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ANP 1111 > Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of epithelia?

A

Protection (mechanical, chemical, infectious) (skin), absorptions (GI tract), filtration (kidneys), excretion (kidney), secretion (glands) and sensory reception (taste buds)

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2
Q

What are the 5 characteristics of epithelial tissue?

A
  1. Polarity
  2. Specialized contacts
  3. Supported by connective tissue
  4. Innervated but avascular
  5. Regeneration
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3
Q

How are epithelial cells classified?

A

By shape (squamous, cuboidal, columnar)
By number of layers (simple, stratified)

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4
Q

Describe simple squamous epithelium

A

Single layer of flattened cells; diffusion, filtration and secretion; found in kidneys, lungs, heart, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels and serosae

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5
Q

Describe simple cuboidal epithelium

A

Single layer of cuboidal cells; secretion and absorption; found in kidney tubules, ducts and secretory portions of small glands and ovary surface

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6
Q

Describe simple columnar epithelium

A

Single layer of tall cells; many have microvilli or cilia; may contain mucus-secreting unicellular glands; absorption and secretion; found in digestive tract, gallbladder, excretory ducts, small bronchi, uterine tubes and regions of the uterus

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7
Q

Describe pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

Single layer of cells of differing heights (all touch basement mem., not all reach surface); may contain mucus-secreting cells and bear cilia; secrete substances (particularly mucus); non-ciliated in sperm-carrying ducts and ducts of large glands; ciliated line trachea

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8
Q

Describe stratified squamous epithelium

A

Basal cells are cuboidal or columnar and metabolically active, surface cells are squamous; protects underlying tissues in areas subjected to abrasion; linings of esophagus, mouth and vagina, skin

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9
Q

Describe stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

Rare in the body; found in sweat and mammary glands; has 2 layers of cuboidal cells

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10
Q

Describe stratified columnar epithelium

A

Rare; small amounts found in pharynx, male urethra and glandular ducts; occurs in transition areas; only apical layer is columnar

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11
Q

Describe transitional epithelium

A

Basal cells are cuboidal or columnar; surface cells dome shaped (squamous-like); stretches readily; lines ureters, bladder and part of urethra

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12
Q

Describe endocrine glands

A

Internally secreting; ductless (empty hormonal products into blood); mostly compact multicellular organs, some unicellular

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13
Q

Describe exocrine glands

A

Externally secreting; secrete products onto body surfaces or into cavities (i.e. mucous, sweat, oil, saliva)

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14
Q

Describe unicellular exocrine glands

A

No ducts; found in epithelial linings of intestinal and respiratory tracts; mucous and goblet cells; exocytosis

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15
Q

Describe multicellular exocrine glands

A

Consist of an epithelium-derived duct and secretory unit; supportive CT surrounds secretory unit, supplies it with blood vessels and nerve fibers

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16
Q

Describe merocrine glands

A

Secrete products by exocytosis; pancreas, salivary glands and most sweat glands

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17
Q

Describe holocrine glands

A

Accumulate products until they rupture; replaced with underlying cells; sebaceous (oil) glands

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18
Q

Describe apocrine glands

A

Accumulate products just beneath the free surface; apex of cell pinches off, releasing secretory granules; controversial; mammary glands are both holocrine and apocrine

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19
Q

What are the functions of connective tissue?

A

Binding and supporting (ligaments, bones); protecting (bone, adipose); insulating (fat tissue); storing reserve fuel; transporting (blood)

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20
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of connective tissue?

A

Common Origin - arise from mesenchyme (embryonic tissue); Degrees of Vascularity; Extracellular Matrix - largely composed of nonliving extracellular matrix which separates living cells; allows tissue to bear weight

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21
Q

What is connective tissue ground substance?

A

Unstructured material that fills the space between the cells and contains fibers; composed of interstitial fluid, cell adhesion proteins (CT glue) and proteoglycans (trap water, GAGs); molecular sieve for nutrients and other substances to diffuse through to capillaries/cells

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22
Q

Describe collagen CT fibers

A

Cross-linked; extremely tough

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23
Q

Describe elastic CT fibers

A

Branching network; snap CT back into place after being stretched

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24
Q

Describe reticular CT fibers

A

Collagenous fibers; delicate network; surround blood vessels and support soft tissue of organs

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25
Q

Describe the 2 types of connective tissue cells

A

Immature (-blast) cells are actively mitotic
mature (-cyte) cells maintain health of the matrix

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26
Q

Describe areolar CT

A

gel-like matrix with all 3 fiber types, cells - fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells and some WBCs, loose arrangements of fibers, reservoir of water and salts

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27
Q

What is the function of areolar CT?

