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SF2 SHSUCOM > Final Final > Flashcards

Final Final Flashcards

1
Q

What types of parasites grow in phagocytes?

A

toxoplasma

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2
Q

What is the pathogenesis of giardia lamblia?

A

sucking disc adheres to duodenum wall

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3
Q

Signs/symptoms of giardia?

A

foul smelling, fatty diarrhea

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4
Q

How/where is giardia transmitted?

A

water in the woods contaminated by cysts

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5
Q

What treats giardia?

A

metronidazole

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6
Q

How is giardia diagnosed?

A

pear-shaped trophozoites in stool “falling leaf motility”

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7
Q

How is crypto transmitted?

A

undercooked meat, water.. even if it is chlorinated

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8
Q

How is crypto diagnosed?

A

acid fast stain of stool reveals oocysts

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9
Q

What parasite can cause pus and blood in stool?

A

entamoeba histolytica

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10
Q

What type of lesions does entamoeba histolytica present?

A

inverted flask shaped lesions in large instestine

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11
Q

How is histolytica diagnosed?

A

trophozoites (eat the RBCs) or cysts in stool

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12
Q

What parasite is especially dangerous for pregnant women or HIV patients to contract?

A

toxoplasma gondii

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13
Q

What type of animal feces should pregnant women avoid having contact with? Why?

A

cat feces because of toxoplasma

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14
Q

What happens when we don’t have any immunity?

A

SCID

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15
Q

What type of immune molecules are made of glycoprotein and have high affinty and specificity?

A

antibodies

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16
Q

What produces antibodies?

A

B cells

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17
Q

What is an epitope?

A

specific portion of an Ag that an Ab binds

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18
Q

What are the generative/primary/central lymphoid organs?

A

bone marrow

thymus

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19
Q

What are the peripheral lymphoid organs?

A

lymph nodes

spleen

adenoids

tonsils

mucosal/cutaneous immune systems

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20
Q

What are the two fates of a multipotential hematopoietic stem cell?

A

common myloid progenitor

or

common lymphoid progenitor

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21
Q

What cytokine is responsible for the differentiation of HSCs into common lymphoid progenitors?

A

IL7

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22
Q

What is the fate of a common lymphoid progenitor cell?

A

NK cells

or

B or T cells

B cells can futher differentiate into plasma cells

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23
Q

What are the granulocytes?

A

neutrophils

basophils

eosinophils

mast cells

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24
Q

What is the most abundant type of granulocyte?

A

neutrophils

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25
Q

What are neutrophils also considered and why?

A

polymorphonuclear leukocytes because they have segmented nuclei

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26
Q

What are band cells?

A

immature form of neutrophils

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27
Q

When are neutrophils elavated?

A

protazoa or EC pathogens

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28
Q

Esophils are elevated in what type of infection?

A

metazoans

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29
Q

Cats are the essential definitive host in what parasitic infection?

A

toxoplasmosis

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30
Q

What are the symptoms of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications

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31
Q

For people with HIV, what disease can cause ring-enhancing lesions in the brain?

A

toxoplasmosis

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32
Q

What disease are these associated with and what are they called?

A

Tachyzoites of toxoplasmosis

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33
Q

How is naegleria fowleri transmitted?

A

warm water in nose

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34
Q

What disease does naegleria fowleri cause and what is the prognosis?

A

amebic meningoencephalitis and is fatal

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35
Q

How does N. fowleri cause infection?

A

enters through nose, travels via olfactory nerve through cribriform plate (more porous in younger people) until it enters CNS

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36
Q

What disease is known as the African sleeping disease?

A

trypanosoma brucei

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37
Q

How is T. brucei transmitted?

A

tsetse fly bite

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38
Q

What disease causes this rash?

A

brucei

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39
Q

How does T. brucei evade the immune system?

A

antigenic variation

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40
Q

How is T. brucei diagnosed?

A

trypomastigote in blood smear

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41
Q

What parasite causes this to be found in the blood?

A

T. brucei

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42
Q

What parasite causes malaria?

A

plasmodium

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43
Q

How is plasmodium spread?

A

mosquito

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44
Q

What parasite can cause anemia and agglutination of red blood cells?

