Final Exam Review Flashcards
1
Q
Describe case studies in psychology.
A
Case studies focus on one person or a few individuals, providing in-depth insights that may not be representative of the general population.
2
Q
Explain the importance of unobtrusiveness in naturalistic observation.
A
Observers must be unobtrusive to ensure that individuals behave naturally, as awareness of being watched can alter behavior.
3
Q
Define cross-sectional research.
A
Cross-sectional research involves comparing multiple segments of the population at the same time, allowing for faster results without waiting.
4
Q
How does longitudinal research differ from cross-sectional research?
A
Longitudinal research examines the same individuals repeatedly over a long period to detect changes, while cross-sectional research compares different segments at one point in time.
5
Q
What does correlational research indicate?
A
Correlational research shows a relationship between two or more variables, but does not imply causation.
6
Q
Describe the control in experimental research.
A
Experimental research allows for a high level of control over variables of interest, enabling researchers to determine cause-and-effect relationships.
7
Q
What is the difference between independent and dependent variables?
A
The Independent Variable is manipulated by the investigator, while the Dependent Variable is the participant’s response to that manipulation.
8
Q
Explain the concept of a single blind study.
A
In a single blind study, the researcher knows the group assignments, but the participants do not, which helps control for participant expectations.
9
Q
What is a double blind study?
A
In a double blind study, both the researchers and participants are unaware of group assignments, controlling for both participant and experimenter expectations.
10
Q
Define significant results in research.
A
Results are considered significant if the probability that the differences occurred by chance is 5% or less.
11
Q
What does reliability refer to in psychological research?
A
Reliability refers to the consistency of results produced by a given instrument or tool used in research.
12
Q
Explain the concept of validity in research instruments.
A
Validity refers to how accurately a tool measures what it is intended to measure.
13
Q
Describe the action potential in neurons.
A
Action potential is the electrical signal that travels from the cell body down the axon to the axon terminals.
14
Q
What are the two basic cell types in the nervous system?
A
The nervous system is composed of glial cells and neurons.
15
Q
Differentiate between the central and peripheral nervous systems.
A
The Central Nervous System includes the brain and spinal cord, while the Peripheral Nervous System connects the central nervous system to the rest of the body.
16
Q
What is the role of the autonomic nervous system?
A
The Autonomic Nervous System controls internal organs and glands, generally outside of voluntary control.
17
Q
Explain the functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
A
The Sympathetic Nervous System prepares the body for stress-related activities, while the Parasympathetic Nervous System helps return the body to routine operations.
18
Q
What are neurotransmitters?
A
Neurotransmitters are the chemical messengers of the nervous system that transmit signals across synapses.
19
Q
Describe the process of reuptake in neurotransmission.
A
Reuptake involves the neurotransmitter being pumped back into the neuron that released it to clear the synapse.
20
Q
What is the function of excitatory neurotransmitters like GABA?
A
Excitatory neurotransmitters like GABA are involved in brain function and sleep, decreasing anxiety and tension.
21
Q
Explain the role of inhibitory neurotransmitters like glutamate.
A
Inhibitory neurotransmitters like glutamate help restrain impulses or behaviors, either consciously or unconsciously.
22
Q
Differentiate between agonists and antagonists in neurotransmission.
A
Agonists mimic neurotransmitters at receptor sites, while antagonists block or impede the normal activity of neurotransmitters.
23
Q
What roles do dopamine and serotonin play in the brain?
A
Dopamine is involved in mood, sleep, and learning, while serotonin modulates mood and sleep.
24
Q
Define localization in the context of brain function.
A
Localization is the idea that specific areas of the brain are associated with particular functions.
25
What is the function of the cerebellum?
The cerebellum controls balance, coordination, movement, and motor skills, and is important for processing certain types of memories.
26
Describe the significance of the hippocampus in memory.
The hippocampus is essential for learning and memory; damage to it can impair the ability to form new memories.
27
What characterizes the cerebral cortex?
The cerebral cortex is the brain's surface, marked by a distinctive pattern of folds or bumps.
28
Explain the role of the amygdala in emotional processing.
The amygdala is involved in experiencing emotions and attaching emotional meaning to memories.
29
What is lateralization in brain function?
Lateralization refers to the specialization of function in each hemisphere of the brain, particularly regarding language.
30
How do the left and right hemispheres of the brain differ in function?
The left hemisphere controls the right side of the body and is superior for memory associations and positive emotions, while the right hemisphere controls the left side.
31
Who is Michael Gazzaniga and what did he study?
Michael Gazzaniga studied split-brain patients, revealing interesting behaviors resulting from cutting the corpus callosum.
32
What is the corpus callosum?
The corpus callosum is a thick band of neural fibers that connects the two hemispheres of the brain.
33
Describe the case of Phineas Gage and its significance.
Phineas Gage survived a severe brain injury that affected his impulse control, providing insights into the relationship between brain function and behavior.
34
What is Broca's Area and its significance?
Broca's Area is crucial for language production, and damage to it can result in aphasia, a disorder affecting communication.
