Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Newborns lose how much of their body weight by 3 to 4 days of age

A

10%

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2
Q

What his birth weight of a baby done by six months of age

A

By five months of age, we is at least doubled and tripled by age of 12 months

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3
Q

When does the posterior fontanelle close?

A

2 to 3 months of age

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4
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle close?

A

12 to 18 months of age

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5
Q

What is the gross motor skill of a six month year-old?

A

Rules from back to front

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6
Q

What is the gross motor skills of an eight month year-old?

A

Sits unsupported

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7
Q

What’s the gross motor skills of a nine month year-old?

A

Post a standing position, creeps on hands and knees

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8
Q

What’s the gross motor skills with an 11 month year-old?

A

Cruises or works for holding onto something

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9
Q

What’s the gross motor skill of a 12 month

A

Walks with one hand held

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10
Q

What’s the fine motor skill of an eight month year-old?

A

Begins using pincer grasp

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11
Q

What’s the fine motor skill of a nine month year-old

A

Has crude, pincer grasp

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12
Q

What’s the fine motor skills of an 11 month?

A

Places objects into a container

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13
Q

When can a baby turn off page in a book?

A

12 months

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14
Q

When can a baby hold their bottle?

A

Six months

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15
Q

What is head circumference a General indicator of

A

Brain growth

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16
Q

What is Piaget’s cognitive development for an infant to one year?

A

Sensorimotor stage -
Object permanence

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17
Q

What is Ericksons stage for a infant to one year?

A

Trust versus mistrust

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18
Q

What are age-appropriate toys for an infant

A

Infants play in solitary play
Rattles
Soft stuff, toys
Nesting toys
Teething toys
Play Patty cake
Playing with balls
Reading books
Mirrors
Brightly colored toys
Playing with blocks

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19
Q

How long does breast-feeding provide a complete diet for infants?

A

Six months

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20
Q

What is not recommended in the nutrition aspect of a newborn?

A

Cows, milk

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21
Q

What are the supplements that are recommended for an infant?

A

Vitamin D
Iron supplements

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22
Q

When are solid foods introduced?

A

Six months

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23
Q

How should a new foods be introduced?

A

One of the time over at 5 to 7 day.

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24
Q

How often should a newborn sleep?

A

14 to 15 hours a day
9 to 11 hours at night

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25
Q

A nurse is assessing a 12 month year old infant during a well child visit which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
Closed anterior fontanelle
Eruption of 6 teeth
Birthweight double
Birth length increased by 50%

A

Birthweight doubled

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26
Q

A nurse is performing a developmental screening on a 10 month year, old infant, which of the following fine motor skills to the nurse, expect the infant to perform (select)
Grasp a rattle by the handle
Try building a to block tower
Use accrued, princer grasp
Place objects into a container
Walks with one hand held

A

Grasp a rattle by the handle
Use a crude pincer grasp

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27
Q

A nurse is providing education about introducing new foods to the guardians of four month old infant. The nurse should recommend that the caregiver introduce which of the following foods first.
Strain yellow vegetables
Iron fortified cereals
Puréed fruit
Whole milk

A

Iron fortified cereals

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28
Q

A nurse is providing teaching about dental care in teething to a caregiver of a nine month year, old infant, which of the following statements by the caregiver, indicates an understanding of the teaching
I can give my baby, a warm teething ring to relieve discomfort
I should clean my babies teeth with a cool wet washcloth
I can give Advil for up to five days with my baby is teething
I should play Saluda juice on the bottle my baby drinks while falling asleep

A

I should clean my babies teeth with a cool wet washcloth

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29
Q

What are some injury prevention of infants?

A

Aspiration
Bodily harm
Burns
Drowning
Falls
Poison
Motor vehicle accident
Suffocation in crib

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30
Q

How many pounds a year does a toddler grow?

A

4-6 pounds

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31
Q

When should the head circumference in chest circumference be equal?

A

Buy one to two years of age

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32
Q

What is the language development of a toddler?

A

Increases to between 50 to 300 words by age to

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33
Q

When a toddler is one year old, what do they say?

A

One word phrases

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34
Q

When a toddler is two years old, what did they say?

A

2 to 3 word sentences

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35
Q

When a child is three years old, what did they say?

A

Several words to create simple sentences with some grammatical structure

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36
Q

What is Ericksons psychosocial development of a toddler?

A

Autonomy versus shame and doubt

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37
Q

What is an important psychosocial development of autonomy versus shame and doubt in a toddler

A

Toddlers often use negativism
Ritualism and maintaining routines is important to them
Independence becomes very important

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38
Q

When can a child walk without help

A

15 months of age

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39
Q

When does an infant start to throw a ball jumping place with both feet and pull and push toys

A

18 months

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40
Q

The nurse is assessing a 2 1/2 year-old toddler at a well child visit which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
Hi, increased by 3 inches in the past year
Head circumference, exceeds chest circumference
Anterior and posterior fontanelle’s are closed
Current weight equals four times the birth weight

A

Head circumference, exceeds chest circumference

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41
Q

A nurse is performing a developmental screening on an 18 month old, which of the following skills with a toddler be able to perform select
Build a tower with six blocks
Throw a ball overhand
Walk up and down the stairs
Stand on 1 foot for a few seconds
Use a spoon without rotation

A

Throw a ball overhand
Use a spoon without rotation

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42
Q

A nurse is providing teaching about age appropriate activities to the guardian of a two year-old, which of the following statements with the guardian, indicates an understanding of the teaching
I will send my child’s favorite stuffed animal when napping away from home will occur
My child should be able to stand on 1 foot for a second
The soccer team my child will be playing on start practicing next week
I should expect my child to be able to draw circles

A

I will send my child’s favorite stuffed animal when napping away from home will occur

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43
Q

Nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the caregiver of a toddler which of the following should the nurse include select
Develop food habits that will prevent dental cavities
Meeting caloric needs results in increasing appetit
Expression of bedtime fears is common
Expect behaviors associated with negativism and ritualism
Annual screenings for phenyl ketonuria are important

A

Develop food habits that will prevent dental cavities
Expression of bedtime fears is common
Expect behaviors associated with negativism and ritualism

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44
Q

What is Piaget is cognitive development of a 3 to 6 year old preschooler

A

Pre-operational phase
Preconceptual, thoughts, transition to intuitive thoughts

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45
Q

What kind of thinking does a 3 to 6 year old child have

A

Magical, thinking, and an amazing centration in the development of time

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46
Q

What is magical thinking in a 3 to 6 year old

A

Thoughts are all powerful and can cause a Events to occur

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47
Q

What is animism in a 3 to 6

A

Ascribing life like qualities to inanimate object

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48
Q

When do children begin to understand the sequence of daily events

A

3 to 6 years old

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49
Q

When does a child begin to ride a tricycle?
Jump off the bottom step
In stand on 1 foot for a few seconds

A

Three years

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50
Q

Preschoolers weigh how much each year

A

4.5 to 6.5 pounds per year.

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51
Q

In a preschooler, what is their language levels?

A

2100 words by the end of the fifth year

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52
Q

When do children become very talkative?

A

3 to 6 years

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53
Q

What is psychosocial development Ericksons of a 3 to 6 year old

A

Initiative vs guilt 

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54
Q

When can guilt occur in a preschool?

A

When they believe they have missed behaved, or when they are unable to accomplish a task

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55
Q

What are some age appropriate activities for 3 to 6 year old?

