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Oral Pathology > Chapter 9 > Flashcards

Chapter 9 Flashcards

1
Q

Hyperpituitarism results from an excessive production of growth hormone. Which of the following most often causes it?

a. pituitary adenoma
b. pituitary sarcoma
c. carcinoma in situ
d. ameloblastoma

A

a. pituitary adenoma

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2
Q

Hyperthyroidism in children can lead to:

a. partial anodontia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. ankylosis
d. early exfoliation of the deciduous dentition and early eruption of the permanent teeth

A

d. early exfoliation of the deciduous dentition and early eruption of the permanent teeth.

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3
Q

Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and abnormal bone metabolism are characteristic of which of the following conditions?

a. hyperthyroidism
b. hypothyroidism
c. hyperparathyroidism
d. hyperpituitarism

A

c. hyperparathyroidism

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4
Q

All of the following are typically acute metabolic complications of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus except one. Which one is the exception?

a. electrolyte depletion
b. myocardial infarction
c. polyphagia
d. polydipsia

A

b. myocardial infarction

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5
Q

Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia are all typically characteristic of which of the following?

a. hyperparathyroidism
b. hyperthyroidism
c. type I diabetes mellitus
d. addison disease

A

c. type I diabetes melitus

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6
Q

Which of the following is not true of type II diabetes mellitus?

a. those with it have increased insulin resistance
b. it typically occurs at 40 yrs or older
c. it represents approx. 3% of primary diabetes cases
d. glucose control can be achieved without daily insulin injections

A

c. it represents approx. 3 % of primary diabetes cases

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7
Q

Which of the following oral complications is not typically assoc. with diabetes mellitus?

a. candidiasis
b. xerostomia
c. periodontal bone loss
d. excessive bleeding

A

d. excessive bleeding

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8
Q

Which one of the following is false concerning Addison disease?

a. it is also known as primary adrenal cortical insufficiency
b. there may be bronzing of the skin
c. it may be caused by a malignant tumor that destroys the adrenal gland
d. the patient may experience pathologic fracture

A

d. the patient may experience pathologic fracture

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding diabetes mellitus?

a. candidiasis may be indicative of compromised immunity in a patient with diabetes
b. rigorous control of blood glucose may delay progression of coronary artery disease
c. microvascular disease typically affects eyes, kidneys, and nerves
d. diabetes mellitus is a syndrome

A

b. rigorous control of blood glucose may delay progression of coronary artery disease

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10
Q

Which one of the following is not a cause of iron deficiency anemia?

a. chronic blood loss
b. deficiency of iron intake
c. increased requirement for iron
d. normal bone marrow function

A

d. normal bone marrow function

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11
Q

Thalassemia major is:

a. caused by a nutritional deficiency
b. the same a celiac sprue
c. an autoimmune condition
d. assoc. with a severe hemolytic anemia

A

d. assoc. with a severe hemolytic anemia

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12
Q

Achlorhydria, failure to absorb vit B12 and megaloblastic anemia are characteristic features of which of the following?

a. pernicious anemia
b. thalassemia
c. sickle cell anemia
d. thrombocytopenic purpura

A

a. pernicious anemia

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13
Q

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of sickle cell anemia?

a. it is an inherited blood disorder found predominantly in blacks
b. it occurs as a result of an abnormal type of hemoglobin and decreased oxygen in the red blood cells
c. the individual with sickle cell anemia can experience weakness, fatigue, and joint pain
d. red blood cells are circular in shape

A

d. red blood cells are circular in shape

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14
Q

Which of the following is characterized by a decrease in platelets?

a. celiac disease
b. thrombocytopenia
c. thalassemia
d. Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

b. thrombocytopenia

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15
Q

Secondary aplastic anemia can be caused by:

a. chemotherapy
b. dental radiographs
c. genetic disorder
d. autoimmune factor

A

a. chemotherapy

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16
Q

Which of the following is characterized by an abnormal increase in circulating red blood cells?

a. leukopenia
b. polydipsia
c. thrombocytopenia
d. polycythemia

A

d. polycythemia

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17
Q

Leukopenia most often involves which cell type?