35
Describe the role of Wilder Penfield in neuroscience.
Wilder Penfield applied electric currents to the surface of patients' brains while operating on epileptic patients to identify problem areas.
36
Define neuroplasticity.
Neuroplasticity refers to the brain's ability to change and adapt over time, with the most significant changes occurring during early development, but still capable of remarkable changes later in life.
37
Explain long-term potentiation/LTP
Long-term potentiation is a persistent increase in the efficacy of synaptic transmission in certain brain cells, which strengthens neural connections.
38
What is the process of arborization and pruning in the brain?
Arborization involves protein synthesis and gene expressions that contribute to dendritic branching, while pruning is the elimination of extra neurons and synapses.
39
How does the circadian rhythm affect human behavior?
Circadian rhythm influences 24-hour cycles of varying alertness, body temperature, and growth hormone secretion in humans.
40
Describe the sleep cycle duration and its significance.
The sleep cycle lasts approximately 90 minutes and includes various stages of sleep that are essential for restorative processes.
41
What triggers the suprachiasmatic nucleus and what is its function?
Light triggers the suprachiasmatic nucleus to regulate melatonin levels from the pineal gland, decreasing it in the morning and increasing it at night.
42
Summarize Freud's theory on dreams.
Freud suggested that dreams represent unconscious desires, driven by repressed longings, with manifest content being the actual images in dreams.
43
Explain the activation synthesis theory of dreaming.
The activation synthesis theory posits that dreams are the brain's way of making sense of signals sent by neurons during sleep.
44
Differentiate between stage one and stage two sleep.
Stage 1 sleep is a transitional phase with alpha waves, while stage 2 sleep involves deep relaxation with theta waves and sleep spindles important for learning and memory.
45
What characterizes REM sleep?
REM sleep is marked by rapid eye movements and brain waves similar to those of an awake state, and it is the stage where dreaming occurs.
46
Define insomnia and its prevalence.
Insomnia is a consistent difficulty in falling or staying asleep and is the most common sleep disorder.
47
What is somnambulism?
Somnambulism, or sleepwalking, involves engaging in complex behaviors while asleep, such as wandering or driving.
48
Describe narcolepsy and its symptoms.
Narcolepsy is a condition where individuals cannot resist falling asleep at inappropriate times, often accompanied by muscle weakness or paralysis.
49
What are night terrors?
Night terrors are episodes that result in panic, often accompanied by screams and attempts to escape from the environment.
50
Explain sleep apnea and its treatment.
Sleep apnea is characterized by episodes where breathing stops during sleep, and a CPAP device is effective for treating mild to severe cases.
51
What are stimulants and provide examples.
Stimulants are substances that excite neural activity, examples include caffeine, nicotine, amphetamines, and cocaine.
52
Define sedatives and their effects.
Sedatives are drugs that suppress central nervous system activity, such as alcohol and barbiturates.
53
What are opiates and their primary use?
Opiates are substances with potent pain-killing effects, often abused for their euphoric properties.
54
Describe the effects of hallucinogens.
Hallucinogens cause profound alterations in sensory and perceptual experiences.
55
What characterizes substance use disorder?
Substance use disorder is characterized by using more of a substance than intended and continuing use despite significant adverse consequences.
56
Explain tolerance and withdrawal in substance use.
Tolerance occurs when increasing amounts of a drug are needed to achieve effects, while withdrawal refers to negative symptoms experienced when drug use is stopped.
57
Define addiction in the context of substance use.
Addiction involves using more of a substance than originally intended and continuing use despite experiencing significant adverse consequences.
58
What is associative learning?
Associative learning is the process of learning about the relationship between two separate stimuli.
59
Summarize Pavlov's contribution to classical conditioning.
Ivan Pavlov is known for his experiments with dogs that demonstrated the principles of classical conditioning.
60
Define UCS, UCR, CS, and CR in classical conditioning.
UCS is an Unconditioned Stimulus causing a reflexive response (UCR); CS is a Conditioned Stimulus that provokes a response after being paired with UCS; CR is the Conditioned Response to the CS.
61
Explain the concepts of acquisition, extinction, and spontaneous recovery.
Acquisition is the process of connecting a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus; extinction occurs when the conditioned response decreases; spontaneous recovery is the re-emergence of a conditioned response after a break.
62
Differentiate between discrimination and generalization in learning.
Stimulus discrimination is when a subject reacts differently to similar stimuli, while stimulus generalization is when a subject responds the same way to similar stimuli.
63
What is behaviorism and its main focus?
Behaviorism is a school of thought that emphasizes observable behavior and the relationship between actions and reactions.
64
Summarize John Watson's experiment with Little Albert.
John Watson demonstrated that psychology should focus on measurable behavior, showing Little Albert to fear animals after associating them with a loud sound.
65
Explain John Thorndike's Law of Effect.
Thorndike's Law of Effect states that behaviors followed by positive consequences are more likely to be repeated, while those followed by negative consequences are less likely to be repeated.
66
Describe the Law of Effect.