A

plasmodium

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45
Q

What is the difference in uncomplicated malaria and complicated malaria?

A

Uncomplicated: crappy sx PLUS seizures (in P. falciparum)

Complicated: altered mental state- possible seizures

respiratory distress- possible ARDS

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46
Q

What type of plasmodium is dx by ameboid trophozoites?

A

P. vivax

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47
Q

What is the worst type of plasmodium infection?

A

P. falciparum b/c it can cause cerebral malaria

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48
Q

What parasite is dx due to multiple ring forms and cresent shaped gametes?

A

P. falciparum

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49
Q

Why is P. falciparum so severe?

A

it can enter reticulocytes and RBC, secret ps causing KNOBS which adhere to vascular epithelium causing clots

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50
Q

What parasite is transmitted via ticks?

A

babesia

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51
Q

What is a potential coinfection for a person infected with babesia?

A

B. burgdoferi (LYME)

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52
Q

How does babesia cause disease?

A

they infect RBCs to replicate and then lysis RBCs when leaving

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53
Q

How is babesia dx?

A

maltese crosses and rings in RBCs

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54
Q

What parasite would cause this to be seen in a blood smear and how is it transmitted?

A

Babesia transmitted via ticks

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55
Q

What disease does babesia cause?

A

hemolytic anemia

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56
Q

What parasite is transmitted via the reduviid bug?

A

T. cruzi

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57
Q

How is T. cruzi transmitted?

A

reduviid bugs pass the parasite in their feces which enters the body via mucous membranes or cuts

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58
Q

What disease does T. cruzi cause?

A

Chagas

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59
Q

How is T. cruzi dx?

A

trypomastigotes in blood smear

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60
Q

What parasite can cause a Romana sign?

A

T. cruzi

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61
Q

What disease is transmitted via sandfly?

A

leishmania

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62
Q

How is leishmania dx?

A

macrophages containing amastigotes

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63
Q

What parasite can lead to skin ulcers and is transmitted via sandfly?

A

leishmania

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64
Q

Which protezoan infection is sexually transmitted?

A

trichomonas vaginalis

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65
Q

What parasite is exclusive to humans and causes vaginal discharge?

A

T. vaginalis

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66
Q

What protozoan infection can lead to preterm delivery, low birth weight, and increased mortality?

A

T. vaginalis

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67
Q

How is t. vaginalis dx?

A

motile trichomonas trophozoites ona WET PREP

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68
Q

What are the anti-malerial drugs called?

A

quinolines

69
Q

How do quinolones work?

A

block heme metabolism by parasites

70
Q

What drug is used for chloroquine-resistant strains of malaria?

A

quinine/quinidine

71
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

bone marrow

72
Q

What are naive lymphocytes?

A

mature lymphocytes that have had no Ag contact

73
Q

What type of lymphocytes secrete cytokines, Abs, and kill pathogens?

A

effector lymphocytes

74
Q

Where are B cells located in lymph nodes?

A

follicles

75
Q

Where are T cells located in lymphocytes?

A

parafollicular cortex

76
Q

Why are B and T cells segregated in peripheral lymphoid organs?

A

in order to mount an effective response

77
Q

What is an important lymphatic structure in mucosa?

A

Peyer’s patch

78
Q

What type of cells are important for Peyer’s patches?

A

M cells

79
Q

What are the resident macrophages of the skin called?

A

langerhans cells

80
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

immunity you are born with and mediates INITIAL protection

81
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

immunity that develops slowly and provides more specialized/effective defenses

82
Q

What are the cells of adaptive immunity?

A

T and B cells, and Abs

83
Q

How is innate immunity specific?

A

PAMP recognition

84
Q

What are the blood proteins of innate immunity?

A

complement

85
Q

Process of humoral immunity

A

B cells secrete Abs that block infections and eliminate EXTRACELLULAR microbes

86
Q

What type of cells respond to phagocytosed microbes?

A

CD4

87
Q

What types of cells respond to intracellular microbes?

A

CD8

88
Q

Skeletal muscle characteristics

A

striated, multinucleated, peripherally placed nuclei

89
Q

Cardiac muscle characteristics

A

branched, single central nucleus, intercalated discs

90
Q

Smooth muscle characteristics

A

Not striated, single central nucleus, spindle shaped

91
Q

A group of skeletal muscle fibers is called a

A

fascicle

92
Q

What type of stem cell gives rise to skeletal muscle cells?