a. eosinophils
b. neutrophils
c. basophils
d. erythrocytes

A

b. neutrophils

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18
Q

If a patient’s WBC count is 1000 cells/microliter, the patient has:

a. leukopenia
b. thrombocytopenia
c. hemophilia
d. cyclic neutropenia

A

a. leuoipenia

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19
Q

Excessive numbers of abnormal WBCs are characteristic of:

a. agranulocytosis
b. leukopenia
c. cyclic neutropenia
d. leukemia

A

d. leukemia

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20
Q

Normal bleeding time is usually between”

a. 1 and 6 min
b. 2 and 3 min
c. 15 and 45 min
d. 10 and 15 min

A

a. 1 and 6 min

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21
Q

The normal prothrombin time is: a. 2 to 5 min b. 11 to 16 secs c. 10 to 15 min d. 1 to 6 secs

A

b. 11 to 16 secs

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22
Q

The International Normalized Ratio is all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

a. an expression of the ratio of prothrombin time to thromboplastin activity
b. more accurate than the prothrombin time because it is standardized from laboratory to laboratory
c. a test used to determine the patient’s ability to form a clot
d. a test used to assess the patient’s platelet number

A

d. a test to assess the patient’s platelet number

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23
Q

Which of the following is the normal INR range for an individual not on warfarin?

a. 0.8 to 12.0
b. 3.0 to 4.0
c. 0.8 to 1.1
d. 5.0 to 6.0

A

c. 0.8 to 1.1

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24
Q

Symptoms of leukemia can be similar to those found in:

a. hepatitis
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. nonthrombocytopenic purpura
d. infectious mononucleosis

A

d. infectious mononucleosis

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25
Q

All of the following are characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism except one. Which one is the exception?

a. osteoclastic resorption
b. excessive production of parathyroid hormone
c. cotton wool radiographic appearance
d. increased serum calcium

A

c. cotton wool radiographic appearance

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26
Q

Osteonecrosis of the jaw is assoc. with:

a. antipsychotic medications
b. tetracycline
c. phenytoin
d. bisphosphonates

A

d. bisphosphonates

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27
Q

Which of the following is not true about the insulin pump?

a. it uses only long acting or slow acting insulin
b. the patient must still test blood sugar several times daily
c. rapid onset of ketoacidosis may occur with pump failure
d. insulin dosage may be less than with syringe delivery

A

a. it uses only long acting or slow acting insulin

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28
Q

Which of the following does not apply to the glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) test?

a. it measures glucose control over a 4 month period
b. it is one of the several criteria used for the diagnosis of diabetes
c. the lower the value, the better the glucose control
d. it is used only in the management of type 1 diabetes

A

d. it is used only in the management of type 1 diabetes

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29
Q

All of the following conditions are assoc. with type 1 diabetes mellitus except one. Which one is the exception?

a. addison disease
b. hyperpituitarism
c. graves disease
d. pernicious anemia

A

b. hyperpituitarism

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30
Q

Which of the following is false concerning periodontal disease and its relationship to diabetes mellitus?

a. it aggravates diabetic control
b. it has prognostic or predictive value for the diagnosis of type 2 diabetes in certain ethnic groups
c. patients who do not respond to periodontal therapy may have undiagnosed diabetes
d. good oral hygiene will resolve all gingival conditions

A

d. good oral hygiene will resolve all gingival conditions

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31
Q

Which of the following is false concerning gestational diabetes?

a. it occurs in the majority of women during pregnancy
b. it follows the pattern of insulin resistance
c. the hormones progesterone and cortisol may play a role in its development
d. there is an increased risk for the other to develop type 2 diabetes later in life

A

a. it occurs in the majority of women during pregnancy

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32
Q

In leukemia, which type of therapy can have the most significant side effects for the patient?

a. induction chemotherapy
b. maintenance chemotherapy
c. radiation to central nervous system
d. drugs and radiation

A

a. induction of chemotherapy

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33
Q

Which patient group is most likely to get sickle cell anemia?