The Law of Effect states that behaviors followed by favorable consequences are more likely to be repeated, while behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences are less likely to be repeated.
67
Explain operant conditioning as described by B.F. Skinner.
Operant conditioning is a learning process where the consequences of a behavior influence the likelihood of that behavior being repeated, focusing on the subject's behavior after receiving a reward or punishment.
68
Differentiate between positive and negative reinforcement.
Positive reinforcement involves adding a stimulus to increase a behavior, while negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus to increase a behavior.
69
What is the difference between positive and negative punishment?
Positive punishment involves adding a stimulus to decrease a behavior, while negative punishment involves removing a stimulus to decrease a behavior.
70
Define fixed interval reinforcement schedule.
A fixed interval reinforcement schedule provides reinforcement at specific time intervals, affecting the response rate based on those intervals.
71
Describe variable interval reinforcement schedule.
A variable interval reinforcement schedule provides reinforcement at unpredictable time intervals, leading to moderate yet steady response rates.
72
Explain fixed ratio reinforcement schedule.
A fixed ratio reinforcement schedule delivers reinforcement after a predictable number of responses, resulting in high response rates with pauses.
73
What is variable ratio reinforcement schedule?
A variable ratio reinforcement schedule delivers reinforcement after an unpredictable number of responses, producing a high and steady response rate.
74
Summarize Albert Bandura's concept of observational learning.
Observational learning is the process of learning new behaviors by watching others, even in the absence of external reinforcement.
75
Define modeling in the context of learning.
Modeling involves demonstrating a behavior through a live model, verbal model, or symbolic model, requiring attention, retention, performance, and motivation.
76
What is Charles Spearman's contribution to intelligence theory?
developing the "two-factor theory" of intelligence ("g") that underlies all cognitive abilities, and specific abilities ("s") unique to different tasks, essentially suggesting that a single underlying factor contributes to performance across various cognitive tests;
77
Contrast crystallized and fluid intelligence.
Crystallized intelligence involves the ability to recall and use learned information, while fluid intelligence refers to the capacity to solve new problems and see complex relationships.
78
Describe divergent and convergent thinking.
Divergent thinking is a creative process that generates multiple solutions, while convergent thinking focuses on finding the single correct answer.
79
Summarize Robert Sternberg's Triarchic Theory of Intelligence.
Sternberg's Triarchic Theory posits that intelligence consists of analytical, creative, and practical problem-solving abilities.
80
Define emotional intelligence.
Emotional intelligence is the ability to perceive, understand, and manage emotions effectively.
81
What is Howard Gardner's Multiple Intelligence Theory?
Gardner's Multiple Intelligence Theory suggests that intelligence exists in various forms, and damage to one type may not affect others.
82
Explain the concept of IQ.
IQ, or Intelligence Quotient, is a measure of a person's intellectual abilities in relation to others.
83
Describe the normal curve in the context of standardized testing.
The normal curve represents the distribution of scores in a population, typically forming a bell-shaped pattern.
84
Define memory.
Memory is the processes used to encode, store, and retrieve information over different periods of time.
85
What is encoding in memory?
Encoding is the process of inputting information into the memory system, allowing us to understand and remember it.
86
Contrast automatic and effortful processing.
Automatic processing involves recalling information easily, while effortful processing requires more cognitive effort to remember.
87
Describe semantic, visual, and acoustic encoding.
Semantic encoding involves understanding and encoding meanings of words, visual encoding relates to images, and acoustic encoding pertains to sounds, especially words.
88
What is the Atkinson and Shiffrin Model?
The Atkinson and Shiffrin Model describes memory processing similar to how a computer processes information.
89
Summarize the Baddeley and Hitch Model of memory.
The Baddeley and Hitch Model likens short-term memory to opening files on a computer, where working memory holds a limited amount of information.
90
Define sensory memory.
Sensory memory is the brief storage of sensory information, such as sights, sounds, and tastes.
91
What is short-term memory (STM)?
Short-Term Memory (STM) is the system that processes new sensory information for a limited duration.
92
Explain the role of rehearsal in memory.
Rehearsal is the process that transfers information from short-term memory to long-term memory.
93
What did George Miller discover about short-term memory capacity?
George Miller found that the capacity of short-term memory is typically between 5 and 9 items, often referred to as the 'magic number' 7 plus or minus 2.
94
Define long-term memory (LTM).
Long-Term Memory (LTM) is the system that stores memories for later retrieval throughout life.
95
What are semantic networks in memory?
Semantic networks are structures that activate related concepts, making them easier to remember when one is recalled.
96
Describe episodic memory.
Episodic memory is the recollection of personal experiences and specific events in one's life.
97
What is semantic memory?
Semantic memory encompasses facts and knowledge about concepts, language, and general information.
98
Define procedural memory.
Procedural memory is the type of memory related to skills and actions, such as riding a bike or brushing teeth.
99
Differentiate between retrieval, recall, and recognition.
Retrieval is accessing stored memories, recall is retrieving memories without cues, and recognition is identifying previously learned information upon encountering it again.