A

Playing ball
Putting puzzles together
Riding a tricycle
Playing pretend with dress up activities
Painting
Hand puppets
Wading pools
Musical toys
Electronic games

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56
Q

What’s the nutrition like of a 3 to 6 year old?

A

Very picky eaters require 1000 201,400 kcal or is per day

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57
Q

What are the Pro Tien requirements of a 3 to 6 year old?

A

13 to 19 g per day saturated fat should be less than 10%

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58
Q

What kind of played as a preschooler have?

A

Parallel play

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59
Q

How much sleep does a preschooler have

A

12 hours a day

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60
Q

A nurse is providing teaching to a guardian of a preschool age child about methods to promote sleep, which of the following statements by the parent, indicates an understanding of the teaching
I will sleep in the bed with my child if she wakes up during the night
I will let my child stay up an additional two hours on the weekend nights
I will let my child watch television for 30 minutes just before bedtime each night
I will keep a dim lamp on my child’s room during the night

A

I will keep a dim lamp on in my child’s room during the night

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61
Q

A nurse is preparing an education program for a group of caregivers of preschool age children about promoting optimum nutrition, which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching
Saturated fat should equal 20% of total daily caloric intake
Average calorie intake should be 1800 cal per day
Daily intake of fruits and vegetables should be totals two servings
Healthy diet include a total of 8 g protein each day

A

Average calorie intake should be 1800 cal per day

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62
Q

A nurse is performing a developmental screening on a three-year-old child which of the following skills. Should the nurse expect the child to perform.
Ride a tricycle
Hop on 1 foot
Jump rope
Throw a ball overhead

A

Ride a tricycle

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63
Q

A nurse is caring for preschool age child who expresses the need to leave because they’re dollars scared to be home alone which of the following characteristics of preoperational thought is the child exhibiting
Egocentrism
Centration
Animism
Magical, thinking

A

Animism

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64
Q

What is Piaget cognitive development of a 6 to 12 year old school age child

A

Concrete operations
Transition from perceptual to conceptual thinking

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65
Q

What are some skills that are cognitive for school age child 6 to 12 years

A

Learn to tell time
Can see perspective of others
Can solve problems 

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66
Q

What does Ericksons psychosocial development of a 6 to 12 year old school age child

A

Industry versus inferiority

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67
Q

Age appropriate activities for a 6-9year-old

A

Play simple board, and number games
Jump rope
Collect rocks cards, coin, stuffed animals
Ride bicycles
Build simple models
Join organized sports

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68
Q

What are age appropriate activities for 12 year old?

A

Make crafts
Build models
Solve jigsaw puzzles

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69
Q

What is a big health screening in a 6 to 12 year old school age child

A

Scoliosis

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70
Q

The nurse is discussing prepubescent in preadolescence with a group of guardians of the school age children which of the following information should the nurse include in the discussion

Initial physiological changes appear during early childhood
Changes in height and weight occur slowly during this period
Growth differences between boys and girls become evident
Sexual maturation becomes highly visible and boys

A

Growth differences between boys and girls become evident

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71
Q

A nurse is providing education about age appropriate activities for a caregiver for six year old child which of the following activities should the nurse include in the teaching
Jumping rope
Playing card games
Solving jigsaw puzzles
Joining competitive sports

A

Jumping rope

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72
Q

A nurse is teaching a course about safety during the school age which of the following information should the nurse include in the course select

Getting stairs at the top and bottom
Wearing helmet when riding bicycles are skateboarding
Writing safety in a bit of pick up trucks
Implementing firearm safety
Wearing seatbelts

A

Wearing helmet when riding bicycles are skateboarding
Implementing firearm safety
Wearing seatbelts

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73
Q

When is the final 20 to 25% of height achieve

A

Between 12 to 20 years of age

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74
Q

What is the cognitive PJs development of a 12 to 20 year old?

A

Formal operations
Able to think through many variables, think beyond current circumstances

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75
Q

What is the psychosocial Ericksons development of a 12 to 20 year old?

A

Identity versus role confusion
Group identity becomes part of peer group 

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76
Q

Age appropriate activities for adolescence

A

Non-violent video games
Nonviolent music
Sports
Caring for pets
Reading
Social interaction

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77
Q

Injury prevention in adolescence

A

Bodily harm; firearm, safety, sporting equipment, safety, mental health monitoring
Motor vehicle accidents : drivers Ed course no cell phones while driving
Dangers of controlled substance, marijuana, vaping

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78
Q

The nurse is providing teaching about expected changes during puberty do a group of guardians in early adolescent girls, which of the following statements by one of the guardians indicates an understanding of the teaching
Girls usually stop growing about two years after menarche
Girls are expected to gain about 65 pounds during puberty
Girls experience menstruation prior to breast development
Girls typically grow more than 10 inches during puberty

A

Girls usually stop growing about two years after menarche

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79
Q

A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to caregiver for 13 year-old adolescence, which of the following screening should the nurse recommend to the adolescence select
BMI
Blood lead level
24. Dietary recall
Weight
Scoliosis

A

BMI
Weight
Scoliosis

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80
Q

A nurse is caring for an adolescent to Guardian expresses concerns about the child, sleeping such long hours, which of the following condition to the nurse inform the guardian is requesting additional sleep during adolescence
Sleep terrors
Rapid growth
Elevated zinc levels
Slowed metabolism

A

Rapid growth

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81
Q

A nurse is teaching a class about puberty in boys, which of the following should the nurse include as a first manifestation of sexual maturation
Pubic hair growth
Vocal changes
Testicular enlargement
Facial hair growth

A

Testicular enlargement

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82
Q

A nurse is assessing a two month year-old infant, which of the following reflexes should be present select
Sucking and rooting reflexes
Palmar grasp
Moro reflex
Tonic neck reflex

A

Sucking and rooting reflex is
Palmar grasp
Moro reflex
Tonic neck reflux

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83
Q

The nurse is checking the vital signs of a 12 month child during a well check up fidget which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider select all
Temperature of 38.1
Pulse rate of 148
Respiratory rate of 26
Blood pressure 85/50

A

Temp of, 38.1.

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84
Q

A nurse is providing education on introducing new foods to parents of a four month old infant, which foods would not be appropriate
Strained orange vegetables
Iron fortified cereals
Puréed fruit
Skim milk

A

Strained orange vegetables
Puréed fruits
Skim milk

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85
Q

A nurse is assessing an 18 month old child at a well child visit which of the following findings are concerning
Hi increased by 1 inch this year
Head circumference in chess circumference are equal
Anterior and posterior fontanelle’s are closed
Current weight is double birthweight

A

Hi increased by 1 inch this year
Current weight is double birthweight

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86
Q

A nurse is performing a developmental screening on a three year old child, which of the following skills with the nurse, not expect the child to be able to perform
Ride a tricycle
Hop on 1 foot
Jump rope
Throw a ball over hand

A

Hop on 1 foot
Jump rope
Throwable overhand

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87
Q

A nurse is providing education and age appropriate activities for a six year old child, which would not be included
Jumping rope
Playing card games
Solving jigsaw puzzles
Joining competitive sports

A

Playing card games
Solving jigsaw puzzles
Joining competitive sports

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88
Q

Parents know an adolescent sleeping more which of the following responses is the best response for the nurse caring for this patient
Adolescence, time to get up earlier in the morning and sleep later in the day
Sleep, habits can change with puberty due to decreasing metabolism and growth requirements
Due to increase metabolism and growth requirements, adolescence may require more sleep than school age children
Adolescence, Cannfunction well generally with 6 to 8 hours a day of sleep

A

Due to increase metabolism and growth requirements, adolescence may require more sleep than school age children

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89
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges, connective, tissue and cover of the brain and spinal cord

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90
Q

What are risk factors for meningitis?