a. whites
b. blacks
c. indians
d. europeans

A

b. blacks

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34
Q

Acanthosis nigricans is a skin disorder assoc. with which condition?

a. anemia
b. hyperthyroidism
c. type 2 diabetes
d. addison disease

A

c. type 2 diabetes

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35
Q

Patients with addison disease crave which one of the following due to hyponatremia?

a. natural vitamins
b. sugar
c. dairy products
d. salt

A

d. salt

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36
Q

Which one of the following is an inherited disorder of hemoglobin synthesis?

a. iron deficiency anemia
b. pernicious anemia
c. cooley anemia
d. nutritional anemia

A

c. cooley anemia

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37
Q

According to the World Health Organization, which two countries will contribute the largest number of diabetes cases worldwide by the year 2030?

a. US and Brazil
b. India and China
c. Sweden and Finland
d. Denmark and Germany

A

b. India and China

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38
Q

Approx. what percentage of patients with prediabetes will likely develop outright clinical diabetes given their additional risk factors of obesity and family history?

a. 5%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%

A

b. 25%

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39
Q

Type I and type 2 diabetes mellitus typically have which of the following in common?

a. autoimmune mediated disease
b. insulin resistance
c. chronic hyperglycemia
d. time of onset

A

c. chronic hyperglycemia

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40
Q

In the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus, which classification of newly developed drugs decreases blood glucose by increasing the excretion of urinary glucose? a. sulfonylureas

b. biguanides
c. SGLT2
d. incretin mimetics

A

c. SGLT2

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41
Q

All of the following are typical oral complications of diabetes except one. Which one is the exception?

a. SCC
b. candidiasis
c. dental caries
d. periodontal disease

A

a. SCC

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42
Q

All of the following occur in the uncontrolled diabetic state except one. Which one is the exception?

a. reduction in the phagocytic activity of macrophages
b. delay in chemotaxis of neutrophils
c. ketoacidosis
d. preservation of body mass

A

d. preservation of body mass

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43
Q

All of the following are complications from macrovascular disease in diabetes mellitus except one. Which one is the exception?

a. abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. cerebrovascular accident
c. myocardial infarction
d. damage to nerves with impairment of sensation

A

d. damage to nerves with impairment of sensation

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44
Q

Exophthalmos is a characteristic feature in which one of the following?

a. hypothyroidism
b. acromegaly
c. graves disease
d. myxedema

A

c. graves disease

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45
Q

The most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism is:

a. abnormal parathyroid glands
b. kidney failure
c. hyperplasia of the parathyroid gland
d. malignant parathyroid tumor

A

b. kidney failure

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46
Q

Cushing syndrome is caused by an increase in:

a. vit D
b. cortisol
c. malignant tumors
d. ACTH

A

b. cortisol

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47
Q

Insufficient production of cortisol Causes destruction of adrenal gland Bronzing of the skin Melanotic macules on oral mucosa

A

Addison Disease (hypoadrenocorticism)

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48
Q

Increase in cortisol Long term corticosteroid therapy Weight gain- “moon face”

A

cushing syndrome (hypercortisolism)

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49
Q

A reddish-blue or purplish discoloration of skin or mucosa from spontaneous extravasation of blood.

May be due to a defect or deficiency in blood platelets.

May be due to capillary fragility.

Blood may ooze from gingival margins, without the presence of gingivitis or inflammation.

A

Purpura

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50
Q

________ occurs when the anterior pituitary gland produces excess growth hormone production by the anterior pituitary gland.

_________ results if it occurs before the closure of long bones.

_______ results when hypersecretion occurs during adult life.

A

Hyperpituitarism; Gigantism; Acromegaly

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51
Q

What endocrine disorder affects men and women in their 40s and can result in the enlargement of hands and feet, and an increase in rib size.

This disorder also features thickened lips and macroglossia. Facial changes and enlargement of the maxilla and mandible that may cause separation of teeth and malocclusion.

This disorder also features enlargement of the maxillary sinus leads to voice deepening.

A

Hyperpituitarism

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52
Q

In _____ the growth hormone DOES NOT decrease.