A

cushions organs, role in inflammation and fluid reservoir

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28
Q

Where is areolar CT found?

A

under epithelia, surrounds organs and capillaries; most common CT

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29
Q

Describe adipose CT

A

closely packed fat-filled adipocytes with displaced nuclei, do not reproduce, sparse matrix

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30
Q

What is the function of adipose CT?

A

fuel reservoir, insulation, supports and protects organs

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31
Q

Where is adipose CT found?

A

under skin, around kidneys and eyeballs, in bones and within abdomen, in breasts

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32
Q

Describe reticular CT

A

Loose network of reticular fibers in a gel-like ground substance

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33
Q

What is the function of reticular CT?

A

fibers form a soft internal skeleton that supports free blood cells

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34
Q

Where is reticular CT found?

A

lymphoid organs (lymph nodes, bone marrow, spleen)

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35
Q

Describe dense regular CT

A

bundles of collagen fibers running parallel to the direction of the pull

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36
Q

What is the function of dense regular CT?

A

withstands great tensile stress in one direction

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37
Q

Where is dense regular CT found?

A

tendons (attach muscles to bones, ligaments (attach bones to bones) and aponeuroses

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38
Q

Describe dense irregular CT

A

same as regular, but collagen bundles are thicker and arranged irregularly

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39
Q

What is the function of dense irregular CT?

A

withstand tension exerted in many directions; structural strength

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40
Q

Where is dense irregular CT found?

A

dermis of the skin, submucosa of digestive tract and fibrous capsules of organs and joints

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41
Q

Describe elastic CT

A

regular CT with a high proportion of elastic fibers

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42
Q

What is the function of elastic CT?

A

allows tissue to recoil after stretching

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43
Q

Where is elastic CT found?

A

walls of arteries; within certain ligaments; within walls of bronchial tubes

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44
Q

Describe cartilage

A

Stands up to both tension and compression; tough but flexible; lacks nerve fibers and is avascular; ground substance contains lots of GAGs; large amounts of fluid

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45
Q

Describe bone

A

Supports and protects body structures; harder than cartilage b/c more collagen fibers and calcium; osteoblasts produce organic portion of matrix; well supplied by blood vessels

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46
Q

Describe blood

A

Classified as CT b/c it consists of cells surrounded by a nonliving fluid matrix (blood plasma); carries nutrients, wastes and respiratory gases

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47
Q

What are tight junctions?

A

Fusion of adjacent plasma membranes to prevent passage of molecules; impermeable junction

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48
Q

What are desmosomes?

A

Anchoring junctions; act like velcro; molecular linking of cells to resist mechanical stress; reduced chance of tearing; found in skin

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49
Q

What are hemidesmosomes?

A

multiprotein complexes that facilitate the stable adhesion of basal epithelial cells to the underlying basement membrane.

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50
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

Molecular channels between cells that allow passage of cytoplasmic molecules; important for communication; found in heart

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51
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

Secretion of substances (i.e. hormones, neurotransmitters); substance is enclosed in a vesicle which migrates to plasma membrane, fuses with it and then ruptures

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52
Q

What is a cell?

A

A fundamental structural and functional unit of a living thing

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53
Q

What is a tissue?

A

Groups of similar cells that have a common function

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54
Q

What is an organ?

A

A structure composed of at least 2 (but usually 4) tissue types that performs a specific function

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55
Q

What is an organ system?

A

A group of organs that work closely with one another to accomplish a common purpose

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56
Q

What is the axial part of the skeleton?

A

The head, neck, and trunk

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57
Q

What is the appendicular part of the skeleton?

A

Appendages or limbs attached to axis

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58
Q

What is a sagittal plane?

A

A vertical plane dividing the body into left and right parts

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59
Q

What is a frontal (coronal) plane?

A

A vertical plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts

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60
Q

What is a transverse plane?

A

A horizontal plane that divides the body into superior and inferior parts

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61
Q

What is the dorsal body cavity?

A

The body cavity containing the cranial and vertebral (spinal) cavity

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62
Q

What is the cranial cavity?

A

The body cavity containing the brain. It is enclosed by the skull

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63
Q

What is the vertebral (spinal) cavity?

A

The body cavity containing the spinal cord. It is enclosed by the vertebral column

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64
Q

What is the ventral body cavity?