A

Bacterial: not fully immunized by HIBin pneumococcal vaccine
Viral : injuries that provide direct access to CSF

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91
Q

What are some expected findings of meningitis?

A

Photophobia
Vomiting
Irritability
Headache

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92
Q

What are signs of meningitis in a newborn?

A

Poor muscle tone
Weak cry
Poor suck
Poor PO
Refuses to feed, vomiting or diarrhea
No nuchal rigidity
Bulging fontanelle is a late sign

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93
Q

What are signs of meningitis in a three months to three-year-old

A

Seizures with high-pitched cry
Fever with irritability
Bulging fontanelles
Possible nuchal rigidity
Poor feeding
Vomiting
Grudzinski’s in Kernig’s sign is not reliable

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94
Q

What are signs and symptoms of meningitis in two years old to adolescence?

A

Seizures
Nuchal rigidity
Postive Brudzinski sign
Postive Kernig’s sign
Fever, chills
Headache
Vomiting
Irritability
Petechiae

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95
Q

What is Brudzinski sign?

A

Flexion of extremities occurring with deliver it flexion of the child neck

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96
Q

What is Kernig’s sign

A

Resistance extension of the child leg in a flex position

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97
Q

What are some laboratory test for meningitis?

A

CSF analysis

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98
Q

What does a bacterial CSF look like?

A

Cloudy with elevated white blood cells are elevated protein and decrease glucose
Postive Gram stain

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99
Q

What does viral CSF meningitis fluid look like

A

Yeah, normal or slightly elevated protein normal glucose negative gram stain

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100
Q

What is the diagnostic procedure for meningitis?

A

Lumbar puncture
Remain in bed for that position to prevent leakage

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101
Q

What are some complications of
Meningitis

A

Increased intracranial pressure
Newborn infants will have bulging fontanelles, increase head, circumference, high-pitched cry, distended, scout fans, irritability

Children will have irritability, headache, nausea, vomiting, diplopia

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102
Q

What does reyes syndrome

A

Primarily affects the liver and brain causes liver dysfunction and cerebral edema

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103
Q

What are risk factors for getting reyes syndrome?

A

Associating with using aspirin, a salicylate
Typically follows, viral illness, like influenza

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104
Q

Expected findings of Reyes syndrome

A

Lethargic
Irritability
Combativene
Confusion
Delirium
Profuse, vomiting
LOC

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105
Q

Laboratory tests and diagnostic procedures of Reyes syndrome

A

Liver enzymes
Blood ammonia
Blood electrolyte
Coagulation times
Liver biopsy
CSF analysis

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106
Q

Nurse reviewing CSF results which our findings that should help diagnosis viral meningitis
Negative Gram stain
Normal gluclouse content
Cloudy color
Decreased WBC count
Normal protein, Content

A

Negative Gram stain,
normal glucose content
, normal protein, Contin

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107
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has suspected meningitis and decreased level of consciousness, which of the following action should the nurse take
Play the client on NPO status
Prepare the client for liver biopsy
Position the client dorsal recumbent
Put the client in a protective environment

A

Play the client an NPO status

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108
Q

A nurse is assessing a four month old infant who has meningitis which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect
Depressed anterior fontanelle
Constipation
Presence of rooting reflex
High-pitched cry

A

High-pitched cry

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109
Q

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has Ray syndrome, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a risk factor for Reye’s syndrome
Recent history of infectious cystitis caused by Canada
Recent history of bacterial Ottis media
Recent episode of gastroenteritis
Recent episode of haemophilus influenza meningitis

A

Recent episode of gastroenteritis

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110
Q

The nurse is developing an educational program, but viral and bacterial meningitis. The nurse should include the introduction of which of the following immunization decrease the incidence of bacterial meningitis in children
Inactivated polo virus
Pneumococcal conjugate virus
DTaP
HIB vaccine
TIV vaccin

A

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
Hib vaccine

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111
Q

Why is iron deficiency anemia?

A

Most prevalent anemia, worldwide

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112
Q

What put you at risk for iron deficiency anemia?

A

Risk due to poor diet, rapid growth, menses, strenuous activities, and obesity
Premature birth
Excessive intake of cows milk

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113
Q

Respecters for iron deficiency, anemia in infants

A

Gerd and pyloric stenosis

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114
Q

Expected findings in iron deficiency anemia

A

Tachycardia
Pallor
Brittle fingernails
Fatigue, irritability, muscle weakness
Pica

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115
Q

What is the treatment for iron deficient anemia?

A

Iron supplements, one hour before or two hours after milk
Administer on empty stomach
Give with vitamin C to increase absorption
You straw to protect teeth
Use the track method for deep muscle injections. Do not massage.

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116
Q

Client education for iron deficiency, anemia

A

Stools will turn tarry green color
Brush teeth after oral dose

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117
Q

What is sickle cell anemia?

A

Autosomal recessive genetic disorder?

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118
Q

What is a risk factor for getting sickle cell anemia?

A

African-American
Children who have treat do not manifest disease we can pass treat to offspring 

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119
Q

Expected findings of sickle cell anemia

A

Family history of sickle cell
Reports of pain
SOB
Pallor
Jaundice
Hands and feet cool to touch

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120
Q

What is an acute vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia?

A

Related to dehydration and decreased oxygen

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121
Q

What are findings in a cute vaso-occlusive crisis

A

Severe pain
Swollen, joints, hands, and feet
Hematuria
Vision disturbances

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122
Q

What are some findings in chronic vaso-occlusive crisis

A

Increased risk of respiratory infection
Retinal detachment in blindness
Systolic murmur
Renal failure
Liver cirrhosis
Seizure
Skeletal deformities

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123
Q

What is sequestration

A

Excessive pooling of blood primarily in the spleen
Reduces circulating blood volume results in hypovolemic shock
EMERGENCY

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124
Q

What is an aplastic crisis?

A

Extreme anemia, as a result of temporary, decreased red blood cell production

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125
Q

What is hyper hemolytic crisis?

A

Increase rate of red blood cells, destruction, leading to anemia, jaundice reticulocytosis

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126
Q

What does management for sickle cell anemia?

A

Promote rest to decreasing oxygen consumption
 administer oxygen, if needed
Provide IV fluids
Monitor, I know
Prevent infection
Pain management
Transfusion

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127
Q

What are some complications of sickle cell anemia?

A

Stroke
Acute chest syndrome
Infection
Kidney failure

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128
Q

What is a cute chest syndrome and sickle cell anemia?