A

acromegaly

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53
Q

______ is an endocrine disorder that is characterized by excess production of thyroid hormone.

It is ____ common in women than men, in 30s and 40s.

A

Hyperthyroidism; more

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54
Q

The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is _______.

This is an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies, and thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (THIs), stimulate thyroid cells.

A

Graves Disease

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55
Q

In _______ the thyroid gland enlarges and too much thyroid hormone is produced.

This causes an _____ in the patient’s metabolism.

A

Graves disease; increase

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56
Q

Thyroid enlargement (goiter), rosy complexion, erythema of the palms, excessive sweating, fine hair, softened nails, exophthalmos, anxiety, weakness, restlessness, and cardiac problems may be associated with _____.

A

hyperthyroidism

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57
Q

_______ may lead to premature exfoliation of deciduous teeth in children and premature eruption of permanent teeth.

_______ may affect alveolar bone.

A

Hyperthyroidism; Osteoporosis

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58
Q

Caries and periodontal disease may appear and develop more rapidly with what endocrine disorder?

(May also experience burning tongue)

A

Hyperthyroidism

59
Q

Clinical mismanagement of _______ may lead to ______.

A

hyperthyroidism; hypothyroidism

60
Q

_______ is characterized by a decreased output of thyroid hormone. It is classified as ____ or ____.

A

Hypothyroidism; primary or secondary

61
Q

Hypothyroidism present during infancy and childhood is called ______.

A

Cretinism

62
Q

Worldwide, congenital hypothyroidism is most often a result of endemic maternal iodine deficiency. The lack of iodine interferes with the development of the thyroid gland.

In adults the condition is known as _______. Autoimmune destruction of thyroid: Hashimoto thyroiditis Iodine deficiency Drugs Treatment for hyperthyroidism

A

myxedema

63
Q

In which type of hypothyroidism the thyroid gland is abnormal.

A

primary

64
Q

In which type of hypothyroidism does the pituitary gland does not produce sufficient TSH?

A

secondary

65
Q

What is autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland known as?

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

66
Q

_______ results from excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH). (Four glands located near the thyroid gland)

A

Hyperparathyroidism

67
Q

_____ plays a role in calcium and phosphorus metabolism.

A

PTH

68
Q

_____ PTH is characterized by elevated blood levels of calcium, low blood levels of phosphorus and abnormal bone metabolism.

A

Primary

69
Q

_______: Elevated blood levels of calcium _______: Low levels of blood phosphorus

A

Hypercalcemia; Hypophosphatemia

70
Q

_______ hyper-PTH is characterized by an overproduction of PTH caused by decreased levels of serum calcium with chronic renal disease or failure.

A

Secondary

71
Q

_____ may be the result of hyperplasia of parathyroid glands, a benign tumor of one or more parathyroid glands, or a malignant parathyroid tumor. PTH maintains/increases the uptake of dietary calcium from the GI tract and is able to move ____ from bone to circulating blood when necessary.

A

Hyper-PTH; calcium

72
Q

One term used to describe hyper-PTH is “stones.” this is because kidney stones are associated with primary hyper-PTH due to elevated ______.

A

serum calcium levels.

73
Q

A radiographic change that occurs in secondary hyper-PTH is generalized _____ appearance of trabeculae and loss of the lamina dura.

A

ground glass

74
Q

The chief oral manifestation of hyper-PTH is the appearance of _______ unilocular or multilocular radiolucencies. Loosening of teeth can occur.

A

well-defined

75
Q
  1. Excess production by the anterior pituitary gland is termed
    a. hyperparathyroidism.
    b. hyperthyroidism.
    c. hyperpituitarism.
    d. hyperglycemia.
A

c. hyperpituitarism.

76
Q

The most common cause of hyperpituitarism is

a. hepatomegaly.
b. hypercalcemia.
c. pituitary adenoma.
d. hyperglycemia.

A

c. pituitary adenoma.

