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Imaging And Radiology > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common disc protrusion sites?

A

T12-T13, T13-L1, C2-C3, C3-C4

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2
Q

Why is anesthesia recommended for spinal radiographs?

A

Prevents narrowing of the disc space with muscle spasms

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3
Q

In spinal radiographs, high ___ and low ___ create better contrast

A

high kVp, low mAs

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4
Q

Use of a ____ increases contrast for spinal radiographs

A

Grid

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5
Q

When positioning for a spinal radiograph, the vertebral column must always be _____ with the table top

A

parallel

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6
Q

When positioning for spinal radiographs, the disc spaces must be _____ with the table top

A

perpendicular

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7
Q

Common views for spinal radiographs

A

lateral and VD

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8
Q

Use of smaller cassettes and multiple views for spinal radiographs allow for what?

A

Perpendicular view of the disc spaces

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9
Q

Why are DV spinal views not as accurate?

A

Not parallel

Object-film distance distortion

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10
Q

How many views may be required for a full spinal study on a dog vs a cat?

A

Dog - 4-5 views

Cat - 1-2 views

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11
Q

What is the vertebral formula?

A

C7 T13 L7 S3 Cd20+ (tail)

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12
Q

Vertebral bone with no spinous process and two large lateral wings, articulate via synovial joints allowing greater movement

A

Atlas (C1)

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13
Q

Vertebral bone with large “blad-like” spinous process, peglike dense at cranial aspect forming atlantoaxial joint. No intervertebral disc between C1 and C2, articulates caudally with C3 via intervertebral disc

A

Axis (C2)

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14
Q

Vertebral bone with large transverse process (ventral lamina)

A

C6

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15
Q

What species has 18 pairs of ribs? (One breed does not)

A

Horses

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16
Q

Species with thoracic vertebrae that have tall spinous processes, large articular facets that form joints with the heads of the ribs

A

Dogs

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17
Q

In what species are rib heads cranial to respective vertebral body?

A

Cat

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18
Q

Where would you find the narrowest intervertebral disc space in a dog?

A

Between T10-T11

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19
Q

Which vertebra is the Anticlinal vertebra?

A

T11

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20
Q

What species have 4 fused vertebrae making up the sacrum?

A

pigs and sheep

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21
Q

What species have 5 fused vertebrae making up the sacrum?

A

Horses, cattle, goats and humans

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22
Q

Where should the beam be centered for a lateral view of the cervical spine?

A

C4

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23
Q

Where should the measurement be taken for a lateral view of the cervical spine?

A

C6

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24
Q

What should be included in the field of view for cervical spine XRays?

A

Base of skull to first few thoracic vertebrae

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25
Q

How should the patient be positioned for a flexed cervical spine radiograph?

A

Lateral recumbency with legs pulled caudally

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26
Q

Where should the beam be centered for a lateral thoracic spinal radiograph?

A

T7

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27
Q

How should limbs be positioned for a thoracic spine lateral view?

A

Moderately extended in opposite directions

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28
Q

What is the field of view for a thoracic spine lateral radiograph?

A

Last cervial to first lumbar vertebrae (shoulder joint to past the origin of the last rib)

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29
Q

Where should the beam be centered for a VD view of the thoracic spine?

A

Over caudal border of the scapula (T6)

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30
Q

How should the patient be positioned for a VD thoracic spine view?

A

Dorsal recumbency with legs pulled cranially

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31
Q

In a VD view of the thoracic spine how should the sternum be positioned?

A

Superimposed over the spine

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32
Q

What is the field of view for a lateral view of the lumbar spine?

A

T12 to the sacrum and include entire lumbar spine

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33
Q

What view visualizes the “nike swoosh”?

A

Lumbar spine - Transver spine superimposed at the origins

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34
Q

What is the field of view for lateral lumbosacral vertebrae?

A

L6 and entire pelvis

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35
Q

How should the patient be positioned for a VD view of the sacrum?

A

Dorsal recumbency with legs in normal position

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36
Q

How should the tube head be angled for a VD view of the sacrum?

A

30 degrees

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37
Q

What is the field of view for a VD view of the sacrum?