A

A complication that can be life-threatening, increased risk for pneumonia, due to decreased oxygen to long tissues

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129
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

Group of bleeding disorder is characterized by difficulty controlling, bleeding deficiencies in clotting factors

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130
Q


Expected findings for hemophilia

A

Active bleeding
Pain
Stiffness
Impaired mobility
Bruising
Hematoma

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131
Q

Complications of hemophilia

A

Uncontrolled bleeding
Joint deformity

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132
Q

Nurse is preparing to administer iron. I am to school age child with iron deficiency anemia, which of the following actions is not appropriate.
Administer the dose in the deltoid muscle
Use the Z track method when administering
Avoid injecting more than 2 mL with each dose
Massage the injection site for one minute after administering the dose

A

Administer the dose in the deltoid muscle
Avoid injecting more than 2 mL with each dose
Massage the injection site for one minute after administering the dose

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133
Q

What is impetigo

A

Bacterial infection:
Dry secretions forming honey colored crust
Direct contact

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134
Q

What is pyoderma

A

Bacterial infection:
Systemic effects of a deep skin infection

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135
Q

What is folliculitis

A

Bacterial infection (pimple)

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136
Q

What is furuncle

A

A bacterial infection:
A boil

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137
Q

What is carbuncle

A

Bacterial
Multiple boils

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138
Q

What is tinea cruris

A

Jock itch
Fungal

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139
Q

What is tinea corpora’s

A

Ring worm of the body

140
Q

A nurse is assessing an infant who has scabies which of the following findings. Should the nurse expect sleect
Presence of nits on the hair shaft
Pencil like marks on the hands
Blisters on the soles of the feet
Small red bumps on the scalp
Pimples on the trunk

A

Pencil like marks on the hands
Blisters on the soles of feet
pimples on the trunk

141
Q

When is his teachings of the parents about preventing insect bites? Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching select?
We’re perfumes went outside
Avoid areas of tallgrass
Wear bright color clothing
Where insect repellent
Check the house pets frequently 

A

Avoid areas of tall glass
Where insect repellent
Check how Scott’s frequently

142
Q

A nurse is planning care for a child who is tinea capitis which of the following action should the nurse include in the plan of care select
Treat, infected house, pets
Use selenium sulfide shampoo
Cleanse area with Ferro solution
Administer antiviral med
Use moist, warm compress

A

Treat, infected, have pets
You selenium sulfide shampoo

143
Q

Play roll infections are coming and what type of group

A

Toddlers and preschoolers

144
Q

Why do children become easily obstructed with mucus or edema?

A

They have a short, narrow airway

145
Q

What does a short respiratory track allow for in children?

A

Infections to travel quickly to the lower airways in middle ear

146
Q

What is nasopharyngitis?

A

The common cold

147
Q

What are findings in nasopharyngitis the common cold

A

Nasal information, rancheria, nasal passages, fever, decreased appetite, restlessness

148
Q

What are some nursing care of nasopharyngitis the common cold?

A

Rest
Antipyretic
Cool mist vaporizer
Decongestants only older than six years of age
Antibiotics are not indicated

149
Q

What is acute streptococcal pharyngitis

A

Group a beta hemolytic streptococcus infection of the upper airway
(Strep throat)

150
Q

Findings in acute streptococcal pharyngitis

A

Abruptly instead of sore throat, headache, and abdominal pain
Councils in Paris in the retina and have some exudate or Petechia

151
Q

What is the nursing care for acute streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

Po amoxicillin (erythromycin)
Must be on anabiotic for 24 hour and must complete anabiotic

152
Q

Lab test for a cute streptococcal pharyngitis

A

Throat, culture or rapid antigen test

153
Q

What is bronchiolitis

A

Caused by RSV
Effects bronchi and bronchioles

154
Q

Initial findings of bronchiolitis

A

Runny nose in a minute, low-grade fever, coughing, sneezing, wheezing possible eye or ear in infection

155
Q

What are symptoms of bronchiolitis as it progresses?

A

Increase cough, fever, tachpnea and retractions refusal tenders or bottlefeed copious secretions

156
Q

What are symptoms of the severe illness of bronchiolitis?

A

Tachypnea
Apneic spells
Cyanosis
Poor breath sounds

157
Q

Laboratory test for bronchiolitis

A

Nasopharyngeal culture

158
Q

Nursing care for bronchiolitis

A

Supplemental oxygen
Fluid intake if possible
Antipyretics
Sectioning
Encourage breast-feeding

159
Q

What is bacterial epiglottitis?

A

A medical emergency
Usually caused by haemophilus influenza

160
Q

Findings in bacterial epiglottitis

A

Sitting upright, drooling, agitation, mouth and tongue protruding
Muffled voice
Difficulty swallowing
Noisy respirations

161
Q

What is the nursing care for bacterial epiglottitis?

A

Avoid throat culture are using a tongue blade
Prepare for intubation
Provide humidified oxygen
Droplet isolation precautions

162
Q

What is laryngotracheobronchitis

A

Croup

163
Q

What are findings in croup

A

Low-grade fever
Restlessness
Barky cough
Hoarseness
Inspiratory, stridor and retractions

164
Q

What is nursing care for croup

A

Provide humidity with cool mist
Monitor, pulse ox
Administer racemic epi- or oral dexamethasone
Encourage oral intake

165
Q

A nurse is caring for a child who is bronchiolitis which of the following action should the nurse take?
Administer oral prednisone
Initiate chest, percussion, and postural drainage
Administer humidified oxygen
Suction the nasopharynx need us
Administer oral penicillin

A

Administer a humidified oxygen
Suction the nasopharynx as needed

166
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient who is epiglottitis which of the following findings should the nurse expect select
Hoarseness in difficulty speaking
Difficulty swallowing
Low-grade fever
Drooling
Dry barking cough
Stridor

A

Hoarseness us and difficulty speaking
Difficulty swallowing
Drooling
Stridor

167
Q

iMessage taking a group of guardians about influenza which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching
Amantadine will prevent illness
Rimantadine is administered intramuscularly
Zanamirvir can be given to children one year and older
Oseltamivir should be given within 48 hours of onset at manifestation

A

Oseltamivir should be given within 48 hours of onset at manifestation

168
Q

What is heart failure?

A

Occurs when the heart is unable to pump adequate blood to meet the metabolic and physical demands of the body

169
Q

What are your maternal respecters for cardiovascular disorders?

A

Infection, alcohol, and other substance use disorder
Diabetes mellitus

170
Q

What are genetic risk factors of cardio vascular disorders?

A

 History of congenital heart disease
Syndromes (downs)

171
Q

What are the four anatomic defects of the heart that prevent normal blood flow?

A

Increase pulmonary blood flow
Decrees pulmonary blood flow
Obstruction to blood flow
Mixed blood flow

172
Q

What happens in a defect that increases pulmonary blood flow?

A

Blood flow shifts from high-pressure left side of the heart to the right, low pressure side of the heart

173
Q

What are the defects that increase pulmonary blood flow?

A

Ventricular septal defect
Atrial septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus

174
Q

What is ventricular septal defect

A

A hole in the septum between the right, and left ventricle result in increased pulmonary blood flow

175
Q

What is atrial septal defect?

A

Who won the septum between the right, and left atria that result in increased pulmonary blood flow

176
Q

What is patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Normal fetal circulation conduit between the pulmonary artery in your defense to close in results and pulmonary increase of blood flow

177
Q

What are the defects of obstructive?

A

Pulmonary stenos
Aortic stenosis
Coarctation of the aorta

178
Q

What is an obstructive defect of the heart?

A

Blood flow exiting the heart beats the area of nearly stenosis which causes obstruction of blood flow
Pressure before the defect increases in the pressure that occurs after the defect decreases

179
Q

What is coarctation the aorta?