A

satellite cells

93
Q

What are the regulatory proteins of the thin filaments?

A

troponin and tropomyosin

94
Q

What divides the sarcomeres?

A

Z discs

95
Q

What is the basic contractile muscle unit?

A

sarcomere

96
Q

What is located on either side of the z discs?

A

I bands

97
Q

What is the length tension relationship?

A

the optimal length at which maximal force can be achieved during contraction

98
Q

Isotonic muscle contracting means

A

the muscle is CHANGING length

99
Q

Isometric muscle contracting is when

A

the muscle DOES NOT change length

100
Q

What is latency during muscle action?

A

the time from the action potential to contraction

101
Q

What are the slow twitch oxidative muscle fibers?

A

Red

102
Q

What is the fastest source of muscle energy?

A

phosphocreatine

103
Q

What is spatial summation in muscle activation?

A

recruitment of more/bigger motor units to increase force needed for contraction

104
Q

What is it called when muscle contraction frequency is so close that contractions fuse together?

A

tetany

105
Q

What joins multiple cardiac fibers together?

A

intercalated discs

106
Q

What is the difference between the neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle?

A

Each skeletal muscle cell is innervated by 1 motor neuron where cardiac muscle cells have several fibers innervated by each neuromuscular junction

107
Q

What transmits the muscle impulse to the SR in skeletal muscles?

A

T tubules

108
Q

What is the difference between skeletal and cardic muscle channels?

A

APs by BOTH fast sodium AND slow calcium channels in cardiac muscle

109
Q

How are smooth muscles linked together?

A

gap junctions

110
Q

What provides mechanical linkage between smooth muscle cells?

A

adherens junctions

111
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms of excitation coupling of smooth muscles and what do they do?

A

electromechanical coupling- membrane depolarization causes Ca2+ influx via voltage gated channels

pharmacomechanical coupling- agonist binding GPCR activates PLC which increases IP3 and stimuates Ca2+ release from ER

112
Q

What are the GPCR agonists for smooth muscle contraction?

A

NE, angiotensin II, and edothelin 1

113
Q

A unique feature of smooth muscle is the latch mechanism. What is this and how does it occur?

A

Latch is a way for smooth muscles to stay constricted without utilizing much ATP.

Rho-Rho kinases activates myosin phosphatase which partially dephosphorylates myosin and slows cycle so cross bridges remain stuck for long periods of time

114
Q

What are the 2 types of smooth muscles and where are they found?

A

tonic smooth muscle- found in the sphincters, blood vessels, and airways

phasic smooth muscle- found in the GI tract

115
Q

Where is the site of calcium regulation in skeletal muscle and cardiac?

A

troponin on actin filaments

116
Q

Where is the site of calcium regulation in smooth muscle?

A

calmodulin in the sarcoplasm

117
Q

What is the relay path of sympathetic nerves?

A

hypothalamus—> sympathetic ganglia—-> snapse at target organ

118
Q

Where are the ganglia of parasympathetic neurons located?

A

close to or in the wall of the target organ

119
Q

Beta 1 adrenergic receptors bind ____ and _____ cardiac contractility and vasoconstriction.

A

bind NE

increase

120
Q

Beta 2 receptors ____ vascular, bronchial, GI etc smooth muscle.

A

relax

121
Q

GqPCR pathway of alpha 1 post-synaptic receptors

A

activates PLC

122
Q

What is glomerular filtration?

A

filtering of the blood into the nephron to form urine

123
Q

What is tubular reabsorption?

A

reabsorption of important substances needed by the body from the nephron to the blood

124
Q

What is tubular secretion?

A

secretion of waste from the blood into the nephron

125
Q

What is starling law?

A

(Pc-Pif) - (Πc-Πif)

126
Q

If Jv is positive then net movement _____ of the capillary

A

OUT OF

127
Q

If Jv is negative then net movement _____ the capillary.

