Giant cell granuloma
A

a. Paget disease

101
Q
  1. Which is a chronic metabolic disease
    1. Albright syndrome
    2. Paget disease of bone
    3. Fibrous malignancy
    4. Osteomalacia
A

b. Paget disease of bone

102
Q

Most sever type of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia is known as:

  1. Jaffe syndrome
  2. McCune Albright syndrome
  3. Cranial syndrome
  4. Fibrous connective syndrome
A

b. McCune Albright syndrome

103
Q

An Aneurysmal bone cyst occurs:

  1. In men and women over 40
  2. Found in the cranium
  3. Unilocular in the max and mand
  4. None of the above
A

c. Unilocular in the max and mand

104
Q
  1. Squamous cell carcinoma on the vermillion border of lips and skin of the face are:
    1. Associated with color changes of the vermillion border from dark pink and uniform to mottled grayish pink
    2. Not associated with sun exposure
    3. Most common in people with dark skin
    4. Associated with poorer prognosis than that for squamous carcinoma of the oral cavity
A

d. Associated with poorer prognosis than that for squamous carcinoma of the oral cavity

105
Q

Oral manifestations of hyperthyroidism in adults includes

  1. Enlarged gingiva
  2. Leukoplakia
  3. Candidiasis
  4. Osteoporosis affecting the alveolar bone and jawfuntion
A

a. Enlarged gingiva

106
Q

Which of the following manifestations are NOT associated with hyperparathyroidism:

  1. Multiocular radiolucecy
  2. Osteoma
  3. Giant cell carcinoma
  4. Ground glass appearance of trabeculae
A

b. Osteoma

107
Q

Addison’s disease, pernicious anemia, and Graves disease are all associated with which of the following:

  1. Type 1 diabetes
  2. Hyperpituitarism
  3. Leukemia
  4. Immunodeficiency
A

a. Type 1 diabetes

108
Q

Most common cause of hyperthyroidism:

  1. Hyperplasia of the gland
  2. Benign and malignant tumors of the gland
  3. Pituitary gland disease
  4. An autoimmune disease
A

d. An autoimmune disease

109
Q

Surgical and dental procedures are contraindicated in

  1. Agranulocytosis
  2. Cyclic neutropenia
  3. Pernicious anemia
  4. Leukemia
A

Agranulocytosis

110
Q

Which one of the following conditions would most likely resppond to therapeutic diagnosis such as antifungal cream or B-complex vitamins?

A. angular cheilitis

B. ameliogenesis imperfecta

C. Paget disease

D. Stafne bone cyst

A

a. angular cheilitis

111
Q

Which system in the blood mediates inflammation by causing increased dilation of the blood vessels at the site of injury and increases the permeability of local blood vessels?

A. kinin system

B. clotting system

C. complement system

D. lysosomal systemA. kinin

A

A. kinin system

112
Q

The most common site(s) for oral lesions in TB is(are) the:

A. tongue and gingiva

B. palate

C. tongue and palate

D. gingiva

A

C. tongue and palate

113
Q

The most characteristic form of this disease is the formation of abscesses that tend to drain from the mandible to the skin by the formation of sinus tracts, with sulfur granules in the pus draining from the sinus tracts.

A. Syphillis

B. Actinomycosis

C. TB

D.Impetigo

A

B. Actinomycosis

114
Q

Pericoronitis is most often associated with the:

Question options:

A. maxillary canines

B. mandibular third molars

C. maxillary second molars

D. mandibular first molars

A

B. mandibular third molars

115
Q

The most common type of candidiasis affecting the oral mucosa is the _____ type.

A. chronic hyperplastic

B. erythematous

C.pseudomembranous

D. chronic atrophic

A

chronic atrophic

116
Q

The type of candidiasis that appears as a white lesion that does not wipe off and does not respond to antifungal therapy is;

A.chronic hyperplastic

B.pseudomembranous

C.drythrmatous

D.chronic atrophic

A

chronic hyperplastic

117
Q

The initial infection and signs and symptoms of deep fungal infections, including histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, and blastomycosis, are usually related to disease in which of the following locations?

Question options:

A. Lung

B. Kidney

C. Lymph nodes

D. Nasal cavity

A

A. Lung

118
Q

The illustration shows an oral condyloma acuminatum presenting in a child. The presence of condyloma acuminatum in a child suggests:

A. hypersensitivity

B. genetic predisposition

C. sexual abuse

D. autoimmune disease

A

C. Sexual abuse

119
Q

Which of the following viruses is associated with infectious mononucleosis?