A

Narrowing of the lumen of the aorta near the doctors arteriosus

180
Q

What do you have to look for in coarctation of the aorta

A

Elevated blood pressure in arms
Bounding pulse in upper extremities
Decrease blood pressure and lower extremities
Cool skin of lower extremities
Absent fremoral pulses

181
Q

What are the defects that decrease pulmonary blood flow

A

Tri. Cuspid, Artesia.
Teratology of fallot

182
Q

What happens when you have a defect thag decreases pulmonary blood flow

A

Do you have obstruction of the pulmonary blood flow and an anatomic defect between the right and left sides of the heart

There is a right to left shift, allowing the deoxygenated blood to enter the systemic circulation

183
Q

What symptoms do you look for in a defect that decreases pulmonary blood flow?

A

Cyanosis

184
Q

What defects are in the mix defect of the heart?

A

 Transposition of the great arteries
Truncus arteriosus
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

185
Q

What is transposition of the great arteries?

A

Aorta is connected to, right ventricle instead of left, pulmonary artery is connected to live in trouble

186
Q

What is truncus arteriosus?

A

Failure of septum formation
See a delay in growth

187
Q

What is hypoplastic left heart syndrome

A

Left side of the heart is underdeveloped
You will see cold hands and feet
Three stage surgery to fix

188
Q

What is pulmonary artery hypertension

A

I feel pressure in the arteries of the long is a progressive and eventually fatal disease

NO CURE

189
Q

What are findings with pulmonary artery hypertension

A

Dyspnea with exercise
Chest pain
Syncope

190
Q

What is nursing care for pulmonary artery hypertension

A

Avoid high altitude area
Consider supplemental oxygen
Time your medication schedule

191
Q

What is infective bacterial endocarditis?

A

Infection of the inner lining of the heart involves they can enter bloodstream and kinky caused by organisms like Streptococcus, Canada, and staphylococcus

192
Q

Risk factors for infective endocarditis

A

Congenital required heart disease
Indwelling catheter

193
Q

Expected findings in infective endocarditis

A

Fever, Molise, new murmur, weight loss
Neonate : feeding problems, respiratory distress tachycardia

194
Q

Nursing care for ineffective endocarditis

A

Anabiotic for 2 to 8 weeks
Advise family dentist of cardiac problem
Take prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedure

195
Q

P what is a cardiac catheterization

A

Invasive test used for diagnosing repairing defects in evaluating dysrhythmias
Thread and started to hurt contrast medium is injected images of blood vessels in heart or taken

196
Q

Nursing actions for cardio catheterization

A

If child has severe diaper rash, procedure canceled
Check for allergies to Aidan and shellfish
NPO status
Play straight for 4-8 hours
Watch for bleeding

197
Q

Important information about digoxin

A

If infants pulse is less than 90 medication should be withheld
Monitor for toxicity
Administer digoxin immune fag as an antidote
Take pulse before administering

198
Q

What is rheumatic fever

A

Inflammatory disease that occurs as a reaction to a Group a beta hemolytic streptococcus infection

199
Q

Risk factors for rheumatic fever

A

Usually occurs 2 to 6 weeks following an untreated or partially treated upper respiratory infection

200
Q

Expected findings of rheumatic fever

A

Recent URI
Joint pain
Pink non-paretic macular rash on track

201
Q

Diagnostic test for rheumatic fever

A

Jones criteria

202
Q

Care for rheumatic fever

A

Anabiotic prophylactic
Rest

203
Q

What is Jones criteria?

A

Diagnosis of rheumatic fever should demonstrate presence of two major criteria for the presence of one major in to minor criteria, following acute infection of strip

204
Q

What is a major criteria of Jones criteria? Is

A

Carditis
Subcutaneous nodules
Rash
Corea

205
Q

What is my new criteria for Jones criteria?

A

Fever
Arthralgia

206
Q

What is Kawasaki disease?

A

Acute systemic vascular Titus, resolved in less than two weeks, also known as mucocutaneous lymph nodes in the room

207
Q

What happens in the acute phase of Kawasaki’s disease?

A

Onset of high fever, lasting five days to two weeks that is unresponsive to antibiotics

208
Q

What are some findings of Kawasaki’s disease in the acute phase?

A

Irritability
Red eyes without drainage
Bright red chapped lips
Strawberry tongue with white coating
Swelling of hands, and feet with read palms
Non-blistering rash

209
Q

What is the sub acute phase of Kawasaki’s disease?

A

Resolution of fever and gradual subsiding of other manifestations

210
Q

Findings in the sub, acute phase of Kawasaki’s disease

A

Peeling skin around nails on Pam’s of souls

211
Q

What medicine do you administer if you have Kawasaki’s disease

A

IV. Gamma, globulin.

212
Q

A nurse is assessing an infant Who Has Coarctation the aorta which of the following findings should the nurse expect
Week femoral pulses
Cool skin of lower extremities
severe cyanosis
Clubbing of the fingers
Low blood pressure

A

Week formoral pulses
Cool skin of lower extremities
Low blood pressure

213
Q

A nurse is assessing an infant who has a heart failure which of the following findings should the nurse expect
Bradycardia
Cool extremities
Peripheral edema
Increase urinary output
Nasal flaring

A

Cool extremities
Peripheral edema
Nasal flaring

214
Q

A nurse is providing teaching to a caregiver of an infant who is prescription for digoxin which of the following instruction should the nurse include
Do not offer your baby fluids after giving the medication
Digoxin increases your babies heart rate
Give the correct dose of the medication regularly scheduled times
If your baby vomited, a dose you should repeat the dose to ensure that the correct amount is received

A

If the correct dose of medication at regular schedule times

215
Q

A nurse is caring for two-year-old child who has heart defect in scheduled for cardiac catheterization which of the following action should the nurse take
Place on NPO status for 12 hours prior to procedure
Check for iodine or shellfish, allergies prior to the procedure
Elevate the affected extremity following the procedure
Limit fluid intake, following the procedure 

A

Check for iodine or shellfish allergies prior to the procedure

216
Q

A nurse is caring for a child who is suspected of having rheumatic fever which of the following findings should the nurse expect
Erythema Marginatum
Continuous joint pain of the digits
Tender subcutaneous, nodules
Decreased erythrocyte, sedimentation rate
Elevated C-reactive protein 

A

Erythema marginatum
Elevated c- reactive protein

217
Q

What is asthma?

A

Chronic childhood inflammatory disease of airways that results in intermittent and reversible airflow obstruction of the bronchiolus

218
Q

Risk factors for asthma

A

Family history
Boys
Exposure to smoke
Low birth weight
Being overweight

219
Q

What are some asthma triggers?

A

Allergens
Exercise
Weather
Infection
Animal dander
Medication’s
Emotions
Gerd

220
Q

Expected findings of asthma

A

Chest tightness dyspnea
Cough
Audible, wheezes
Restlessness, irritability, anxiety
Low O2 stat
Tripod, positioning
Retractions

221
Q

What is a short acting antagonist for asthma?

A

Albuterol

222
Q

What is a mast cells stabilizer an asthma?