A

The body cavity containing the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

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65
Q

What is the thoracic cavity?

A

2 lateral pleural cavities for the lungs, and one central pericardial cavity for the heart.

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66
Q

What is the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

A superior abdominal cavity and an inferior pelvic cavity

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67
Q

What organs does the abdominal cavity contain?

A

The stomach, intestines, liver, and spleen

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68
Q

What organs does the pelvic cavity contain?

A

The bladder, some reproductive organs, the rectum

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69
Q

What structure separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?

A

The diaphragm

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70
Q

What structure separates the abdominal and pelvic cavities?

A

Nothing

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71
Q

In which cavity do organs receive the least protection from physical trauma?

A

The abdominal cavity

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72
Q

What are the 9 abdominopelvic regions?

A

hypochondriac (L/R), epigastric, lumbar (L/R), umbilical, iliac (L/R), hypogastric

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73
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

A self-regulating process by which an organism tends to maintain stability while adjusting to conditions that are best for its survival

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74
Q

What are the 3 essential characteristics of homeostasis?

A

Receptor, control center, effector

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75
Q

What is the function of the receptor in homeostasis?

A

Senses change (stimulus) and sends information (via the afferent pathway) to the control center

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76
Q

What is the function of the control center in homeostasis?

A

Determines the set point for variable maintenance, analyzes information and determines the appropriate response

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77
Q

What is the function of the effector in homeostasis?

A

Provides a means for response (output along the efferent pathway). Feedback (negative or positive) allows for regulation within a range or an enhanced response

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78
Q

Describe the goal of negative feedback

A

To prevent sudden, severe changes

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79
Q

Describe the process of negative feedback

A

Output reduces or shuts off the stimulus.

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80
Q

Describe the goal of positive feedback

A

To enhance the original stimulus so that output is further stimulated

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81
Q

The anterior regions of the hypothalamus control the:

A

parasympathetic nervous system

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82
Q

The posterior regions of the hypothalamus control the:

A

sympathetic nervous system

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83
Q

What is a hormone?

A

A chemical substance released directly into the ECF that regulates the function of other cells in the body

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84
Q

Level of target cell activation depends on:

A
  1. Hormone concentration
  2. Target cell receptor content
  3. Affinity of hormone for receptor
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85
Q

What are integral membrane proteins?

A

Proteins that span the plasma membrane. They have hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions, and function as channels or carriers

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86
Q

What are peripheral proteins?

A

Proteins that are attached to integral proteins, often on the internal face of the plasma membrane. Involved in attachment functions and shape changes. Can also function as receptors if they are on the cell surface

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87
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

Anchors to the plasma membrane, organizes other constituents of the cell, maintains the cell’s shape, and is responsible for the locomotion of the cell itself and the movement of the various organelles within it.

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88
Q

What is the glycocalyx?

A

Mix of carbohydrates attached to lipids and proteins on the outer face of the of the plasma membrane. Allows cells to recognize one another

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89
Q

What is the function of cholesterol?

A

Reduces general membrane fluidity and stabilizes its structure.

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90
Q

What are connexons?

A

An assembly of six proteins called connexins that form the pore for a gap junction between the cytoplasm of two adjacent cells. This channel allows for bidirectional flow of ions and signaling molecules. Electrically excitable.

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91
Q

What are some functions of plasma membrane proteins?

A

Transport, intercellular joining, enzymatic activity, cell-cell recognition, receptors for signal transduction, attachment to ECM

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92
Q

What is a function of plasma membranes?

A

To provide a selectively permeable, hydrophobic barrier between the interstital fluid and the cytoplasm

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93
Q

What is interstitial fluid?

A

A filtrate of blood containing salts, sugars, amino acids, vitamins, hormones, metabolites, and gases such as CO2 and O2

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94
Q

What does excess cholesterol do?

A

Cause the membrane to lose flexibility

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95
Q

How do water-soluble molecules cross the plasma membrane?

A

Facilitated diffusion

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96
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

The passive movement of molecules across the cell membrane via the aid of a transmembrane integral protein

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97
Q

What are 4 characteristics of facilitated diffusion for water-soluble molecules?

A
  1. Specific
  2. Not ATP requiring
  3. Limited by carrier/channel saturation
  4. movement DOWN a concentration gradient
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98
Q

What is carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion?

A

Molecules are “helped” through the membrane by a membrane component

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99
Q

When is carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion used?