A

L6 and entire pelvis

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38
Q

How should the patient be positioned for a caudal spine radiograph?

A

Lateral recumbency with limbs in a natural position, tail extended caudally

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39
Q

What is the field of view for a caudal spine radiograph?

A

4-5 vertebrae on either side of area of interest or full tail

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40
Q

How should the cassette be placed for a caudal spine view?

A

Raise cassette with a foam pad to keep on same plane as the tail

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41
Q

What is measured if sinus cavities need to be radiographed?

A

Measure just rostral to the thickest part of the cranium to avoid overexposure

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42
Q

What are the views for a routine skull or survey study?

A

Lateral (affected side down), DV, or VD

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43
Q

Where is the measurement for a lateral skull view?

A

Over high point of zygomatic arch

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44
Q

Where is the beam centered for a DV view of the skull?

A

Lateral canthus of the eye

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45
Q

Where is the measurement taken for a DV view of the skull?

A

Over high point of the cranium

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46
Q

How should the patient be positioned for a DV view of the skull?

A

Sternal recumbency with head resting on cassette, sand bag on neck and front limbs relaxed or pulled caudally

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47
Q

What is the field of view for a DV view of the skull?

A

Include top of nose to base of skull

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48
Q

How should the patient be positioned for a VD view of the skull?

A

Dorsal recumbency, legs pulled caudally, sand bags on either side of the neck, nose parallel with cassette

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49
Q

Where should the beam be centered for a VD view of the skull?

A

Lateral canthus of the eye

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50
Q

Where should the measurement for a VD view of the skull be taken?

A

Lateral canthus of the eye

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51
Q

Where should the beam be centered for a rostrocaudal closed mouth view of the frontal sinuses (90 degree)

A

Through center of frontal sinuses and between the eyes

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52
Q

How should the patient be positioned for a rostrocaudal closed mouth view of frontal sinuses?

A

Dorsal recumbency with neck flexed, nose pointing upwards, legs pulled caudally alongside body

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53
Q

Where should the beam be centered for a rostrocaudal closed mouth view of the cranium (rostral 30 degree DCdVO)

A

Mid point between the eyes

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54
Q

Where is the measurement taken for a rostrocaudal closed mouth view of the cranium?

A

Area of frontal sinuses

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55
Q

How should the patient be positioned for a rostrocaudal closed mouth view of the cranium?

A

Dorsal recumbency with neck flexed, more flexion than frontal sinus view

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56
Q

What is the patient positioning for VD open mouth view of the nasal cavity?

A

Dorsal recumbency with maxilla taped to table, pull mandible open with tie or mouth wedge

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57
Q

Where should the beam be centered for VD open mouth view of nasal cavity?

A

Through the third upper premolar

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58
Q

What is measured for a VD open mouth view of the nasal cavity?

A

Upper jaw over the upper third premolar

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59
Q

How should the tube head be angled for a VD open mouth view of nasal cavity?

A

20-30 degrees rostrocaudally

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60
Q

What is the field of view for a VD open mouth view of nasal cavity?

A

entire maxilla to pharynx

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61
Q

What is the patient positioning for a tympanic bullae (rostral 10-30 VCdDO) Rostrocaudal open mouth view?

A

Dorsal recumbency with the neck flexed, nose pointed upward, legs pulled caudally. Pull maxilla cranially 10 degrees and mandible caudally 10 degrees

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62
Q

Where should the beam be centered for a rostrocaudal open mouth view of tympanic bullae?

A

Base of neck to commissure of lips

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63
Q

What is the field of view for a rostrocaudal open mouth view of tympanic bullae?

A

Entire pharyngeal region with bullae isolated

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64
Q

What is patient positioning for lateral oblique view of tympanic bullae?

A

Lateral recumbency with good side down, limbs pulled caudally, head rolled into natural position for oblique

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65
Q

What view is good for TMJ?

A

Lateral oblique view of tympanic bullae

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66
Q

What is patient positioning for VD oblique view of TMJ?