A

Cromolyn long-term control

223
Q

Nursing priorities for asthma

A

Assess airway in breath sounds
Check ABGs
Optimize, positioning, and ventilation
Nebulizer accessibility 

224
Q

A nurse is assessing a child who has asthma, which of the following indications of deterioration in the child’s respiratory status
Oxygen saturation of 92%
Wheezing
Retractions of sternal muscles
Warm extremities
Nasal flaring

A

Oxygen saturation of 92%
Wheezing
Retractions of sternal muscle
Nasal flaring

225
Q

A nurse is teaching an adolescent about the appropriate use of his asthma medication’s, which of the following medication to the nurse instruct the client to use as needed before exercise
Fluticasone/salmeterol
Montelukadt
Prednisone
Albuterol

A

Albuterol

226
Q

Nurse is planning care for a child with asthma, which of the following intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care
Perform chest percussions
Place a child in an upright position
Monitor oxygen saturation
Administer bronchodilators
Administer Dawson, alpha daily

A

Play the child in an upright position
Monitor, oxygen sat
Administer bronchodilators

227
Q

A nurse is teaching a child who has asthma how do use a peak flow meter which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Zero the meter before each use
Record the average of attempts
Perform three attempts
Deliver a long, slow breaths to the meter
Sit in a chair with the feet on the floor

A

Zero the meter before each use
Perform three attempts

228
Q

A nurse is discussing risk factors for asthma with a group of newly licensed nurse as which of the following condition should the nurse include in the teaching
Family history of asthma
Family history of allergens
Exposure to smoke
Low birth weight
Being underweight

A

Family history of asthma
Family history of allergens
Exposure to smoke
Low birth weight

229
Q

What are risk factors for getting cystic fibrosis?

A

Who is biological parents carry the recessive trait for cystic fibrosis

230
Q

Expected findings in cystic fibrosis

A

Family history
Meconium ileus is the earliest indication of cystic fibrosis in a newborn

231
Q

Expected respiratory findings in cystic fibrosis

A

Increase mucus status
Wheezing and cough
Increase dyspnea
Cyanosis
Barrel shaped chest
Clubbing

232
Q

Expected G.I. findings in cystic fibrosis

A

Large frothy, bulky greasy foul-smelling stools
Failure to thrive
Distended abdomen
Sweat and tears and saliva have high salt content

233
Q

What is a diagnostic test of cystic fibrosis?

A

Sweat chloride test

234
Q

The nurse is reviewing the diagnostic findings for preschool age child who is suspected of having cystic fibrosis which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indicator of cystic fibrosis
Sweat chloride contact 85
Increase blood levels of fat soluble vitamins M 72 hours to analysis sample indicating hard packed stools
Chest x-ray negative for atelectadis

A

Sweat, chloride content 85

235
Q

A nurse is admitting a child who has cystic fibrosis, which of the following medication should the nurse expect to include in the plan of Clare care
Tombramycin
Loperamide
Fat, soluble, vitamins
Albuterol
Dornase, alpha

A

Tombramycin
Fat, soluble, vitamins
Albuterol
Dornase, alpha

236
Q

A nurse is performing an admission assessment for a child who is cystic fibrosis which of the following findings should the nurse expect
Wheezing
Clubbing of fingers and toes
Barrel shaped chest
Thin, watery mucus
Rapid growth spurts

A

Wheezing
Clubbing of the fingers and toes
Barrel shaped chest

237
Q

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a child who is cystic fibrosis which of the following instruction should the nurse include
Provide a low calorie low protein diet
Administer pancreatic enzymes with meals and snacks
Implement a fluid restriction during times of infection
Restrict physical activity

A

Administer pancreatic enzymes with meals and snacks

238
Q

What can diarrhea lead to?

A

Severe dehydration

239
Q

What is acute diarrhea?

A

Set an increasing frequency and changing consistency of stool usually caused by infectious agent, resolves without intervention in less than 14 days

240
Q

What is chronic diarrhea?

A

Set an increase in frequency and change of consistency of store for more than 14 days

241
Q

Expected findings of infectious GI disorders

A

Fatigue
Malaise
Change in behavior
Change in stool pattern
Poor appetite,
Weight loss,
Assess for dehydration, 

242
Q

What are the viral infections of a cute infectious G.I. disorders

A

Route of virus in Norwalk

243
Q

What is enterobius vermicularis infection 

A

Pinworm

244
Q

What do you treat
Pin worm with?

A

Mebendazole
Albendazole
Pyrantel pamote

245
Q

Nursing care for infectious G.I. disorder

A

Teen baseline, height, and weight
Obtain wait at same time twice each day
Avoid taking rectal temp
Monitor INO
IV. Fluid replacement.

246
Q

In what infectious G.I. disorder do you administer antibiotics

A

Cdiff and G lamblia

247
Q

What infectious G.I. disorder do you avoid antibiotics in?

A

E. coli in salmonella

248
Q

Parent education for infectious G.I.

A

Report and inform school
Purchase, oral rehydration solution
Avoid juice
Frequent skin care

249
Q

A nurse is caring for a child who has had a watery diarrhea for the past three days which of the following is an action the nurse to take
Offer chicken broth
Initiate oral rehydration therapy
Start hypertonic IV solution
Keep NPO until diarrhea subsides

A

Initiate oral rehydration therapy

250
Q

A nurse is caring for a child who is suspected to have Enterobius Vermicularis which of the following action, should the nurse take

Perform a tape test
Collect stool specimen for culture
Tess, the stool for oculus blood
Initiate IV fluids

A

Perform a tape test

251
Q

A nurse is assessing a child who has rotavirus, which of the following are expected findings
Fever
Watery stools
Vomiting
Bloody stools
Confusion

A

Fever
Watery stools
Vomiting

252
Q

A nurse is teaching a group of parents about salmonella, which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching
Incubation period is non-specific
It’s a bacterial infection
Bloody diarrhea is common
Transmission can be from house pets
Antibiotics are used for treatment

A

It is a bacterial infection
Bloody diarrhea is common
Transmission can be from a house pet

253
Q

A nurse is teaching a group of caregivers about E. coli which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching
Severe abdominal cramping occurs
Watery diarrhea is present for more than five days
It can lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome
It is foodborne pathogen
Antibiotics are given for treatment

A

Severe abdominal cramping occurs
It can lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome
It is a foodborne pathogen

254
Q

What is Gerd?

A

Gastric contents back up into the Soffa. Guess anything esophageal mucosa vulnerable to injury from gastric acid

255
Q

What are risk factors for Gerd?

A

Prematurity
Neurological impairment
Asthma
C cystic fibrosis
Scoliosis
Cerebral palsy

256
Q

Expected findings in infants with Gerd

A

Spitting up or forceful vomiting
Irritability, crying
Bloody vomit
Failure to thrive
Apnea

257
Q

Expected findings and children with Gerd

A

Heartburn
Abdominal pain
Difficulty swallowing
Chronic cough
Non-cardiac chest pain

258
Q

Gerd nursing care priorities

A

Small, frequent meals
Thickened formula
Avoid food that causes reflux
Position the child with head elevated after meals

259
Q

Complications of Gerd

A

Recurrent pneumonia
Weight loss
Failure to thrive

260
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?

A

Thickening of the pyloric sphincter, which creates an obstruction

261
Q

What are expected findings and pyloric stenosis

A

Vomiting after feeding can occur
Non-bialys vomit
Constant hunger
Failure to gain, weight and signs of dehydration
Olive shaped mass in right upper quadrant

262
Q

Nursing care for pyloric stenosis

A

Prepare for surgery
NPO
IV. Fluids for hydration.
Daily weights

263
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s diseas

A

Congenital a ganglionic Maglia Colin is a structural abnormality of the G.I. track caused by lack of ganglionic selves and segments of the colon

264
Q

Findings of Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Failure to pass meconium
Vomiting bile
Refusal to eat failure to thrive
Abdominal distention vomiting
Palpable fecal mass
Foul smelling ribbon like stools

265
Q

Nursing care for Hirschsprung’s disease 

A

Surgery
High protein, high, calorie low fiber diet prior to surgery
Total peritoneal nutrition
May have colostomy
Monitor bowel sounds

266
Q

What is intussusception?

