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EMT 104 > Final Exam Study Guide > Flashcards

Final Exam Study Guide Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the scope of an EMT?

A

Basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, use of airway adjuncts, and assisting patient with certain medications.

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2
Q

What is the scope of an AEMT?

A

Specific aspects of ALS, such as IV therapy and the administration of certain emergency medications.

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3
Q

What is the scope of a paramedic?

A

Extensive training in ALS, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, and cardiac monitoring.

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4
Q

What is expressed consent?

A

When the patient verbally or otherwise acknowledges that he or she wants you to provide care or transport.

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5
Q

What is informed consent?

A

In order for consent to be valid, you explain the nature of treatment being offered, along with potential risks, benefits, alternatives and consequences of refusing.

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6
Q

What is implied consent?

A

When a person is unconscious or otherwise incapable of making a rational, informed decision about care, and unable to give consent, it is assumed that the patient would give consent if they were able to do so.

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7
Q

What is involuntary consent?

A

Falls under implied consent for an adult patient who is mentally incompetent.

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8
Q

In what case can a minor give consent?

A

If the minor is emancipated, they can give consent for themselves. A minor who is a parent can give consent for their child.

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9
Q

In what case can someone other than a parent or legal guardian give consent?

A

“In loco parentis” means that teachers or school officials may give consent for a child in a school setting.

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10
Q

Define assault.

A

Placing a person in fear of immediate bodily harm.

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11
Q

Define battery.

A

Touching a person with intent to cause harm. This includes providing emergency care without consent.

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12
Q

Define negligence.

A

Failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide in the same or similar situation.

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13
Q

Define abandonment.

A

The unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient’s consent and without making any provisions for continuing care for the patient.

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14
Q

Define gross negligence.

A

Conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty of standard of care.

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15
Q

What is the axial skeleton composed of?

A

The axial skeleton forms the foundation on which the arms and legs are hung and is composed of the skull, face, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.

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16
Q

What is the appendicular composed of?

A

The appendicular skeleton is composed of the shoulder girdle, the pelvis, the arms and the legs.

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17
Q

Define anterior.

A

The front surface of the body.

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18
Q

Define posterior.

A

The back surface of the body.

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19
Q

Define superior.

A

Closest to the head.

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20
Q

Define inferior.

A

Closest to the feet.

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21
Q

Define proximal.

A

Closest to the point of attachment.

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22
Q

Define distal.

A

Farthest from the point of attachment.

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23
Q

Define medial.

A

Closest to the midline.

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24
Q

Define lateral.

A

Farthest from the midline.

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25
Q

Define superficial.

A

Closest to the surface of the skin.

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26
Q

What is the function of the brain stem?

A

The brain stem is the controlling center for virtually all body functions that are absolutely necessary for life.

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27
Q

Appendix. What is it’s function? Is it hollow or solid? What quadrant?

A

Storage of good bacteria; Hollow; RLQ

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28
Q

Gallbladder. What is it’s function? Is it hollow or solid? What quadrant?

A

Reservoir for bile; Hollow; RUQ

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29
Q

Kidneys. What is it’s function? Is it hollow or solid? What quadrant?

A

Filter waste from blood, control water balance; Solid, RUQ & LUQ

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30
Q

Large intestine. What is it’s function? Is it hollow or solid? What quadrant?

A

Absorbs remaining nutrients and water to form stool; Hollow; LLQ (descending colon & left half of transverse colon), RLQ (ascending colon & right half of transverse colon)

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31
Q

Liver. What is it’s function? Is it hollow or solid? What quadrant?

A

Filters toxins, bile produced for digestion of fat, storage of sugar; Solid; RUQ

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32
Q

Pancreas. What is it’s function? Is it hollow or solid? What quadrant?

A

Where insulin is produced; Solid; RUQ & LUQ (posterior to stomach and spleen)

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33
Q

Small intestine. What is it’s function? Is it hollow or solid? What quadrant?