A

With lipid-insoluble molecules that are too large to pass through membrane channels or pores

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100
Q

What are leaky channels?

A

Some ion channels that are always slightly open

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101
Q

Channel mediated facilitated diffusion is ___ due to ___ and ___ of ___ that line the channels

A

Selective
Pore size
Charges
Amino acids

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102
Q

What are gated channels?

A

Ion channels that require some signal in order to be activated and opened

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103
Q

What are aquaporins?

A

Water channels on many cells

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104
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

Total concentration of solute particles in a solution

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105
Q

What is tonicity?

A

Ability of a solution to change the shape of a cell by altering its water content

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106
Q

What is an isotonic solution?

A

Solutions that contain the same concentration of water and solutes as the cell cytoplasm

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107
Q

What is a hypertonic solution?

A

The solute concentration is higher than that inside the cell, and the solutes cannot cross the membrane

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108
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

The solute concentration is lower than that inside the cell

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109
Q

Molecules that are ionically bonded have ___ than those that are covalently bonded

A

Greater osmotic power

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110
Q

How are hypertonic solutions used in patients?

A

Used carefully and with monitoring for edema; pull water out of swollen cells

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111
Q

How are hypotonic solutions used in patients?

A

Used carefully and with monitoring to rehydrate severely dehydrated patients

112
Q

Active transport requires ATP because the substance is:

A

1) Too large for pores and is lipid insoluble
2) Moving against its concentration gradient

113
Q

Active transport requires a carrier. What does it do?

A

Combines specifically and reversibly with a substance to help it across the plasma membrane

114
Q

Unlike facilitated diffusion, active transport solute pumps move substances:

A

AGAINST their concentration gradients

115
Q

What is a symporter?

A

A membrane protein that facilitates the simultaneous transport of two distinct substances across the cell membrane in the SAME DIRECTION (S for same!)

116
Q

What is an antiporter?

A

A membrane protein that transports two molecules across the cell membrane at the same time in the OPPOSITE DIRECTION

117
Q

Does passive transport require energy?

A

NO!

118
Q

Oxygen and water enter the cell through:

A

Simple diffusion

119
Q

How do aquaporins work?

A

The inside of the channel protein is hydrophilic, drawing water to/through it

120
Q

Describe osmosis and explain its role in fluid homeostasis

A

Unassisted diffusion of water from area of more water to area of less water across a semipermeable membrane

121
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

Means by which large particles can enter the cell. Vesicle encloses substance, pinches off, and moves into the cytoplasm. Contents may be digested, or they may traverse the cell to exit the other side

122
Q

What are 3 types of endocytosis?

A

Phagocytosis (bacteria, cell debris), Pinocytosis (fluid plus dissolved substances), Receptor-mediated (allows hormones, enzymes, and other important macromolecules to be concentrated within a cell)

123
Q

What is a tract?

A

Bundle of nerve processes in the CNS

124
Q

What is a nerve?

A

Bundle of nerve processes in the PNS

125
Q

What is anterograde transport?

A

When substances are going toward the axon terminal

126
Q

What is retrograde transport?

A

When substances are going toward the cell body

127
Q

What are the 4 types of neuroglia in the CNS?

A
  1. Astrocytes
  2. Microglia
  3. Ependymal cells
  4. Oligodendrocytes
128
Q

What are astrocytes?

A

Star-shaped, most abundant, anchor neurons close to capillaries

129
Q

What are microglia?

A

Protective. Touch neurons to monitor wellbeing. Can transform into macrophages to engulf micro-organisms and cellular debris

130
Q

What are ependymal cells?

A

Line cavities of the brain and spinal cord. Barrier between CSF and fluid bathing cells of CNS. Cilia circulate CSF

131
Q

What are oligodendrocytes?

A

Provide myelin sheaths to CNS neurons

132
Q

What are the 2 types of neuroglia in the PNS?

A
  1. Satellite cells
  2. Schwann cells
133
Q

What are satellite cells?

A

Surround cell bodies in ganglia. Thought to perform similar functions to astrocytes in the CNS.

134
Q

What are schwann cells?

A

Form myelin sheaths around larger neurons in PNS. Vital to peripheral nerve cell regenration.

135
Q

Sensory neurons carry signals:

A

Towards the CNS

136
Q

Motor neurons carry signals:

A

Away from the CNS to effector organs

137
Q

What are association neurons (interneurons)?