A

Lateral recumbency with affected side down, head rotated at 20 degrees with wedge, mouth may be open or closed

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67
Q

Soft tissues are difficult to identify on plain films due to lack of contrast. How can we better view these tissues?

A

Using contrast medium or performing ultrasound

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68
Q

What are two benefits of survey films?

A

Help determine proper exposure and eliminate need for contrast

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69
Q

What agents are used for positive contrast?

A

Barium or Iodine

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70
Q

Positive contrasts have ____ atomic numbers than tissue and bone

A

Higher

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71
Q

What contrast can safely be administered into a blood vessel?

A

Iodine

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72
Q

How should kVp be increased with positive contrast?

A

6-8 kVp

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73
Q

What agents are used for negative contrast?

A

Gasses with low specific gravity

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74
Q

Barium causes _____ when left free in abdominal cavity

A

Peritonitis

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75
Q

Why are iodine compounds not used in GI studies?

A

They aren’t thick enough to coat mucosa of the intestines

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76
Q

What is used in GI situations when perforations are suspected?

A

Iodine preparations

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77
Q

The higher the iodine concentration the more _______

A

contrast

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78
Q

Contrast preparation that is completely insolube therefore not diluted with alimentary secretions

A

Barium

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79
Q

What are BIPS?

A

Barium impregnated polyurethane spheres

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80
Q

Positive contrast agent that remains in spherical form, designed for transit time

A

BIPS

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81
Q

What is best used for negative contrast agents and why?

A

CO2 because it is rapidly absorbed

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82
Q

In a double contrast study which contrast should be administered first?

A

Negative contrast, to avoid air bubbles that mimic lesions

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83
Q

If necessary, what drug should be used to tranquilize patients in contrast studies?

A

Acepromazine

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84
Q

What drugs should be avoided when doing contrast studies?

A

Parasympathetic/anticholinergics

ie. Atropine and glycopyrolate

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85
Q

What circumstances contraindicate the use of contrast studies?

A

Fluid filled distended stomach or esophagus

Ruptured bowel

Dysphagic patients

Megaesophagus

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86
Q

Why are dysphagic patients or megaesophagus contraindicated for contrast studies?

A

Risk of aspiration

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87
Q

What is the ideal method for determining megaesophagus?

A

Esophagraphy

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88
Q

When is esophography indicated?

A

History of regurgitation or dysphagia

89
Q

What is the technique used for esophagraphy?

A

Lateral recumbency, take survey radiographs, slowly administer product orally

90
Q

What should the view of an esophograph be from?

A

From the pharynx to the stomach, multiple views during and after swallowing

91
Q

What view should be taken first for an esophograph?

A

Lateral, and then ventral (never dorsal)

92
Q

How should barium be given for an esophograph?

A

Give barium while laying down

93
Q

What does a gastrophy evaluate?

A

Size, shape, position, function, and morphology of the stomach only

94
Q

What is a gastrophy used for?

A

Vomiting, blood in vomit, anterior abdominal pain

95
Q

For an upper GI study, fast the animal for _____ or ____ hours if for a small intestine

A

12 - 24 hours

96
Q

What contrast is used for gastrophies?

97
Q

What are the steps to completely evacuating large bowel?

A

Low residue food for 48 hours

Fast 24 hours prior

Pull water 4 hours prior

Enema until clear

98
Q

Negative LGI contrast studies diagnose what?

A

Intussusceptions in puppoes

99
Q

What is used to evaluate renal structure, function and to visualize renal collection system?

A

Excretory urography

100
Q

Excretory urography involved the IV injection of what?

A

A water soluble iodinated contrast agent

101
Q

Diffuse opacification of the renal parenchyma as the contrast agent perfuses the renal vasculature

A

Nephrogram phase

102
Q

What phase of urography demonstrates the presence of functional renal function

A

Nephrogram phase

103
Q

In what urograph phase does the contrast agent filter into the renal collection system?

A

Pyelogram phase

104
Q

What is the test dose for an excretory urography?

105
Q

What is the dose of contrast for an excretory urography?

A

300-400 mg/ml

Dose 3 ml/kg rapid infusion for 1-3 minutes

106
Q

Hematuria, Dysuria, pyuria, straining of urination and frequency of urination are indications for what?