100
Summarize Karl Lashley's work and define engram.
Karl Lashley studied memory storage in the brain by making lesions in animals, and an engram is the physical representation of memory in the brain.
101
What is the equipotentiality hypothesis?
The equipotentiality hypothesis suggests that if one part of the brain involved in memory is damaged, another part can take over its function.
102
Describe the role of the amygdala.
The amygdala regulates emotions, primarily fear and aggression, and influences how memories are stored based on stress hormones.
103
Explain the function of the hippocampus.
The hippocampus is involved in memory, specifically normal recognition memory and spatial memory.
104
What is the role of the cerebellum in memory?
The cerebellum is responsible for creating implicit memories.
105
Describe the function of the prefrontal cortex.
The prefrontal cortex is involved in how people process and retain information.
106
How does memory consolidation occur?
Memory consolidation occurs through repeated activity by neurons, leading to increased neurotransmitters in synapses and more efficient synaptic connections.
107
Define arousal theory.
Arousal theory posits that strong emotions trigger the formation of strong memories, while weaker emotional experiences lead to weaker memories.
108
What is a flashbulb memory?
A flashbulb memory is a clear recollection of an important event.
109
Describe the work of Brown and Kulik (1977).
Brown and Kulik proposed that many flashbulb memories relate to national or global events, such as COVID or 9/11.
110
Define amnesia.
Amnesia is the loss of long-term memory due to disease, physical trauma, or psychological trauma.
111
Who is K.C. and what is significant about his case?
K.C. suffered a traumatic head injury resulting in severe amnesia, affecting his episodic memory from birth to the present, except for very recent experiences.
112
Differentiate between retrograde and anterograde amnesia.
Anterograde amnesia allows recall of memories before an injury but not after, as seen in H.M., while retrograde amnesia involves forgetting memories before an accident, like Scott Bolzan.
113
Define construction in memory.
Construction is the formulation of new memories.
114
What is reconstruction in the context of memory?
Reconstruction is the process of bringing up old memories.
115
Explain suggestibility in memory formation.
Suggestibility refers to the effects of misinformation from external sources that can lead to the creation of false memories.
116
Describe eyewitness misidentification using the case of Jennifer Thompson and Ronald Cotton.
Eyewitness misidentification can lead to wrongful convictions, as demonstrated by Jennifer Thompson, who mistakenly identified Ronald Cotton as her rapist, leading to his wrongful imprisonment.
117
What is the misinformation effect?
The misinformation effect occurs when exposure to additional, possibly inaccurate information leads a person to misremember the original event.
118
Who is Elizabeth Loftus and what did she study?
Elizabeth Loftus studied the misinformation effect and demonstrated how leading questions can alter eyewitness memories.
119
Define false memory syndrome.
False memory syndrome is the recall of false autobiographical memories.
120
What is forgetting in the context of memory?
Forgetting refers to the loss of information from long-term memory.
121
Explain encoding failure.
Encoding failure is the inability to remember something that was never stored in memory.
122
What did Nickerson and Adams (1979) discover about memory?
Nickerson and Adams found that many Americans could not identify the correct image of a nickel, illustrating encoding failure.
123
What is Ebbinghaus known for in psychology?
Ebbinghaus is known for analyzing the process of memorization Forgetting Curve
124
Describe proactive interference.
Proactive interference occurs when old information hinders the recall of newly learned information.
125
What is retroactive interference?
Retroactive interference happens when recently learned information hinders the recall of older information.
126
Summarize Freud’s Theory regarding hysteria.
Freud theorized that hysteria resulted from childhood sexual abuse and that traumatic experiences could be hidden from consciousness.
127
What is the talking cure according to Freud?
The talking cure is a therapeutic approach where patients discuss their experiences, which can alleviate symptoms of hysteria.
128
Define levels of consciousness in Freudian theory.
Freudian levels of consciousness include the conscious and unconscious, which encompass the Ego, Super Ego, and ID.
129
What is the ID in Freudian psychology?
The ID represents our most basic urges and impulses, such as hunger, thirst, and sex.
130
Describe the role of the Ego in personality.
The Ego is the rational part of personality that mediates between the desires of the ID and the moral constraints of the Super Ego.
131
What does the Super Ego represent?
The Super Ego represents the internalized rules of right and wrong, acting as a moral compass.
132
What is a Freudian slip?
A Freudian slip is an unintentional error that reveals unconscious thoughts or desires, often occurring when a person is tired or nervous.
133
Define defense mechanisms in psychology.
Defense mechanisms are unconscious protective behaviors aimed at reducing anxiety.
134
What is denial as a defense mechanism?
Denial is the refusal to accept real events because they are too upsetting.
135
Explain repression in the context of defense mechanisms.
Repression involves suppressing hurtful feelings and thoughts from conscious awareness.
136
What is projection in psychological terms?
Projection is attributing one's unacceptable desires or feelings to other people.
137
Describe Adler’s idealism.