A

90% of nutrient aborbtion, especially fat; Hollow; RUQ (duodenum), LLQ, RLQ

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34
Q

Spleen. What is it’s function? Is it hollow or solid? What quadrant?

A

Filter for blood, produces WBCs; Solid; LUQ

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35
Q

Stomach. What is it’s function? Is it hollow or solid? What quadrant?

A

Receives food, stores food, converts to chyme, provides for movement to small intestine; Hollow; LUQ

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36
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system do?

A

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the flight-or-flight response. Epinephrine and norepinephrine cause vasoconstriction, increased heartrate, and bronchodilation.

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37
Q

What does the parasympathetic nervous system do?

A

The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the rest-and-digest response. This response caused decreased heart rate and force of contraction.

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38
Q

What is the implication of bradycardia in a pediatric patient in respiratory distress?

A

As the heart muscle becomes increasingly hypoxic, it slows down, leading to bradycardia. This often leads to cardiopulmonary arrest. CPR should be performed on pediatric patients with a heart rate of less than 60 bpm.

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39
Q

How long can the body compensate for shock?

A

The body can only compensate for blood loss for so long. Once it loses a certain amount, blood pressure starts to drop, and shock is well developed.

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40
Q

Define radiating pain.

A

The “R” in OPQRST. Radiation refers to pain that travels to another part of the body.

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41
Q

What is a pertinent positive?

A

Given the chief complaint, a pertinent positive is a sign or symptom that is present that is consistent with your field impression.

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42
Q

What is a pertinent negative?

A

Given the chief complaint, a pertinent negative is a sign or symptom that is consistent with your field impression, but is absent in the patient.

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43
Q

When is appropriate to not complete the secondary assessment?

A

When you need to continually manage life threats identified in the primary assessment for a critically injured patient.

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44
Q

When is JVD normal? When does it indicate a problem?

A

JVD is a normal finding in a person who is lying down; however JVD in a patient who is sitting up suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart.

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45
Q

What are the contraindications for use of a comitube?

A

Conscious or semiconscious patient with a gag reflex, Children

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46
Q

Vitals for a neonate?

A

PR=90-180; RR=30-60; SBP=50-70

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47
Q

Vitals for an infant?

A

PR=100-160; RR=25-50; SBP=70-95

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48
Q

Vitals for a toddler?

A

PR=90-150; RR=20-30; SBP=80-100

49
Q

Vitals for a preschooler?

A

PR=80-140; RR=20-25; SBP=80-100

50
Q

Vitals for school age children?

A

PR=70-120; RR=15-20; SBP=80-110

51
Q

Vitals for an adolescent?

A

PR=60-100; RR=12-20; SBP=90-110

52
Q

Vitals for an adult?

A

PR=60-100; RR=12-20; SBP=90-140

53
Q

How many different types of shock are there? What are they?

A

Eight. Cardiogenic, Obstructive, Septic, Neurogenic, Anaphylactic, Psychogenic, Hypovolemic, Respiratory Insufficiency

54
Q

Define cardiogenic shock.

A

Caused by inadequate function of the heart.

55
Q

Define obstructive shock.

A

When conditions that cause mechanical obstruction of the cardiac muscle also impact pump function such as seen in cardiac tamponade or tension pneumothorax.

56
Q

Define septic shock.

A

Occurs as a result of severe infection, resulting in widespread dilation of the blood vessels.

57
Q

Define Neurogenic shock.

A

When damage to the spinal cord causes injury to the part of the nervous system that controls the size and muscular tone of the blood vessels.

58
Q

Define Anaphylactic shock.

A

When a person reacts violently to a substance to which they have been sensitized.

59
Q

Define psychogenic shock.

A

When a sudden reaction of the nervous system produces a temporary, generalized vascular dilation, resulting in fainting.

60
Q

Define hypovolemic shock.

A

The result of inadequate amount of fluid or volume in the system. Can be hemorrhagic as caused by blood loss or non-hemorrhagic as seen in with excessive vomiting and/or diarrhea.