A

Neurons between sensory and motor neurons. Most entirely within the CNS. Make up around 99% of neurons in the body

138
Q

Without the sodium-potassium pump, the electrochemical gradient would be:

A

Lost because all the potassium would leave the cell.

139
Q

What are graded potentials?

A

Graded potential is a small transient change in the membrane potential that occurs in varying grades or degrees of magnitude or strength.

140
Q

What are action potentials?

A

Action potentials are brief, rapid, large changes in the membrane potential and are produced in excitable cells (nerve and muscle) when the resting potential is altered

141
Q

What makes graded potentials and action potentials different?

A
  1. Action potentials serve as long-distance signals whereas graded potentials serve as short-distance signals.
  2. The graded potentials are small changes in the membrane potential that can reinforce or negate each other. In contrast, the action potentials are large (100 mV) changes in the membrane potential that can serve as faithful long- distance signals.
142
Q

What are the steps of an action potential?

A

Resting potential - depolarization - repolarization - hyperpolarization

143
Q

What is the function of myelin sheath?

A

Speeds up propagation of action potentials.

144
Q

What are the 3 types of termination?

A
  1. Degradation by enzymes of postsynaptic membrane
  2. Reuptake by presynaptic terminal
  3. Diffusion away from synaptic site
145
Q

What are the 7 chemical classifications of neurotransmitters?

A
  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Biogenic amines
  3. Amino acids
  4. Neuropeptides
  5. Purines
  6. Gases and lipids
  7. Endocannabinoids
146
Q

What are the 2 functional classifications of neurotransmitters?

A
  1. Effects (Excitatory vs Inhibitory)
  2. Actions (Direct vs Indirect)
147
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

Additional stimuli added before muscle relaxation is complete. This is also known as the staircase effect, as each addition of stimuli results in higher muscle tension

148
Q

What is unfused tetanus?

A

Higher stimulation frequency results in unfused tetanus. Near constant muscle tension, but short waves are present in the graph

149
Q

What is fused tetanus?

A

At even higher stimulus frequencies, there is no relaxation at all between stimuli.

150
Q

What are isotonic muscle contractions?

A

Muscle contractions where the muscle changes in length

151
Q

What are the 2 types of isotonic muscle contractions?

A

Concentric (shortening) and eccentric (lengthening)

152
Q

What are isometric muscle contractions?

A

Muscle contractions where the muscle does not change in length (M for maintain)

153
Q

The sympathetic NS controls:

A

Fight or flight

154
Q

The parasympathetic NS controls:

A

Rest and digest

155
Q

What are the parts of the brain that compose the diencephalon?

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus

156
Q

What parts of the brain compose the brainstem?

A

Midbrain, pons, medulla

157
Q

Where is the cerebellum located?

A

At the back of the brain

158
Q

What is gray matter?

A

Short, nonmyelinated neurons and neuron cell bodies

159
Q

What is white matter?

A

Primarily myelinated axons

160
Q

The spinal cord has a central cavity surrounded by:

A

Gray matter (in the shape of a butterfly)

161
Q

The ventricles of the brain are continuous with one another and the spinal cord, filled with __, and lined with __

A

CSF, ependymal cells

162
Q

The paired lateral ventricles are separated by the:

A

septum pellucidum

163
Q

Each ventricle communicates with the third ventricle in the diencephalon via the:

A

Interventricular foramen

164
Q

3 apertures (paired lateral and single median) connect ventricles to the:

A

subarachnoid space

165
Q

Where is the median aperture located?

A

Near the base of the cerebellum

166
Q

A gyrus is an:

A

outwards projection of the brain (a bump)

167
Q

A sulcus is an:

A

indentation of the brain (invagination)

168
Q

Fissures are:

A

very deep sulci

169
Q

The central sulcus separates the:

A

Frontal and parietal lobes

170
Q

The lateral sulcus separates the:

A

Parietal and temporal lobes

171
Q

The parieto-occipital sulcus separates the:

A

Parietal and occipital lobes

172
Q

The transverse cerebral fissure separates the:

A

Occipital lobe and cerebellum

173
Q

The longitudinal fissure separates the:

A

Left and right hemispheres of the brain

174
Q

The corpora ………………………………. are part of the midbrain and are composed of visual reflex centres and also house the startle reflex.

A

quadrigemina

175
Q

Region of the limbic system that is associated with the emotions of anger and fear.

A

amygdala

176
Q

Term that indicates that each cerebral hemisphere has some abilities that are slightly different from those of the opposite hemisphere.