Adler founded individual psychology, focusing on our drive to compensate for feelings of inferiority, which he believed stem from childhood experiences.
138
Explain Jung’s concept of the collective unconscious.
Jung's collective unconscious holds mental patterns or memory traces shared among people, influencing thoughts and behaviors.
139
Define archetypes according to Jung.
Archetypes are universal themes expressed through literature, art, and dreams, representing shared human experiences.
140
What is self-realization in Jungian psychology?
Self-realization is the process of understanding one's beliefs and identity.
141
Describe the difference between introversion and extroversion.
Extroverts gain energy from social interactions, while introverts derive energy from their inner thoughts and reflections.
142
Summarize Horney’s contributions to psychology.
Horney emphasized self-realization and proposed womb envy in men, along with three coping strategies: moving towards, against, and away from people.
143
Explain the social cognitive perspective in psychology.
The social cognitive perspective emphasizes learning and cognition as key sources of personality differences.
144
What is reciprocal determinism?
Reciprocal determinism is the concept that cognitive processes, behavior, and environmental factors all influence each other.
145
Describe observational learning.
Observational learning is the process of learning by watching others and noting the consequences of their actions.
146
Define self-efficacy.
Self-efficacy is the belief in one's own abilities, which influences how challenges are approached.
147
Discuss Rotter's concept of locus of control.
Locus of control refers to an individual's belief about the extent of control they have over events in their lives.
148
What is the focus of humanism in psychology?
Humanism focuses on the healthy development and experiences of individuals.
149
Summarize Maslow's concept of self-actualization.
Self-actualization is the realization of one's fullest potential, considered the highest need in Maslow's hierarchy.
150
Describe Carl Rogers' approach to self-actualization.
Rogers emphasized understanding oneself and questioning personal motivations to achieve self-actualization.
151
Explain trait theories in psychology.
Trait theories suggest that personality can be understood through specific traits that influence behavior.
152
What are Allport's three categories of personality traits?
Allport categorized traits into cardinal traits, central traits, and secondary traits.
153
Describe Cattell's 16 PF assessment.
Cattell identified 16 dimensions of personality, assessed through the 16PF questionnaire, which evaluates various traits.
154
Summarize the Eysencks' study of personality.
The Eysencks focused on extroversion/introversion and neuroticism/stability, linking personality to genetics.
155
What is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?
The MMPI is a psychological assessment tool with 567 questions that produces a clinical profile across 10 scales.
156
Describe projective tests in psychology.
Projective tests assess unconscious processes by having individuals respond to ambiguous stimuli, like the Rorschach Inkblot Test.
157
Define psychopathology and etiology.
Psychopathology is the study of psychological disorders, while etiology refers to the causes of these disorders.
158
Explain the simplest approach to conceptualizing psychological disorders.
The simplest approach labels behaviors and thoughts that deviate from the norm as disorders, with 'atypical' indicating such deviations.
159
Discuss cultural differences in atypical behavior.
Cultural norms can influence perceptions of behavior, where actions considered normal in one culture may be viewed as strange in another.
160
List Wakefield’s 1992 definition of psychological disorder.
A psychological disorder is defined as a harmful dysfunction.
161
Summarize the APA definition of psychological disorders.
The APA defines psychological disorders as disturbances in thoughts, emotions, or behaviors that are culturally unexpected and cause distress.
162
Define diagnosis in psychology.
Diagnosis is the process of identifying and labeling a set of defined symptoms.
163
Discuss the purpose of the DSM-5 and define comorbidity.
The DSM-5 helps psychologists identify and describe various mental disorders, while comorbidity refers to the co-occurrence of multiple disorders.
164
Describe the evolution of the DSM and its criticisms.
The DSM evolved from its 1952 origins to the 2013 edition, which includes a broader range of disorders, facing criticism for its classifications.
165
Describe the supernatural perspective on mental disorders.
The supernatural perspective is the theory that disorders are caused by an unknown source, similar to historical beliefs where women exhibiting strange behavior were labeled as witches.
166
Summarize the biological perspective of mental disorders.
The biological perspective attributes mental disorders to genetic factors, chemical imbalances, and brain abnormalities, gaining significant agreement in the field.
167
Define the diathesis-stress model in psychology.
The diathesis-stress model integrates biological and psychosocial factors to predict the likelihood of developing a disorder, suggesting that adverse environmental or psychological events increase this likelihood.
168
Explain the difference between fear and anxiety.
Fear is an instantaneous response to a threat, while anxiety is a prolonged state of apprehension related to a negative event.
169
Define anxiety disorder.
Anxiety disorders are characterized by excessive and persistent fear and anxiety, leading to disturbances in behavior.
170
Differentiate between specific phobia and agoraphobia.
Specific phobia involves persistent fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation, while agoraphobia, known as the 'fear of the marketplace,' involves anxiety and avoidance of situations where escape might be difficult.
171
List the three ways phobias can be acquired according to Rachman.
Phobias can be acquired through classical conditioning, vicarious learning or modeling, and verbal transmission or information.
172
Describe social anxiety disorder and its components.