77
Q

Characteristics of acromegaly include

a. an increase in growth hormone production before the closure of long bones.
b. a rapid and dramatic onset.
c. thinned lips and microglossia.
d. enlargement of the maxilla and mandible, resulting in separation of the teeth and malocclusion.

A

d. enlargement of the maxilla and mandible, resulting in separation of the teeth and malocclusion.

78
Q

The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is

a. hyperplasia of the gland.
b. benign and malignant tumors of the gland.
c. pituitary gland disease.
d. an autoimmune disorder.

A

d. an autoimmune disorder.

79
Q

Which clinical feature is associated with hyperthyroidism?

a. Gigantism
b. Exophthalmos
c. Myxedema
d. Hypercalcemia

A

b. Exophthalmos

80
Q

An enlarged tongue is associated with

a. hyperpituitarism.
b. hyperthyroidism.
c. hypothyroidism.
d. hyperparathyroidism.

A

c. hypothyroidism.

81
Q

Which statement is characteristic of hyperparathyroidism?

a. It is characterized by low blood levels of calcium.
b. It is characterized by high levels of blood phosphorus.
c. Primary hyperparathyroidism occurs when calcium is abnormally excreted by the kidneys and the parathyroid glands increase their production of parathyroid hormone to maintain adequate blood levels of calcium.
d. Kidney failure is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism.

A

d. Kidney failure is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism.

82
Q

Hyperparathyroidism may result in bone lesions that appear microscopically to be indistinguishable from a(n)

a. osteogenic sarcoma.
b. osteoma.
c. cemento-osseous dysplasia.
d. central giant cell granuloma.

A

d. central giant cell granuloma.

83
Q

Insulin is manufactured by

a. fatty tissue in long bones.
b. beta cells of the pancreas.
c. the liver.
d. the gallbladder.

A

b. beta cells of the pancreas.

84
Q

Which statement about type 1 diabetes is true?

a. It is called non-insulin–dependent diabetes mellitus.
b. About 30% of all patients with diabetes have type 1 diabetes.
c. The onset of this type of diabetes is gradual and usually occurs in patients who are 35 to 40 years of age or older.
d. It can be complicated by polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia.

A

d. It can be complicated by polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia.

85
Q

Advantages of an insulin pump for therapy of type 1 diabetes include

a. blood sugar levels no longer need to be monitored.
b. the pump is internal.
c. the pump can maintain a more predictable control of blood sugar levels than multiple insulin injections.
d. the insulin dosage with the pump is limited to once-a-day dosing.

A

c. the pump can maintain a more predictable control of blood sugar levels than multiple insulin injections.

86
Q

The most common cause of death among patients with diabetes is

a. stroke.
b. gangrene.
c. heart attack.
d. kidney failure.

A

c. heart attack.

87
Q

Which statement is true concerning oral complications for adult patients with diabetes mellitus?

a. Patients with diabetes mellitus have a decreased response to plaque.
b. Slow wound healing and decreased susceptibility to infection occur as a result of the immunologic changes and defective collagen production.
c. The gingiva can be hyperplastic and erythematous.
d. Periodontal disease is not considered to be a complication of diabetes.

A

c. The gingiva can be hyperplastic and erythematous.

88
Q

Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by

a. beta cells of the pancreas.
b. parietal cells of the stomach.
c. the gallbladder.
d. the adrenal glands.

A

b. parietal cells of the stomach.

89
Q

A megaloblastic anemia is characterized by red blood cells that are

a. hypochromic and macrocytic.
b. hyperchromic and macrocytic.
c. microcytic and have nuclei.
d. macrocytic and have nuclei.

A

d. macrocytic and have nuclei.

90
Q

Thalassemia is

a. caused by an abnormal type of hemoglobin in red blood cells.
b. a disorder of hemoglobin synthesis.
c. caused by a severe depression of bone marrow activity.
d. caused by an increase in the number of circulating red blood cells.

A

b. a disorder of hemoglobin synthesis.

91
Q

Mediterranean or Cooley anemia

a. is caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12.
b. has a sex-linked inheritance pattern and occurs predominantly in males.
c. is called thalassemia major in the homozygous form.
d. is caused by a dietary deficiency of folic acid.