61
Q

Define respiratory insufficiency shock.

A

Caused by an insufficient concentration of oxygen in the blood.

62
Q

Who would you perform CPR on?

A

In a pulseless, nonbreathing patient.

63
Q

What are the steps of CPR?

A

Check for response, check for breathing, activate emergency response, check for pulse, begin chest compressions and breaths at a 30:2 ratio, apply AED as soon as is available, defibrillate, switch with partner and continue 30:2 CPR with a BVM.

64
Q

When would you use an AED?

A

In any patient who requires CPR.

65
Q

What rhythms will an AED shock?

A

Ventricular fibrillation and pulse-less tachycardia.

66
Q

What is the problem in emphysema?

A

Emphysema is a loss of the elastic material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli.

67
Q

Describe the flow of blood through the heart.

A

Inferior/superior vena cava?right atrium?tricuspid valve?right ventricle?pulmonary valve?pulmonary artery?pulmonary circulation?pulmonary vein?left atrium?mitral valve?left ventricle?aortic valve?aorta?systemic circulation

68
Q

What is the difference between a stroke and a TIA?

A

A stroke is an interruption of blood flow to the brain that results in the loss of brain function. When symptoms go away on their own in less than 24 hours, it is considered a transient ischemic attack.

69
Q

What is the difference between an AMI and angina?

A

Angina is chest pain associated with the heart not getting enough oxygen. When blood flow is obstructed resulting in acutal death of cardiac cells, this is considered an acute myocardial infarction.

70
Q

What medications are hypotension a contraindication for?

A

Nitroglycerin

71
Q

What are the 3 different types of seizures?

A

Generalized, partial, and status epilepticus.

72
Q

Define a generalized seizure.

A

A seizure characterized by severe twitching of all the body’s muscles that may last several minutes or more.

73
Q

Define a partial seizure.

A

A seizure affecting a limited portion of the brain.

74
Q

Define status epilepticus.

A

A condition in which seizures recur every few minutes or last more than 30 minutes.

75
Q

When is nitroglycerin indicated?

A

Chest pain due to myocardial infarction or angina.

76
Q

What is the dose and frequency of nitroglycerin?

A

.3 to .4 mg SL, .4 spray

77
Q

What are the contraindications for nitroglycerin?

A

Hypotension, recent use of ED drugs, head injury

78
Q

What is the first priority in any patient?

A

Emergency medical care begins with ensuring an open airway. If you cannot immediately open and maintain a patent airway, you cannot provide effective patient care. Regardless of the patient’s condition, the airway must remain open at all times.

79
Q

Define hypoglycemia.

A

A condition characterized by a low blood glucose level.

80
Q

How do you treat hypoglycemia/Insulin shock?

A

Oral glucose

81
Q

Define hyperglycemia.

A

A abnormally high blood glucose level in the blood.

82
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia/DKA?

A

Kussmaul respirations, dehydration, fruity smelling breath, polyuria, polydispsia, gradual onset, warm and dry skin

83
Q

How do you treat hyperglycemia/DKA?

A

Rapid transport.

84
Q

Define DKA.

A

A form of hyperglycemia in uncontrolled diabetes in which certain acids accumulate when insulin is not available.

85
Q

Define insulin shock.

A

Also known as hypoglycemic crisis. Severe hypoglycemia resulting in changes in mental status. For instance when a patient takes their insulin, but forgets to eat.

86
Q

What are the signs and symtoms of a hypoglycemic crisis/Insulin Shock?

A

Signs of shock, ALOC, hunger, dizziness, headache, rapid pulse, anxiety, weakness in one side of the body, rapid onset.

87
Q

What is the brand name for oral glucose?

A

Glutose

88
Q

How are sharps properly disposed of?

A

Do not recap, break, or bend needles. Dispose of all sharp items in approved, closed, rigid containers.

89
Q

Define activated charcoal.

A

An oral medication given to counteract poisoning or overdose that acts by adsorbing toxic substances in the digestive tract.

90
Q

What is the adult dose for activated charcoal?