A

Proximal segment of the bowel telescopes into more just a segment, resulting in lymphatic and Venus obstruction, causing edema in the area

267
Q

Finding an interception

A

Sudden cram the abdominal pains knees to chest
Sausage shaped mass
Vomiting
Fever
Currant, jelly stools

268
Q

Patient care for intussusception

A

IV. Fluids.
NG tube
Air enema
Surgery on standby

269
Q

A nurse is assessing an infant who has hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect
Projectile vomiting
Dry, mucous membranes
Currant, jelly stools
Sausage shaped abdominal mass
Constant hunger

A

Projectile vomiting
Dry, mucous membranes
Constant hunger

270
Q

A nurse is caring for a child who has hirschsprungs disease which of the following action should the nurse take?
Encourage a high fiber, low protein, low calorie diet
Prepare the family for surgery
Place an NG tube for decompressing
Initiate bedrest

A

Prepare the family for surgery

271
Q

A nurse is caring for an infant who just returned from the PACU following a cleft lip and palate repair which of the following action should the nurse take
Remove the packing in the mouth
Place the infant in an upright position
Offer a pacifier with sucrose
Assess the mouth of the tongue bleed

A

Place the infant in an upright position

272
Q

A nurse is teaching a parent of an infant about gastrointestinal reflux disease, which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching
Offer frequent feedings
Thicken formula with rice cereal
Use a bottle with one-way valve
Position baby up right after feeding
Use a wide base nipple for feeding

A

Offer frequent feedings
Thicken formula with rice cereal
Position baby up right after feeding

273
Q

What is enuresis?

A

Inappropriate urination during the day or night at least twice a week for three months

274
Q

Risk factors for enuresis

A

Family history
Males
Emotional events

275
Q

A nurse is teaching a parent with a child who has a urinary tract infection which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching
Wear nylon underpants
Avoid bubble baths
Empty bladder completely with each void
Watch for manifestations of infection
White perineal area from back to front

A

Avoid bubble baths
Empty bladder completely with each void
Watch for manifestations of infection

276
Q

A nurse is planning care for a child who has urinary tract infection, which of the following intervention should the nurse include
Administer in antidiuretic
Restrict fluids
Evaluate the child self-esteem
Encourage frequent voiding

A

Encourage frequent voiding

277
Q

A nurse is caring for a child who is enuresis which of the following is a complication of enuresis
Urinary track infection
Emotional problems
Urosepsis
Progressive kidney disease

A

Emotional problems

278
Q

A nurse is assessing for an infant who has suspected urinary track infection, which of the following are expected findings
Increase in hunger
Irritability
Decreasing urination
Vomiting
Fever

A

Irritability
Vomiting
Fever

279
Q

A nurse is assessing a child who has a urinary track infection which of the following are manifestations of a urinary track infection
Swelling of the face
Night sweats
Pallor
Fatigue
Pearl color urine

A

Swelling of the face
Pallor
Fatigue

280
Q

What is cryptoochidism

A

Undescended testicles in ability to palpate in the scrotum

281
Q

How do you fix cryptocourtesan?

A

Surgically

282
Q

What is testicular torsion?

A

 Testes hangs free from its vascular structure very painful requires immediate surgery

283
Q

What is risk factors for growth, hormone deficiency?

A

Structural factors, heredity other pituitary hormone deficiency is idiopathic

284
Q

What are some findings and growth hormone deficiency

A

Short stature
Delayed growth plate closure
Delayed dentition
Delayed sexual development

285
Q

Treatment of growth hormone deficiency

A

Somatropin

286
Q

A nurse is caring for a child, who is short stature, which of the following diagnosis Tess would be completed to confirm growth hormone deficiency
CT scan of the head
Skeletal x-rays
GH stimulation test
Blood IGF -1
DNA test blood

A

CT scan of the head
Skeletal x-rays
GH stimulation test
Blood IGF -1

287
Q

A nurse is teaching a parent of a child, who has a growth, hormone deficiency of which of the following are complications of untreated, growth, hormone deficiency
Delete sexual development
Premature aging
Advance, bone age
 Short stature
Increase epithelial closure

A

Delayed sexual development
Premature aging
Short stature

288
Q

A parent of a school age child who has GH deficiency ask the nurse how long the child will need to take injections for growth delay which of the following responses should the nurse make
Injections are usually continued until age of 10 for girls and age of 12 for boys
Injections. Continue until your child reaches the 5th percentile on the growth chart.
Injections might be stopped once your child grows less than 1 inch year
The injection will need to be administered throughout your child’s entire life

A

The injections might be stopped once your child grows less than 1 inch per year

289
Q

A nurse is assessing a child, who has a short stature, which of the following findings would indicate a growth hormone deficiency
Proportional height to weight
Hi proportional, greater than weight
Oversize jaw
Early onset of puberty

A

Proportional height to weight

290
Q

What is acute glomerulonephritis

A

Benign inflammation of the glomeruli which cause intravascular coagulation that lats about 1-2 weeks

291
Q

what is acute streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

and antibody antigen disease that occurs as a result of a certain strain of the groiup A beta hemolytic streptoccal infection

292
Q

What age group is acture streptococcal glomerulonephritis common in

A

5-8 year olds

293
Q

what is a risk factor for acute glomerulonephritis

A

acute post-strepococcal glomerulonephritis
recent URI or strep infection

294
Q

hat laboratory test do you complete to see if you have acute glomerulonephritis

A

Throat culture
Urine anaylisis- tea colored urine

295
Q

what are excpected findings of acute glomerulonephritis

A

Cloudy tea colored ureine
decreased urine output
hematuria
proteinuria
irritability
ill appearing
lethargy
anorexia
periorbital edema
generalized facial edema wrose in the mornign
hypertension low grade fever
vomiting

296
Q

Nursing care for acute glomerulonephritis

A

Monitor I an O
Monitor Urine volume and character
dailey weights
monitor VS
encourage adequate nutrition
manage fluid restrictions
activity as tolerated

297
Q

WHat is Nephrotic syndrome

A

Alterations is the glomerulare membrane allow proteins especially albumin to pass into the urine resulting in dec blood osmotic pressure which leads to proteinuria

298
Q

What are nursing priorities for nephrotic syndrome?

A

Provide rest
Maintain strict, I n O
Monitor urine for protein
Monitor, vital signs
Monitor daily Weights
Measure abdominal girth daily
Elevate legs
monitor, nutritional intake

299
Q

What are some medication’s for nephrotic syndrome?

A

Prednisone: avoid large crowds
Furosemide
Plasma, expanders
Immunosuppressant

300
Q

What is a big complication of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Sepsis
Steroid therapy of prednisone increases the risk for infection

301
Q

What is hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Acute renal disease characterized by acute renal failure, hemolytic, anemia, and thrombocytopenia

302
Q

What is one of the main causes of acute renal failure in early childhood?

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

303
Q

What happens in hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Breakdown of red blood cells clog the kidneys and toxins enter the bloodstream to destroy red blood cells

304
Q

What are risk factors for hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Been six months of age to four years

305
Q

Expected findings in hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Irritability
Lethargic
Loss of appetite
Hallucinations
Edema
Bruising, purpura, or rectal bleeding

306
Q

How do you treat hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Supportive care
Fluid replacement
Blood transfusions

307
Q

What is acute renal failure?