A

c. is called thalassemia major in the homozygous form.

92
Q

A “salt and pepper” effect may be noted on intraoral radiographic images of a patient with which type of anemia?

a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Thalassemia
d. Pernicious anemia

A

c. Thalassemia

93
Q

Because of an abnormal type of hemoglobin in the red blood cells of a patient with sickle cell anemia, the cells develop a sickle shape in the presence of

a. low blood sugar.
b. decreased oxygen.
c. wheat gluten.
d. increased carbon dioxide.

A

b. decreased oxygen.

94
Q

A “hair-on-end” pattern may be noted on skull radiographic images of a patient with

a. polycythemia.
b. aplastic anemia.
c. sickle cell anemia.
d. thalassemia.

A

c. sickle cell anemia.

95
Q

Which disorder of red blood cells and hemoglobin is associated with sensitivity to dietary gluten found in wheat and wheat products?

a. Aplastic anemia
b. Polycythemia vera
c. Secondary polycythemia
d. Celiac sprue

A

d. Celiac sprue

96
Q

Which statement about primary aplastic anemia is true?

a. It is caused by a virus.
b. The bone marrow failure is the result of a drug or chemical agent.
c. It is associated with chemotherapy, radioactive isotopes, radium, or radiant energy.
d. The cause is unknown.

A

d. The cause is unknown.

97
Q

Polycythemia vera is caused by

a. a neoplastic proliferation of bone marrow stem cells.
b. a physiologic response to decreased oxygen.
c. decreased plasma volume.
d. smoking.

A

a. a neoplastic proliferation of bone marrow stem cells.

98
Q

Which statement concerning polycythemia vera is true?

a. It may be caused by living at high altitudes or by an elevation in carbon monoxide.
b. Causes include use of diuretics, vomiting, diarrhea, and excessive sweating.
c. It occurs primarily in children.
d. The cause is unknown.

A

d. The cause is unknown.

99
Q

Leukopenia most commonly involves

a. neutrophils.
b. basophils.
c. eosinophils.
d. monocytes.

A

a. neutrophils.

100
Q

Which statement is true concerning acute lymphoblastic leukemia versus acute myeloblastic leukemia?

a. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia primarily affects children and young adults and has a poor prognosis.
b. Acute myeloblastic leukemia primarily affects children and young adults and has a poor prognosis.
c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia primarily affects children and young adults and has a good prognosis.
d. Acute myeloblastic leukemia primarily affects children and young adults and has a good prognosis.

A

c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia primarily affects children and young adults and has a good prognosis.

101
Q

The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with _____________________ leukemia.

a. acute lymphoblastic
b. acute nonlymphoblastic
c. chronic lymphoblastic
d. chronic granulocytic

A

d. chronic granulocytic

102
Q

The normal laboratory value for prothrombin time is

a. 1 to 3 seconds.
b. 11 to 16 seconds.
c. 25 to 40 seconds.
d. 1 to 6 minutes.

A

b. 11 to 16 seconds.

103
Q

The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is an expression of the ratio of prothrombin time to

a. fibrinogen.
b. thromboplastin activity.
c. proaccelerin.
d. proconvertin.

A

b. thromboplastin activity.

104
Q

Thrombocytopenic purpura results from a

a. defect in the capillary walls.
b. disorder of platelet function.
c. severe reduction in circulating platelets.
d. reduction in white blood cells.

A

c. severe reduction in circulating platelets.