A

1-2 g/kg

91
Q

What are the indications for activated charcoal?

A

Most oral poisonings; overdose.

92
Q

What are the contraindications for activated charcoal?

A

Decreased LOC; Corrosives, caustics, petroleum substances.

93
Q

What causes gastric distention?

A

Occurs when artifical ventilation fills the stomach with air, especially when done too forcefully or too rapidly.

94
Q

Define organic brain syndrome.

A

Temporary or permanent dysfunction of the brain, caused by disturbance in the physical or physiologic functioning of brain tissue. Causes might include recent head trauma, sudden illness, seizure disorders, intoxication, overdose, withdrawal, or diseases of the brain.

95
Q

Describe the rule of 9s.

A

A system that assigns percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surface involved in the burn area.

96
Q

Describe the difference between an epidural bleed and a subdural bleed.

A

Bleeding outside the dura and under the skull is epidural. Bleeding beneath the dura but outside the brain is subdural.

97
Q

Describe the Glasgow Coma Scale.

A

An evaluation tool used to determine level of consciousness, which evaluates and assigns point values for eye opening (1-4), verbal response (1-5), and motor response (1-6), which are then totaled; effective in helping predict patient outcome.

98
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

Compression of the heart as a result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output.

99
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade?

A

Referred to as Beck’s Triad: Bilateral JVD, narrow range between systolic and dystolic BP, and muffled heart sounds.

100
Q

Where are blood cells produced?

A

In the marrow of certain types of bones, special cells are present that can transform themselves into RBCs, WBCs and platelets.

101
Q

Treatment of mild hypothermia.

A

Remove from environment, remove wet clothing, dry blankets, warm humidified oxygen, active rewarming, warm fluids by mouth.

102
Q

Treatment of moderate of severe hypothermia

A

Remove from environment, remove wet clothing, dry blankets, passive rewarming, prevent further heat loss, rapid transport.

103
Q

Treatment of local cold injuries.

A

Remove from environment, handle injured part gently, oxygen, remove wet or restrictive clothing from injured part, active rewarming, splint and cover loosely with dry, sterile dressing. Do not rub. (Exception is frostbite. Do not actively rewarm)

104
Q

Treatment of heat cramps.

A

Remove from environment, oxygen, rest cramping muscles, replace fluids by mouth, cool by misting and fanning.

105
Q

Treatment of heat exhaustion.

A

Remove from environment, remove excessive clothing, oxygen, splash with cool water, Trendelenburg’s position, fan patient, replace fluids by mouth as long as nausea doesn’t develop.

106
Q

Treatment of heat stroke.

A

Remove from environment, AC to max, remove clothing, oxygen, cool packs to neck, groin, and armpits, cover with wet towels or spray and fan, aggressively fan, rapid transport.

107
Q

Define sprain.

A

A joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments, and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends.

108
Q

Define strain.

A

Stretching or tearing of a muscle.

109
Q

Define dislocation.

A

A disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are completely displaced.

110
Q

Define fracture.

A

A break in the continuity of the bone.

111
Q

Describe the APGAR scale.

A

A scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value from 0-2 to each of five areas of assessment including appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration.

112
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

A pregnancy that develops outside of the uterus, most often in the fallopian tube. The leading cause of maternal death in the first trimester of pregnancy is internal hemorrhage into the abdomen following rupture of an ectopic pregnancy.

113
Q

SIDS guidelines in dealing with family while attempting resusciatation.

A

Give brief, frequent updates and explanations; allow family members to stay within viewing distance if they wish; allow family members to accompany child to the hospital when possible.

114
Q

How old is a neonate?

A

0 to 1 month of age.

115
Q

What IV gauge should you choose for a trauma patient?

A

16 gauge

116
Q

What is used to calculate infusion rates?

A

Tube size

117
Q

When can you monitor infusion rates?

A

Interfacility transport.

118
Q

Describe Vital Signs by Various Ages

A

EMT 104 (20 decks)

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