Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

What controls the BSG?

A

BCU

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2
Q

What is the purpose of the VIGVs?

A
  • Maintain efficiency of the compressor by…
  • controlling the amount of air entering the compressor
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3
Q

The pilot has APU written on the PFD, what does this mean?

A
  • The #1 Engine is acting as an APU
  • Has the Eng1 Drive selected to ACC
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4
Q

The pilot sees a blinking 2.5m on the PFD, what else appears?

A

[1(2) ENG LIM EXPIRE]

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5
Q

What is the purpose of the Crank?

A

Spring loaded switch which cranks the selected engine without ignition
- Maintenance
- Prime engine fuel system
- To cool engine post exhaust fire

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6
Q

What is on the triple tacho?

A
  • NF1
  • NR
  • NF2
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7
Q

What are the 3 parameters of the PI?

A

Composite of the three primary engine parameters:
- Ng
- ITT
- Tq

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8
Q

What engines are fitted?

A

PW 210-A

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9
Q

How does the aircraft monitor the performance of the Fuel filter?

A

Px difference measured and displayed in the cockpit

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10
Q

How does fuel arrive at the FCU?

A

Via suction of the engine driven LP fuel pumps

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11
Q

What is the purpose of the Fuel Oil Heat Exchanger (FOHE)?

A
  • Pre-heats fuel
  • Prevents ice forming in the fuel filter
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12
Q

When are the IGNITERS de energised?

A

50% Ng

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13
Q

MTOW?

A

4600kg

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14
Q

What alert on the CAS do you get with a Baggage Bay fire?

A
  • [BAG FIRE]
  • “WARNING, WARNING”
    Not spoken warning
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15
Q

What fire indication, if any is on the Fire Detection/Extinguishing control panel?

A

FIRE illuminated on the relevant button

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16
Q

What is fitted so that content of either bottle can be discharged into either engine?

A

Double Check Tee Valve

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17
Q

What does ONLY VENT provide in the EDCU ESC page?

A

Enables control of the ventilation fan speeds only, with no heating control available

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18
Q

What happens to the ECS bleed valves with loss of power?

A

They close

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19
Q

What happens if you select the EMER LTS push button on the CLCP?

A

All internal and external lights ON.
- 2 internal
- 2 externals
(Powered by the EPSU)

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20
Q

What do the storm lights provide?

A
  • 2 white, non-dimmable LED lights
  • Non-NVG compatible
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21
Q

How is fuel spillage prevented during an aircraft rollover?

A

Snorkels

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22
Q

How much flight time do you have when the fuel is below the interconnect
(in the collector cells)

A

-160Kg
-50mins

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23
Q

In order to activate the Fuel SOV in the EDCU what condition must the engine be in?

A

OFF

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24
Q

What does the advisory [ENG 1(2) FIRE ARMED] mean in the EDCU Fuel SOV page?

A

Fuel SOV has been commanded to activate when the FIRE ARMED is active.

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25
Q

Min speed to activate NAV

A

40kts

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26
Q

How is NLOC achieved?

A
  • FMS 1/2 selected as primary Nav source on PFD
  • Then APP is selected on the ACP
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27
Q

Below what height does V/S disengage in a descent?

A

200ft

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28
Q

Where do the AFCS Modes appear?

A

AFCS Annunciations are presented above the PFI

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29
Q

What is the authority of the MRA SCAS Actuator?

A

+/- 10%

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30
Q

Under what height will the ALTA not work and will go to RHT?

A

200ft
(300ft in ECL)

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31
Q

With the AFCS off, the pilot presses the WLVL button - what happens?
How is it disengaged?

A

+6&deg nose up
0&deg roll
Followed by ALT
Disengaged by pressing ATT button and then selecting another mode

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32
Q

Where can you find the AP OFF button

A

Cyclic

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33
Q

How can you adjust and select ALTA?

A
  • Set by rotating ALTA knob
  • press to engage
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34
Q

How many switches??????

A

4

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35
Q

When is “DECISION HEIGHT” annunciation and aural warning inhibited?

A

During takeoff until RALT is greater than DH +10’

36
Q

Which system is the ADF associated with?

A

NAV2

37
Q

How long does the SVS take to initialise?

A

180 seconds

38
Q

How do you test the RADALT?

A
  1. Press RA TEST button on the DH knob
  2. TEST will annunciate vertically beside the RALT tape for 15s
  3. Will show 50’/50’ & vertical tape 50ft to show PASS.
39
Q

How do you interface with the HTAWS?