A

Inability of the kid needs to excrete waste, material, concentrate, urine, or conserve electrolytes

308
Q

What is a risk factor of prerenal acute renal failure?

A

Dehydration, secondary to diarrheal disease, or persistent vomiting
Surgical shock trauma
Accidental poisoning
Prolonged anesthesia

309
Q

What are risk factors for intrinsic renalacute renal failure?

A

Damage to the glomeruli to be yours or Rinow vascularity from disease or nephrotoxicity
Post Renal
Obstruction of the urinary system

310
Q

What are expected findings in acute renal failure?

A

Oliguria
Abrupt diuresis
Drowsiness
Circulatory collapse
Cardiac arrhythmia
Seizure

311
Q

Nursing care for acute renal failure

A

Treat cause
Usually picu admit
Strict diet knows
Assess electrolytes
Ivy replacement slowly
Limit activity

312
Q

Medication’s for acute renal failure

A

Mannitol and furosemide
Calcium gluconate
Sodium bicarb
Glucose in insulin as needed

313
Q

A nurse is assessing a child who is nephrotic syndrome, which of the following should the nurse expect
Urine dipstick +2 pro Tien
Edema in the ankles
Hyper lipidemia
Polyuria
Anorexia

A

Urine dipstick +2 pro Tien
Edema in the ankles
Hyper lipidemia
Anorexia

314
Q

A nurse is caring for school age child who has a cute climb you afraid us which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
BUN 8
Blood creatinine, 1.3.
Blood pressure 100/74
Urine output 550 ML in 24 hour

A

What creatinine 1.3.

315
Q

A nurse is caring for a preschooler who has nephrotic syndrome, which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
Blood proteins five
Hgb, 14.5
HCT 40%
Platelet 200,000

A

Blood protein 5

316
Q

A nurse is assessing a child who has chronic renal failure which of the following findings should the nurse expect
Flushed face
Hyperactivity
Weight gain
Delayed growth

A

Delayed growth

317
Q

Nurse is caring for a child who has a cute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect
Pale Urine
Peri orbital edema
I’ll appearance
Decrease creatinine
Hypertension

A

Peri orbital edema
Ill appearance
Hypertension

318
Q

What is a fracture?

A

Applied stress to the bone results and disruption to the integrity of the bone

319
Q

Why is bone healing and remodeling faster in children and adults?

A

Due to a thicker periosteum in a good blood supply

320
Q

What is an epithelial plate injury?

A

A growth plate injury that can result in alter bone growth

321
Q

What does radiographic evidence of previous fractures in various stages of healing be a result of

A

Physical violence, or osteioimPerfecta

322
Q

Risk factors for fractures

A

Obesity
Poor nutrition
Developmental characteristics of a normal childhood

323
Q

Expected findings in fractures

A

Pain
Crepitus
Deformity
Edema
Ekhymosis
Worms or redness
Decrease use

324
Q

What is a plastic deformation fracture in a child?

A

Abend, the bone is bend no more than 45° without breakage

325
Q

What is a buckle torus fracture and a child?

A

Compression of the bone resulting involved or raised area of the fracture

326
Q

What is a greenstick fracture in a child?

A

Incomplete fracture of the bone

327
Q

What is a spiral break in a child

A

Brick spirals around the bone

328
Q

Nursing care for fracture

A

Assess neurovascular status
Positioning client in a sitting position for injuries to shoulder upper arm
Stabilize
Provide splint at joint above and below the injured area
Administer analgesics
Promote ROM
Increase calcium intake

329
Q

What are some neurovascular assessment to check for in a fracture?

A

Sensation
Skin temp
Skin color
Capillary refill
Pulses
Movement

330
Q

What are some complications of fractures

A

Compartment syndrome
Embolism
Osteomyelitis

331
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

Compression of nerves, blood vessels in muscle inside I can find place resulting in neuromuscular is Shameia

If untreated, deformity of extremity paralysis and infection can result

332
Q

What is leg calf perthes disease

A

Aseptic necrosis of the femoral head

333
Q

Expected, finding in Legg calve perthes

A

Painless, limp
Hip stiffness
Limited ROM
shortening of affected leg

334
Q

What is DDH?

A

Developmental dysplasia of the hip

335
Q

Expect findings in an infant with DDH

A

Asymmetry, or an equal number of skinfold anti-
Shortening a femur
Postive, Ortolani test
Postive Barlow test

336
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Inherited connective tissue condition, that results in bone fractures in deformity along the restricted growth

337
Q

Is caring for a child who is suspected of having leg calf, perthes disease the nurse should prepare the child for which of the following diagnostic procedures
Bone biopsy
Genetic testing
CT scan
Radiographs

A

Radiographs

338
Q

The nurse is assessing a child who has large valve perthes disease which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Longer affected leg
Hip stiffness
Back pain
Limited ROM
Limp with walking

A

Hip stiffness
Back pain
Limited ROM
Live with walking

339
Q

A nurse is caring for an infant in notices, an audible click in her left hip which of the following diagnostic test, should the nurse expect to the provider to perform
Barlow test
Babinski test
Manipulation of foot and ankle
Ortolani test
Ponseti method

A

Barlow test
Ortolani test

340
Q

Nurse is caring for a toddler who is hip dysplasia has been placed in a hip spica cast child’s guardian ask the nurse by the pelvic harness is not being used which of the following responses should the nurse make
The pelvic harnesses use for children with scoliosis, not hip dysplasia
The pelvic harness is used for school age children
The pelvic harness cannot be used for your child, because her condition is too sever
The pelvic harnesses use for infants, less than six months of age

A

The pelvic time is, it is used for infants less than six months of age

341
Q

A nurse is caring for a child who is in a plaster spica cast which of the following action should the nurse take
Use a heat lamp to facilitate drying
Avoid turning the child until the cast is dry
Assist the client with crutch, walking after the cast is dry
Apply moleskin to the edges of the cast

A

Apply moleskin to the edges of the cast

342
Q

A nurse is teaching a group of caregivers about fractures, which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching
Children need a longer time to heal from a fracture than an adult
Epithelial injury plate can result in altered bone growth,
A greenstick fracture is a complete breaking a bone
Bones are unable to bed, so they break 

A

Epithelial plate injuries can result in an altered bone growth

343
Q

A nurse is caring for a child who sustained a fracture which of the following action should the nurse take
Place the heat pack on a site of injury
Elevate the affected limb
Assess neurovascular status frequently
Encourage ROM of the effected limb
Stabilize the injury

A

Elevate the affected limb
Assess neurovascular status frequently
Stabilize the injury

344
Q

A nurse is caring for a child who has a fracture which of the following manifestations of a fracture
Crepitus
Edema
Pain
Fever
Ekhymosis

A

Crepitus
Edema
Pain
Ekhymosis

345
Q

A nurse is caring for a child who is in a skeletal traction, which of the following action should the nurse take
Remove the way to reposition the client
Assess the child’s position frequently
Assess pin sites every four hours
Ensure the weights are hanging freely
Ensure the rope knot is in contact with the pulley

A

Assess the child’s position frequently
Assess pin sites every four hours
Ensure the weights are hanging freely

346
Q

What is the majority of spread in communicable diseases?

A

Respiratory droplets