A Varicella-zoster virus

B. Epstein-Barr virus

C. Human papillomavirus

D. HErpes simplex virus

A

B. Epstein-Barr virus

120
Q

Verruca vulgaris closely resembles a papillary benign tumor of squamous epithelium called:

A. lipoma

B. papilloma

C. Heck lesion

D. fibroma

A

b. paipilloma

121
Q

In herpes labialis, the amount of virus present is highesf in the ____ stage.

A. crusted

B. prodromal

C. vesicle

D. healing

A
122
Q

Which of the following is a protein molecule that is produced by plasma cells and is also called an immunoglobulin?

A. an autoimmune disease

B. a narural killer cell

C. Rheumatoid factor

D. an antibody

A

D. an antibody

123
Q

What is the most common precipitating factor in the development of aphthous ulcers?

A. allergy

B. trauma

C. systemic disease

D. citrus fruits

A

trauma

124
Q

This condition is thought to be a hypersensitivity reaction. It is characterized by skin and mucous membrane lesions. The skin lesions are referred to as target, iris, or bull s eye lesions. The lips and mucosal lesions are more extensive and painful and often appear bloody and crusted. The intraoral lesions are extensive superficial ulcerations. The onset is explosive. On the basis of these clinical features you suspect:

A. erythema multiforme

B. fixed drug eruptions

C. Bechet syndrome

D. angioedema

A

A. erythema multiforme

125
Q

Aphthous ulcers are found in all of the following systemic diseases except:

A. Bechet Syndrome

B. Langerhans cell histiocytosis

C. Ulcerative colitis

D. Cyclic neutropenia

A

B. Langerhans cell histiocytosis

126
Q

The most ccommon sire for cicatrical pemphigoid is the:

A. floor of the mouth

B. gingiva

C. palate

D. tongue

A

B. gingiva

127
Q

Using a risk assessment tool for autoimmune disease is an appropriate way for dental hygienists to diagnose undetected autoimmune disease. Clients presenting with positive responses on this risk assessment tool should be referred for further medical evaluation.

A. Both statements are true

B. Bothe statements are false

C. The first statement is true and the second is false

D. The first statement is false and the second is true

A

D. The first statement is false and the second is true

128
Q

This cyst develops from a pre existing granuloma found at the apex of a non vital tooth.

A. radicular cyst

B. median mandibular cyst

C. median palatine cyst

D. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia

A

A. radicular cyst

129
Q

Cyclic neutropenia is:

A. characterized by episodes that genearally persist for 1-7 days

B. characterized by oral manifestations consisting of severe ulcerative gingivitis or gingivostomatitis

C. caused by a deletion on the long arm of chroosme 11 regions 14-21

D. inherited as an autosomal recessive condition

A

B. characterized by oral manifestations consisting of severe ulcerative gingivitis or gingivostomatitis

130
Q

Which of the following disorders is characterized by fusion of the anterior portion of the maxillary gingiva to the upper lip from canine to canine?

A. Gardner syndrome

B. Mandibulofacial dysotosis

C. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome

D. Cherubism

A

C. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome

131
Q

Which of the following syndromes is characterized by intestinal polyps, which become malignant at age 30 and after?

A. Osteogenesis imperfecta

B. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome

C. Mandibulofacial dysostosis

D. Gardner Syndrome

A

D. Gardner Syndrome

132
Q

Neurofibromatosis of von Recklinghausen is characterized by:

A. multiple neurofibromas appearing as macules of varioussizes

B. inevitable malignant transformation

C. oral involvment in about 90% of patients

D. cafe au lait pigmentation of the skin in 90% of patients

A

D. cafe au lait pigmentation of the skin in 90% of patients

133
Q

Which of the following syndromes is characterized by multiple melanotic macular pigmentations of the skin and mucosa, which are associated with gastrointestinal polyposis syndrome?

A. Osler-Rendu-Parkes Weber syndrome

B. Van der Woude syndrome

C. Gorlin syndrome

D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

A

D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

134
Q

A soap bubble appearance of bone is associated with which inherited disorder?

A. Osteosarcoma

B. Dysostosis

C. Hypophosphatasia

D. Cherubism

A

Cherubism

135
Q

The _____ type of amelogenesis imperfecta is characterized by tooth enamel that does not develop to a normal thickness because of failure of the ameloblasts to lay down enamel matrix properly.

A. hypoplastic

B. hypocalcified

C. hypomaturation

D. hypoplastic-hypomaturation

A

A. hypoplastic

136
Q
A

Oral Pathology (14 decks)

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