A

Excretory Urography

107
Q

When doing a cystography, which contrast should NEVER be used?

108
Q

Fatal rare embolism with negative contrast is a complication associated with what?

A

Cystography

109
Q

What uses negative or positive retrograde or antegrade contrast to detect urethral trauma, tears, tumors or obstructions?

A

Urethrography

110
Q

What study consists of a positive contrast in a joint space?

A

Arthrography

111
Q

What study consists of a positive contrast injected into blood vessels?

A

Angiography

112
Q

Contrast given orally or IV that is concentrated in the bile and visualized in the gall bladder and biliary system

A

Cholecystography

113
Q

CT and MRI are replacing what technique?

A

Myelography

114
Q

Positive contrast injected into the subarachnoid space of the spine to highlight spinal cord lesions and prolapsed discs?

A

Myelography

115
Q

What is the kVp preset for dentistry?

116
Q

What is the mA preset for dentistry?

117
Q

What dental film size is used for individual teeth?

118
Q

What dental film size is used to show teeth alignment or dental architecture?

119
Q

What is the purpose of the foil on the back of the dental film?

A

Absorbs radiation

120
Q

For small chairside darkroom dip tanks, developer for ___ seconds, ___ minutes for fixing, and ___ minutes rinsing

A

30 seconds, 1.5 minutes, 3 minutes

121
Q

How many views are required for large animal skeletal radiographs?

A

4, or 6 for joints

122
Q

What is the portable max mA and max kVp for large animals?

A

ma- 20 kVp-90

123
Q

What is the max mA and kVp for mobile units in large animal?

A

mA 100-300

kVp- 120

124
Q

What xray unit for large animals has shorter exposure times and more power?

A

Mobile unit

125
Q

What features make birds more radiolucent?

A

Thin cortices and tubular bones

126
Q

What are the three types of restraints used for avians and exotics?

A

Chemical, manual, physical

127
Q

What is restrained first for a bird?

A

Head and torso

128
Q

What is restrained last for birds?

129
Q

What is the average transit time for barium in a bird?

A

30-240 minutes

130
Q

What species has the quickest transit time?

A

Small psittacines

131
Q

What animals MUST be anesthetized?

A

Rabbits and guinea pigs

132
Q

This effect is “all or nothing”, increasing the dose will increase the possibility of effect but not the intensity, No threshold dose.

A

Stochastic

133
Q

Radiation effect that has a predetermined threshold dose, immediate to time-delayed effects

A

Nonstochastic

134
Q

What symptoms are associated with nonstochastic effects?

A

cataracts, cancer, hemopoietic, GI, CNS

135
Q

What radiation interaction affects DNA?

A

Direct interaction

136
Q

Which radiation interaction affecst the cell’s ability to reproduce?

A

Indirect interaction

137
Q

Transfer of incorrect genetic code to one of the daughter cells

A

Critical consequence

138
Q

Ionization of water causes an effect on what?

A

Critical target

139
Q

Free radical formation of ____ and ____ _____ is a major factor of damage to the cell

A

hydroperoxyl and hydrogen peroxide

140
Q

What is the ALARA principle?

A

As Low As Reasonably Achieveable

141
Q

What does LET stand for?

A

Linear Energy Transfer

142
Q

A measure of the rate at which energy is transferred from ionizing radiation into soft tissue

143
Q

The higher the LET the ______ the amount of energy transferred to soft tissue per interaction

144
Q

Low kVp imparts higher amounts of _____

145
Q

What is responsible for the energy imparted to the photons?

146
Q

Alpha and Beta particles have ___ LET with ___ penetrability

147
Q

X and gamma radiation have ____ LET and ____ penetrability

148
Q

X and Gamma radiation have high ability to travel through matter while producing ____ effect on tissues they pass through

149
Q

The intensity of the radiation is inversely related to what?

A

The square of the distance

150
Q

The ____ provides source for electrons and directs these electrons towards ____

A

Cathode, Anode

151
Q

The ____ the atomic number, the more electrons are available for excitation

152
Q

Amount of electrical energy being applied to the filamet; describes number of X-Rays produced during exposure.