105
Q

Which drug may be taken during the course of radiation treatment to reduce the severity of radiation-induced xerostomia?

a. Prednisone
b. Pilocarpine hydrochloride
c. Aspirin
d. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

A

b. Pilocarpine hydrochloride

106
Q

Osteonecrosis of the maxilla and mandible is a complication associated with what type of drug?

a. Phenytoin
b. Nifedipine
c. Bisphosphonate
d. Cyclosporine

A

c. Bisphosphonate

107
Q

Bisphosphonate therapy is used to treat all diseases except one. Which is the exception?

a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Osteoporosis
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Metastatic breast cancer

A

a. Hyperparathyroidism

108
Q

Which medication can decrease the severity of radiation-induced xerostomia in patients with oral cancer?

a. Bisphosphonates
b. Cyclosporine
c. Indomethacin
d. Pilocarpine hydrochloride

A

d. Pilocarpine hydrochloride

109
Q

Type A hemophilia is less common than type B hemophilia. Type A hemophilia is caused by a deficiency of the clotting factor called plasma thromboplastinogen or factor VIII.

a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true; the second is false.
d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

A

d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

110
Q

A reddish-blue or purple discoloration of the skin or mucosa that results from spontaneous extravasation of blood and is caused by an increase in capillary fragility or a deficiency in blood platelets is termed

a. hemophilia.
b. Bruton disease.
c. purpura.
d. pernicious anemia.

A

c. purpura.

111
Q

A malignant neoplasm of the hematopoietic stem cells and characterized by an excessive number of abnormal white blood cells is termed

a. leukemia.
b. hemophilia.
c. thrombocytopenic purpura.
d. DiGeorge syndrome.

A

d. DiGeorge syndrome.

112
Q

Which is not a chronic disorder associated with sensitivity to dietary gluten?

a. Celiac disease
b. Gluten-sensitive enteropathy
c. Celiac sprue
d. Sickle cell trait

A

d. Sickle cell trait

113
Q

In aplastic anemia, patients experience a dramatic decrease in all the circulating blood cells because of a severe depression of bone marrow activity.

a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

A

a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.

114
Q

The recommended treatment for folic acid and vitamin B12 deficiency anemias is

a. surgery.
b. dietary supplements.
c. medications.
d. radiation therapy.

A

b. dietary supplements.

115
Q

All statements are true regarding type 2 diabetes mellitus except one. Which is the exception?

a. It is non-insulin–dependent.
b. The majority of patients are diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.
c. Contributing factors include a decrease in metabolic rate and weight gain.
d. Complications include polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia.

A

d. Complications include polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia.

116
Q

Which vitamin is needed for deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis and, when lacking, affects the development of rapidly dividing cells in bone marrow and epithelium?

a. Thiamin
b. Vitamin B12
c. Riboflavin
d. Vitamin C

A

b. Vitamin B12

117
Q

Elevated blood levels of calcium, low levels of blood phosphorus, and abnormal bone metabolism are characteristic of which endocrine disorder?

a. Hyperpituitarism
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hyperparathyroidism

A

d. Hyperparathyroidism

118
Q

Which type of hyperparathyroidism is the result of an overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to long-term decreased levels of serum calcium often associated with chronic renal disease?

a. Primary hyperparathyroidism
b. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
c. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
d. Familial hyperparathyroidism

A

b. Secondary hyperparathyroidism

119
Q

Myxedema is caused by _____________ of the ____________ gland.

a. hypersecretion; thyroid
b. hyposecretion; thyroid
c. hypersecretion; adrenal
d. hyposecretion; adrenal

A

b. hyposecretion; thyroid

120
Q

Diabetes is characterized by abnormally high blood _________ levels.

a. phosphorus
b. calcium
c. glucose
d. neutrophil

A

c. glucose

121
Q

______________ is characterized by insufficient production of adrenal steroids.

a. Addison disease
b. Addison syndrome
c. Cushing disease
d. Cushing syndrome

A

a. Addison disease

122
Q

The production of adrenal steroids is normally stimulated by release of ___________ hormone from the pituitary gland. a. follicle-stimulating

b. luteinizing
c. adrenocorticotropic
d. growth

A

c. adrenocorticotropic

123
Q

Plummer–Vinson syndrome can develop as a result of long-standing __________ anemia.

a. pernicious
b. iron-deficiency
c. thalassemia
d. aplastic

A

b. iron-deficiency

124
Q

Iron deficiency anemia may first result in loss of __________ papillae on the dorsum of the tongue because these papillae have the highest metabolic requirement.