Social anxiety disorder involves avoidance of social situations due to fear of negative evaluation. Components include safety behaviors (like avoiding eye contact), self-medication (such as drinking), and behavioral inhibition, which is an inherited trait of fear in unfamiliar situations.
173
Define panic disorder and panic attack.
Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent and unexpected panic attacks, along with persistent concern about future attacks. A panic attack is a sudden episode of intense fear or anxiety that peaks within minutes.
174
Discuss possible causes of panic disorder.
Possible causes of panic disorder include genetic factors and specific brain functions.
175
Explain generalized anxiety disorders (GAD).
Generalized Anxiety Disorders involve a continuous state of excessive, uncontrollable anxiety about routine and everyday matters.
176
Describe obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and its related disorders.
OCD is marked by intrusive, unwanted thoughts and repetitive behaviors aimed at reducing anxiety. Related disorders also involve intrusive thoughts and compulsive behaviors.
177
Define OCD and its components: obsessions and compulsions.
OCD is characterized by intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive actions (compulsions). Common obsessions include fears of leaving appliances on, while common compulsions include checking and counting.
178
Define body dysmorphic disorder.
Body dysmorphic disorder involves an obsession with perceived flaws in appearance that are either nonexistent or not noticeable to others.
179
Define hoarding disorder.
Hoarding disorder is characterized by an inability to discard personal possessions, regardless of their actual value.
180
Describe the causes of OCD, including genetic and neurological factors.
Causes of OCD may include genetic predispositions, neurotransmitter imbalances, and a hyperactive orbitofrontal cortex.
181
Define PTSD and its diagnostic requirements.
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is diagnosed in individuals who have been exposed to or witnessed a traumatic event.
182
What factors increase the likelihood of developing PTSD?
Factors that increase the probability of PTSD include the severity of the trauma experienced and subsequent life stress.
183
Explain the role of learning in PTSD.
Learning plays a role in maintaining PTSD symptoms over time and informs effective treatment strategies.
184
Define mood disorders.
Mood disorders are severe disturbances in mood and emotions, primarily involving depression, but also including mania and elation.
185
Differentiate between depressive disorders and bipolar disorders.
Depressive disorders focus on depression as the main feature, while bipolar and related disorders involve episodes of mania alongside depression.
186
Explain major depressive disorder and its diagnostic criteria.
Major depressive disorder is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness, requiring at least two weeks of depressed mood or loss of interest, along with other symptoms.
187
What does episodic mean in the context of major depressive disorder?
Episodic refers to the pattern where symptoms are present at full magnitude for a specific period before gradually decreasing.
188
Discuss the results and risk factors associated with depression.
Results of depression can include inability to work, career abandonment, and lost wages, with some cases requiring hospitalization.
189
List the risk factors associated with depression.
Risk factors include unemployment, moving to urban areas, and separation from loved ones.
190
Define the Seasonal Pattern subtype of depression.
Seasonal Pattern is when individuals experience depression only during certain parts of the year.
191
What is Peripartum Onset depression?
Peripartum Onset refers to severe depression that a mother experiences after having a child.
192
Describe Persistent depressive disorder.
Persistent depressive disorder is characterized by constant depression lasting for years.
193
Define bipolar disorder and its characteristics.
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that involves alternating episodes of depression and mania.
194
What is a manic episode in bipolar disorder?
A manic episode is a distinct period of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting at least one week.
195
Explain the concept of flight of ideas in bipolar disorder.
Flight of ideas refers to a rapid shift from one topic to another in conversation.
196
Identify risk factors associated with bipolar disorder.
Risk factors include suicide, substance abuse, neglect of help, and anxiety.
197
Summarize the biological basis of mood and bipolar disorders.
Bipolar disorder often has a genetic component, with neurotransmitter imbalances in norepinephrine and serotonin affecting mood.
198
Describe the diathesis-stress model in relation to depression.
The diathesis-stress model suggests that depression is triggered by cognitive vulnerabilities and stressful life events.
199
What did Caspi's study reveal about genetics and depression?
Caspi's study found that individuals with certain gene variations are more likely to experience major depression after stressful events.
200
Explain Beck's cognitive theory of depression.
Beck theorized that individuals prone to depression have negative schemas that influence their thoughts and perceptions.
201
Define hopelessness theory in the context of depression.
Hopelessness theory posits that a specific style of negative thinking can lead to depression.
202
What is rumination in relation to depression?
Rumination involves dwelling on depressive symptoms rather than actively addressing them.
203
Discuss the nature of suicide and its risk factors.
Suicide is a self-inflicted death, with risk factors including substance abuse, depression, mania, and anxiety.
204
Define schizophrenia and its prevalence.
Schizophrenia is a psychological disorder characterized by disturbances in thought, emotion, and behavior, affecting about 1% of the population.
205
List the symptoms of schizophrenia.
Symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, and abnormal motor behavior.
206
Describe negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
Negative symptoms reflect noticeable decreases in behaviors, emotions, or drives.