A

Virtual Control Panel

40
Q

What does a hollow pitch ref bug mean?

A

It’s changing

41
Q

What is the minimum height of man-made objects in the SVS?

A

> 50ft

42
Q

How do you set the Heading to Tru/Mag?

A

EDCU settings

43
Q

You suffer a TR actuator failure what happens top the SCAS?

A

It will become non-functioning

44
Q

What level does the TRSOV close in Hyd 1?

A

55%

45
Q

What happens to the power during the ignition phase of starting?

A

Ignition Exciter converts low voltage to high voltage (3000V) sparks to ignite fuel/air mix in the combustion chamber

46
Q

How do you change the squelch?

A

Squelch toggle on EDCU VHF Page

47
Q

The basic communication system comprises?
(2)

A
  • ICS
  • 2 x VHF Radios
48
Q

What temp triggers an overheat in the VHF?

A

160°C

49
Q

Where are the VHF antennae located?

A
  1. Upper
  2. Lower
50
Q

Under what circumstance cause a EMERGENCY MODE in the ACP be activated?

A

When the AMU detects loss of communication with one of the two pilot ACPs

51
Q

During total loss of AMMS (double AMMC) failure how can you guarantee use of the radio?

A

Selecting RADIO BACKUP on the EDCU
Operates via the ARINC 429

52
Q

What are the elastomeric made from?

A

laminate of metallic and elastomeric shims vulcanised together

53
Q

What is the purpose of the tension links

A

Torsional Toads

54
Q

Where can the wipers be activated?

A
  • Modes self via EDCU
  • Wipers activated by cyclic WIPER button
55
Q

How can you control the pitot heat?

A

EDCU

56
Q

Where is the EMER bus bar located?

A

Behind the EMER CB panel

57
Q

What takes the ESS bus bar loads during engine start?

A

AUX BATTERY

58
Q

How is gas vented from the batteries?

A

Battery case incorporates vent ports for tubing to route gasses overboard

59
Q

How can the virtual circuit breakers be controlled?

A

EDCU

60
Q

Where is the EXT PWR recipticle located?

A

Aft of right sponson

61
Q

Where are the BSG’s located?

A

On the ERG of the engine
(Engine reduction gearbox)

62
Q

What is the interface between the SSEPMs and the pilot?
(Solid State Electrical Power Management System)

A

EDCU

63
Q

When do you get [ROTOR HIGH] warning?

A

Where the permitted rotor speed is exceeded by 2%

64
Q

How many oil pumps fitted on the MGB?

A

2

65
Q

How many times can you activate the chip burner?

A

3 times

66
Q

What section 6 of the RFM?

A

Weight & Balance

67
Q

What is section 4 of the RFM?

A

Performance Data

68
Q

When will you get “AIRSPEED AIRSPEED”?

A
  • VNE exceedance
69
Q

What is the aircrew interface with the DTD?

A

Via the DTD function keys

70
Q

What colour does the EDCU when it is working on something (like testing)?

A

Cyan

71
Q

What are the priorities of the CAS?

A
  • WARNINGS
  • CAUTIONS
  • ADVISORIES
  • STATUS MESSAGES
72
Q

Where are the DCPs located?

A

Between the PFDs and MFDs

73
Q

What is the purpose of the CCJs?

A

Allows manipulation of the MFD without the pilot removing his hands from the controls

74
Q

Something about warnings, cautions

A

5 seconds

75
Q

What colour is the alert on the EDCU?

A

Red alert triangle with MSG below

76
Q

What are the W&B charts in Section 6 of the RFM?

A

A - Equipment list
B - Helicopter Weighing Record
C - Basic Weight & Balance Record
D - Data for helicopter Weight & Balance computation
E - Weight & Balance computation

77
Q

How long will the ULB last for?

A

30 days

78
Q

Where is the ADALT located?

A

Baggage compartment

79
Q

What is contained within the ADALT Configuration Unit?

A

Aircraft Identification

80
Q

What does the Tail Rotor do?

A
  • Provide anti-torque
  • Yaw control
  • Balanced flight in the cruise
81
Q

How can VDAM data be taken?

A

DTD

82
Q

Where is the brake fluid reservoir?

A

Nose

83
Q

How many brakes are there and where are they located?

A

2
MLG

84
Q

Where is the aircraft weight sensor?

A

One on each L/G
Nose & Main

85
Q

What conditions have to be satisfied in order to retract the gear?

A
  • Nose wheel Locked
  • Nose wheel centred
  • WOW not active