A

INTO

128
Q

Angiotensinogen is coverted into angiotensin I by ____

angiotensin I is converted into angiotensin II by ____

A

renin

ACE

129
Q

Angiotensin II causes Na ______ in the collecting duct

A

reabsorption

130
Q

What protein causes an INCREASE in aldosterone secretion by the adrenal _____?

A

angiotensin II

by the adrenal cortex

131
Q

What are the major effects of angiotensin II?

A

Increase in Na reabsorption by collecting duct

Increase tubular reabsorption of Na & Cl and increase of K EXCRETION

Increase in aldosterone secretion by adrenals

Vasoconstriction of vessels

Increase in BP

Increase in ADH

132
Q

What blocks renin release?

A

increase in JGA perfusion

133
Q

Excess water intake _____ ADH secretion.

A

decreases

134
Q

What is the role of ANP?

A

to promote Na excretion (thus, water excretion)

135
Q

If hypovolemia or ECV decreases, ANP _____.

A

decreases

136
Q

What effect does ANP have on renal vessels?

A

increases blood flow to increase GFR

137
Q

Worms that have unsegmented bodies?

A

nematodes

138
Q

What is the most common helminth infection in the US?

A

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworms)

139
Q

Itchy anus?

A

pinworms (enterobius)

140
Q

How to dx pin worms (enterobius)?

A

tape the butt and look for ova with larvae inside

141
Q

What helminth is most commonly transmitted via soil?

A

ascaris lumbricoides (roundworms)

142
Q

What are the symptoms of ascarisis?

A

swollen belly

bowel obstruction

143
Q

How is a. lumbricoides dx?

A

bile-stained, knobby eggs in fecal matter

144
Q

What does strongyloides stercoralis cause?

A

hookworm infection

145
Q

What can cause cutaneous larva migrans?

A

strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm)

OR

necator americanus (hookworm)

146
Q

What syndrome can s. stercoralis cause?

A

Loeffler syndrome- pulmonary opacities and coughing due to larva in the lungs

147
Q

How is a strongyloides stercoralis infection dx?

A

rhabditiform larvae in feces

148
Q

What type of parasite is scabies?

A

ectoparasite

149
Q

What helminth can cause itching at night and serpininous burrows between fingers and toes?

A

scabies

150
Q

Pediculus humanus and phthirus pubis are also known as

A

lice

151
Q

The scolex of a tapeworm is its

A

head

152
Q

What part of a tapeworm produces the proglottids (segments)

A

neck

153
Q

Adult tapeworms inhabit the _____ and do not tend to cause problems.

Ingestion of tapeworm ____ can lead to serious problems because the larva can _____.

A

small intestine

eggs migrate

154
Q

Ingestion of raw freshwater fish can cause

A

diphyllobothrium latum infections

155
Q

What are the largest tapeworms that can affect people?

A

diphyllobothrium latum

156
Q

What type of helminth infection can lead to B12 deficiency?

What can this B12 deficiency lead to?

A

tapeworms (D. latum)

megaloblastic anemia

157
Q

What type(s) of infection can be caused by ingestion of dog feces?

A

echinococcus granulosus

toxocara canis

158
Q

What is the danger of a E. granulosus infection?

A

hydatid cysts in liver rupturing which can lead to anaphylaxis

159
Q

What parasite can lead to biliary tract disease or cholangiocarcinoma?

A

clonorchis sinensis

160
Q

What type of infection can lead to brain cysts and seizures?

A

T. solium

161
Q

What infection can lead to hydatid liver cysts?

A

echinococcus granulosus

162
Q

Anemia can be caused by

A

ancylostoma or necator

163
Q

What infection can lead to periorbital edema and muscle pain?

A

trichinella spiralis

164
Q

Perianal pruritis is caused by

A

enterobius (pin worms)

165
Q

What infection can lead tcumo portal hypertension?

A

schistosoma mansoni or scistosoma japnicum

166
Q

What do schistosoma infections cause?

A

hepatosplenomegaly

portal hypertension

squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

pulmonary hypertension

167
Q

What is the best drug for intestinal worm infections?

A

benzimidazoles

168
Q

What drug is used to treat pregnant women with toxoplasmosis?

A

spiramycin

169
Q
A

SF2 SHSUCOM (6 decks)

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