207
What is known about the genetic influences of schizophrenia?
Both genetic vulnerability and environmental stress are necessary for the development of schizophrenia.
208
Explain the dopamine hypothesis in relation to schizophrenia.
The dopamine hypothesis suggests that imbalances in dopamine receptors contribute to the onset and maintenance of schizophrenia.
209
Describe the role of brain anatomy in schizophrenia.
Individuals with schizophrenia often have enlarged ventricles in the brain, indicating smaller surrounding brain areas.
210
What events during pregnancy increase the risk of schizophrenia in children?
Increased risk is associated with maternal flu during pregnancy, high emotional stress, and obstetric complications.
211
Summarize research on marijuana's role in schizophrenia.
Early marijuana use may increase the risk of developing schizophrenia, especially in those with existing vulnerabilities.
212
Define prodromal symptoms in the context of schizophrenia.
Prodromal symptoms include minor signs such as unusual thoughts, paranoia, and a decline in social functioning.
213
What are dissociative disorders?
Dissociative disorders involve a disconnection from one's core sense of self.
214
Differentiate between dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue.
Dissociative amnesia involves forgetting information after a stressful event, while dissociative fugue includes wandering and memory loss of identity.
215
Describe depersonalization disorder.
Depersonalization disorder involves feelings of unreality or detachment from one's self.
216
What is derealization disorder?
Derealization disorder is characterized by a sense of unreality or detachment from the world and surroundings.
217
Define dissociative identity disorder and its controversy.
Dissociative identity disorder involves two or more distinct personality states and is controversial due to its sudden increase in reported cases.
218
Describe ADHD and its symptoms.
ADHD is characterized by patterns of inattention and/or hyperactive and impulsive behavior that interfere with functioning.
219
What are the prevalence and life problems associated with ADHD?
ADHD affects a significant number of individuals and can lead to various life problems, including academic and social difficulties.
220
Describe the symptoms of ADHD.
Symptoms of ADHD include short attention spans, problems with concentration, and distractibility.
221
What is the prevalence of ADHD in children?
The prevalence of ADHD is about 8% of children.
222
How many children with ADHD continue to experience symptoms into adulthood?
About 60% of children with ADHD will continue to experience symptoms into adulthood.
223
List some life problems associated with ADHD.
Life problems associated with ADHD include worse educational attainment, low socioeconomic status, and occupational problems.
224
Define autism spectrum disorder.
Autism spectrum disorder is characterized by an inability to form close emotional ties, speech and language abnormalities, repetitive behaviors, and intolerance of minor changes.
225
Describe the symptoms of autism spectrum disorder.
Symptoms include deficits in social interaction, deficits in communication, and repetitive patterns of behavior or interests.
226
What are some life problems faced by individuals with autism spectrum disorder?
Some individuals can live and work independently, but most do not due to serious impairments in many areas of life.
227
Discuss the known causes of autism spectrum disorder.
Causes are usually linked to genetic alterations, but the exact causes remain largely unknown.
228
What controversy arose in the 90s regarding autism and vaccines?
A medical journal published an article suggesting that the MMR vaccine triggers autism, leading to ongoing debate about vaccination.
229
Define personality disorder.
Personality disorders exhibit a personality style that differs from cultural expectations, begins in adolescence or early adulthood, and causes distress or impairment.
230
List the three clusters of personality disorders.
Cluster A includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders; Cluster B includes antisocial, histrionic, narcissistic, and borderline personality disorders; Cluster C includes avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders.
231
Describe borderline personality disorder.
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, mood, and marked impulsivity.
232
What are some possible causes of borderline personality disorder?
Possible causes include genetics and childhood abuse.
233
Explain antisocial personality disorder.
Individuals with antisocial personality disorder show no regard for others' rights or feelings and view the world as self-serving.
234
What are some risk factors for antisocial personality disorder?
Risk factors include violence, troubled behavior, and disorganization.
235
Define psychotherapy.
Psychotherapy is a treatment that uses various methods to help individuals overcome problems or achieve personal growth.
236
What is biomedical therapy?
Biomedical therapy involves medication and/or procedures to treat psychological disorders.
237
Explain psychoanalysis and its key components.
Psychoanalysis is a talking therapy that includes free association, dream analysis, and transference.
238
Describe free association in psychoanalysis.
In free association, the patient relaxes and says whatever comes to mind.
239
What is dream analysis in psychoanalysis?
Dream analysis involves the therapist interpreting the underlying meaning of dreams.
240
Define transference in psychoanalysis.
Transference occurs when a patient transfers emotions associated with other relationships to the psychoanalyst.
241
Explain behavior therapy.
Behavior therapy helps clients change undesirable behaviors through various techniques.
242
What is counter conditioning?
Counter conditioning is when a client learns a new response to a stimulus that previously elicited an undesirable behavior.
243
Describe aversive conditioning.
Aversive conditioning uses an unpleasant stimulus to stop an undesirable behavior.
244
What is exposure therapy?
Exposure therapy treats anxiety by presenting clients with the object or situation that causes their problem.