a. filiform
b. fungiform
c. circumvallate
d. foliate

A

a. filiform

125
Q

The red blood cells appear __________ and __________ in cases of iron deficiency anemia.

a. microcytic; hypochromic
b. microcytic; hyperchromic
c. macrocytic; hypochromic
d. macrocytic; hyperchromic

A

a. microcytic; hypochromic

126
Q

The Schilling test detects an inability to absorb an oral dose of vitamin _____.

a. B6
b. B12
c. C
d. E

A

b. B12

127
Q

A platelet count of less than ________/mm3 is considered thrombocytopenia.

a. 20,000
b. 100,000
c. 150,000
d. 400,000

A

b. 100,000

128
Q

___________________ is an autosomal-dominant inherited disorder of platelet function.

a. Bruton disease
b. von Willebrand disease
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Hemophilia

A

b. von Willebrand disease

129
Q

Type A hemophilia is caused by a deficiency of factor _____.

a. VII
b. VIII
c. IX
d. X

A

b. VIII

130
Q

Which term describes an opposite condition to anemia?

a. Polycythemia
b. Arthralgia
c. Hemolysis
d. Neutropenia

A

a. Polycythemia

131
Q

Which condition necessitates emergency intervention?

a. Hemostasis
b. Ketoacidosis
c. Insulin shock
d. Myalgia

A

c. Insulin shock

132
Q

All terms describe a decrease in circulating red or white blood cells except one. Which is the exception?

a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Anemia
c. Hypochromic
d. Neutropenia

A

c. Hypochromic

133
Q

Which system consists of a group of integrated glands and cells that secrete hormones?

a. Endocrine
b. Viral
c. Neoplastic
d. Immune

A

a. Endocrine

134
Q

All are clinical features of gigantism except one. Which is the exception?

a. Headache
b. Chronic fatigue
c. Extreme height
d. Gastrointestinal issues

A

d. Gastrointestinal issues

135
Q

Persons with acromegaly may experience an enlargement of the maxillary sinuses that may lead to what condition?

a. Deeper voice
b. Nasal septum deformities
c. Perforation of the oral mucosa
d. Maxillary molars requiring endodontic treatment

A

a. Deeper voice

136
Q

Children affected with hyperthyroidism may demonstrate which characteristic?

a. Lack of energy
b. Fatigue
c. Hyperactivity
d. Dry skin

A

c. Hyperactivity

137
Q

Which condition may cause children to demonstrate premature exfoliation of the primary dentition as well as premature eruption of the permanent teeth?

a. Diabetes
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hyperparathyroidism

A

b. Hyperthyroidism

138
Q

In infants, facial and oral changes in hypothyroidism include these characteristics except one. Which is the exception?

a. Thickened lips
b. Delayed eruption of teeth
c. Macroglossia
d. Exophthalmos

A

d. Exophthalmos

139
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism occurs when calcium is abnormally excreted by the liver. The most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism is liver failure.

a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

A

b. Both statements are false.

140
Q

Oral manifestations of a person with Addison disease include which finding?

a. Intraoral melanotic macules
b. Gingival hyperplasia
c. Tooth mobility
d. Macroglossia

A

a. Intraoral melanotic macules

141
Q

Identify a common nutritional deficiency associated with anemia:

a. Calcium
b. Phosphorus
c. Iron
d. Vitamin D

A

c. Iron

142
Q

Skin and mucosal pallor, angular cheilitis, and loss of filiform and fungiform papilla on the tongue are characteristics of what condition?

a. Type 1 diabetes
b. Cretinism
c. Graves’ disease
d. Anemia

A

d. Anemia

143
Q

Physical characteristics of a person with type 1 diabetes include all except one. Which is the exception?

a. Peak age of 50 years
b. Thin body build
c. Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia
d. Abrupt onset

A

a. Peak age of 50 years

144
Q

When a patient is taking long-term antibiotic therapy, what is a common oral manifestation that may be seen?

a. Risk of candidiasis
b. Xerostomia
c. Tooth discoloration
d. Gingival enlargement

A

a. Risk of candidiasis

Oral Pathology (14 decks)

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