A

mA (milliamperage)

153
Q

Acceleration is controlled by _____

154
Q

______ acts as a heat conductor and draws heat away from ______ target

A

Copper, tungsten

155
Q

Which type of anode is found in dental and small portable units?

A

Stationary Anode

156
Q

Large amounts of heat is a limitation of which anode?

A

Stationary

157
Q

If target is damaged, may cause radiation to scatter in undesirable locations, this will cause _____ than expected xrays

158
Q

Rotating Anodes rotate through the ____ of the tube

159
Q

Rotation provides a _____ surface for the electron stream

160
Q

Rotating anodes help distribute _____ over a larger area

161
Q

_____ anode may have small focal spot but still withstand a great amount of heat

162
Q

More x-rays leave tube on ____ side

163
Q

What can prevent anode target failure?

A

high kVps and low mA

164
Q

What is kVp?

A

peak of energy which determines quality of xray beam

165
Q

What is it called when metal deposits form on inner lining of glass due to overheating?

166
Q

What is the process of changing alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC)?

A

Rectification

167
Q

What dictates the maximum combinations of kVp and mA without overloading the tube?

A

X-Ray tube rating

168
Q

What are the four factors determining tube rating?

A

Focal spot size, Target angle, Anode speed, electrical current

169
Q

If the film is too dark the mA’s must be reduced to ____

170
Q

What is the first adjustment to contemplate if technique needs adjusted?

171
Q

If the image is too dark and the kV is between 50 and 90, reduce kV by ____

172
Q

Blur also affects resolution by projecting the anatomic structures ____ from the focal plane

173
Q

The structures ____ and ____ a predefined level in the body are blurred so that the level of interest, the focal plane, can be visualized

A

above and below

174
Q

When is distortion used effectively?

A

In dental imaging, oblique views and to locate foreign bodies

175
Q

When is distortion unacceptable?

A

Stuctures to be measured for orthopoedic surgery, cardiac cases when heart-lung ratios must be measured, central ray positioned incorrectly

176
Q

What is the magnification formula?

A

MF=SID/SOD

177
Q

What does SID and SOD stand for?

A

Source Imaging Distance

Source Object Distance

178
Q

When is the magnification formula useful?

A

Bladder stones, kidney stones, heart-lung ratios

179
Q

Illuminators must be clean and have a ___/___ light

A

blue/white

180
Q

80% of artifacts are caused by what?

A

Processing

181
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Cervical Spine Lateral view

182
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Cervical spine hyperextended

183
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Cervical spine flexed lateral view

184
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Cervical Vertebrate VD

185
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Thoracic spine Lateral view

186
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Thoracic spine VD

187
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Thoracolumbar spine Lateral view

188
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Thoracolumbar spine VD view

189
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Lumbar spine lateral view

190
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Sacrum VD view

191
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

DV Skull view

192
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

VD view of skull

193
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Front sinuses (90 degrees) Rostrocaudal closed mouth

194
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Nasal Cavity VD open mouth view

195
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Tympanic bullae rostrocaudal open mouth view

196
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Tympanic bullae oblique lateral

197
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

TMJ VD oblique view

198
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

PennHIP distraction

199
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

PennHIP Compression

200
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

PennHIP Extended

201
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Scapula Craniocaudal view

202
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Shoulder caudocranial view

203
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Humerus lateral view

204
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Humerus caudocranial view

205
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Humerus craniocaudal view

206
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Elbow craniocaudal view

207
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Elbow lateral view

208
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Radius and ulna lateral view

209
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Craniolateral view of radius and ulna

210
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Carpus dorsopalmar view

211
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Metacarpals and phalanges dorsopalmar view

212
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Femur lateral view

213
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Femur craniocaudal view

214
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Stifle joint caudocranial view

215
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Stifle joint lateral view

216
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Tibia and Fibula lateral view

217
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Tibia and fibula caudocranial view

218
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Tarsus (hock) lateral view

219
Q

What view is represented in this image?

A

Tarsus (hock) plantarodorsal

Imaging And Radiology (11 decks)

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