245
Explain systemic desensitization.
Systemic desensitization involves creating a hierarchy of anxiety-inducing stimuli, from least to most anxiety-provoking.
246
Define a token economy.
A token economy is an operant conditioning intervention where individuals are reinforced for desirable behaviors with tokens that can be exchanged for items or privileges.
247
What is cognitive therapy?
Cognitive therapy focuses on how thoughts lead to feelings of distress and was developed by Aaron Beck.
248
Describe cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT).
CBT focuses on present issues and includes the ABC model: Action, Belief, and Consequence.
249
What are cognitive distortions?
Cognitive distortions include all-or-nothing thinking, overgeneralization, and jumping to conclusions.
250
Explain humanistic therapies.
Humanistic therapies help individuals become more self-aware and accepting of themselves.
251
What was Carl Rogers' contribution to therapy?
Carl Rogers changed the term 'patients' to 'clients' to emphasize a more collaborative therapeutic relationship.
252
Define psychotropic medication.
Psychotropic medications are treatments for various psychological disorders, often most effective when combined with psychotherapy.
253
List the types of psychotropic medications and their uses.
Antipsychotics treat schizophrenia and positive psychotic symptoms; atypical antipsychotics target both dopamine and serotonin; antidepressants alter neurotransmitter levels to treat depression and anxiety.
254
Describe the role of anti-anxiety agents in mental health treatment.
Anti-anxiety agents depress central nervous system activity and treat anxiety and agitation that occur in conditions such as OCD, PTSD, panic disorder, and social phobia.
255
Explain the purpose of mood stabilizers.
Mood stabilizers treat episodes of mania as well as depression and are primarily used for bipolar disorder.
256
How do stimulants assist individuals with ADHD?
Stimulants improve the ability to focus on a task and maintain attention, effectively treating ADHD.
257
Describe the difference between individual and group therapy.
In individual therapy, the patient meets one-on-one with the therapist, while in group therapy, the therapist meets with multiple patients who have similar problems.
258
Explain the concept of couples therapy.
Couples therapy involves two people in an intimate relationship who are experiencing difficulties and are working to resolve them.
259
Define family therapy and its structure.
Family therapy is a special form of group therapy that includes one or more families, where each member influences and is influenced by the others.
260
Define social psychology.
Social psychology examines how people affect one another and explores the power of the situation.
261
Differentiate between intrapersonal and interpersonal topics.
Intrapersonal topics include emotions, attitudes, the self, and social cognition, while interpersonal topics cover helping behavior, aggression, prejudice, discrimination, and attraction.
262
Describe situational and dispositional influences on behavior.
Situationism suggests that behavior is determined by immediate environment, while dispositionism posits that behavior is influenced by internal factors.
263
Define the fundamental attribution error.
The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to overlook situational variables when assessing another person's behavior, attributing it instead to their character.
264
How did the quizmaster study illustrate the fundamental attribution error?
In the quizmaster study, participants assigned as questioners developed difficult questions and were perceived as more intelligent than contestants, despite the questioners having prior knowledge.
265
Describe the halo effect.
The halo effect is the tendency to let an overall impression of an individual influence our perception of their character.
266
Discuss cultural differences in the fundamental attribution error.
In individualistic cultures, behavior is often attributed to personal disposition, while collectivist cultures focus on communal relationships and are less likely to commit the fundamental attribution error.
267
Explain the actor-observer bias as described by Nisbett.
The actor-observer bias refers to the tendency to attribute others' behaviors to internal factors while attributing our own behaviors to situational forces, due to differing information availability.
268
Define attribution and its significance.
Attribution is the belief about the cause of a result, influencing how we explain events, such as a sports team's victories.
269
Describe the self-serving bias.
Self-serving biases are attributions that allow individuals to view themselves in a favorable light.
270
Define the just world hypothesis.
The just-world hypothesis is the belief that people receive outcomes they deserve, akin to the concept of karma.
271
What are social roles and social norms?
Social roles are expected patterns of behavior in a given setting, while social norms are group expectations of appropriate behavior.
272
Explain the concept of scripts in social psychology.
Scripts are individuals' knowledge about the expected sequence of events in specific settings.
273
How did the Stanford Prison Experiment illustrate roles, norms, and scripts?
The Stanford Prison Experiment showed that individuals adapt their behavior to fit the roles and expectations associated with their assigned positions, even if those behaviors are not accurate representations of reality.
274
Define attitudes and their influences.
Attitudes are evaluations of people, ideas, or objects, influenced by both external and internal factors.
275
Discuss cognitive dissonance and its impact on attitudes.
Cognitive dissonance is the psychological discomfort from holding inconsistent attitudes or behaviors, which can lead to changes in those attitudes.
276
What is justification of effort?
Justification of effort suggests that individuals value goals and achievements that require significant effort.
277
Define persuasion and summarize the Yale Attitude Change Approach.
Persuasion is the process of changing attitudes through communication, and the Yale Attitude Change Approach outlines conditions under which people are likely to change their attitudes.