A

lateralization

177
Q

This is often referred to as the gateway to the cerebral cortex.

A

thalamus

178
Q

This cranial nerve handles sensory information pertaining to hearing and balance.

A

vestibulocochlear

179
Q

Connective tissue wrapping around a single nerve fiber.

A

endoneurium

180
Q

The name of this midbrain nucleus (2 words) refers to its dark colour due to a high content of melanin.

A

substantia nigra

181
Q

The cerebellum consists of the anterior, posterior, and …………………….. lobes.

A

flocculonodular

182
Q

This cranial nerve stimulates the lateral rectus muscle of the eye.

A

abducens

183
Q

The gray …………………………….. connects the left and right wings of gray matter in the spinal cord.

A

commissure

184
Q

The …………….. gyrus is the primary somatosensory cortex.

A

postcentral

185
Q

This type of sensory information (adjective)) tells you where parts of your body are at any moment in time.

A

proprioceptive

186
Q

The lentiform nucleus consists of the ………………… and the globus pallidus.

A

putamen

187
Q

Supporting cell that lines the fluid-filled cavities of the brain.

A

ependymal

188
Q

Neural supporting cell that surrounds neural cell bodies in ganglia

A

satellite

189
Q

This spinal nerve targets the diaphragm and is essential for breathing.

A

phrenic

190
Q

The cerebral …………………….. connects the third and fourth ventricles.

A

aqueduct

191
Q

The mapping of a body area to a specific region in the brain.

A

somatotopy

192
Q

There are three of them and they connect the cerebellum to different areas of the brainstem.

A

peduncles

193
Q

Name the 12 cranial nerves

A
  1. olfactory
  2. optic
  3. oculomotor
  4. trochlear
  5. trigeminal
  6. abducens
  7. facial
  8. vestibulocochlear
  9. glossopharyngeal
  10. vagus
  11. accessory
  12. hypoglossal
194
Q

The primary motor cortex is located in the:

A

precentral gyrus

195
Q

What is the function of the premotor cortex?

A

Helps plan movements by selecting and sequencing basic movements into more complex tasks. Coordinates movement of several muscle groups sequentially/simultaneously by activating the motor cortex

196
Q

What is broca’s area?

A

an area of the brain devoted to speech. Present in only one hemisphere - usually the left.

197
Q

What is the function of frontal eye field?

A

controls voluntary movements of the eyes

198
Q

What is the primary somatosensory cortex?

A

An area of the brain in the postcentral gyrus that receives information from somatic sensory receptors and proprioceptors

199
Q

What is the somatic association cortex?

A

Integrates and analyzes somatic inputs. Interprets size, texture, relationship of parts based on prior experience

200
Q

What is the primary visual cortex?

A

An area of the brain that contains a map of visual space on the retina. Located at the posterior tip of the occipital lobe

201
Q

What is the function of the visual association area?

A

Interprets a visual image based on prior experience

202
Q

What is the result of damage to the visual association area?

A

Vision is not impaired, but the individual will not know what they are looking at

203
Q

What is the result of damage to the primary visual cortex?

A

The individual cannot see

204
Q

What is visual agnosia?

A

The inability to recognize/understand what you are seeing

205
Q

What happens in the primary auditory cortex?

A

Sound is evaluated for pitch, rhythm, and loudness

206
Q

What happens at the auditory association area?

A

Sounds are interpreted based on memory

207
Q

What happens in the vestibular cortex?

A

Awareness of balance. Posterior part of the insula and the adjacent parietal cortex. Located deep in the lateral sulcus

208
Q

Where is the olfactory cortex?

A

The medial aspects of the temporal lobes (uncus)

209
Q

What is the function of the olfactory cortex?

A

Conscious awareness of different odours

210
Q

Where is the gustatory cortex located?

A

The insula

211
Q

What is the function of the gustatory cortex?

A

Conscious awareness of different flavours

212
Q

Where is the visceral sensory area located?

A

Posterior to the gustatory cortex

213
Q

What is the function of the visceral sensory area?

A

Continuously monitors the activities of the visceral organs so that the autonomic motor neurons can make adjustments as necessary to ensure optimal performance of visceral functions.

214
Q

What is the anterior association area (prefrontal cortex)?

A

Most complicated cortical area, associated with intellect, complex learning, recall, personality, abstract ideas, judgement, reasoning, persistence, planning, concern, conscience. Matures slowly, relies on feedback from social environment. Closely linked to the limbic system and involved in mood.

215
Q

What is the posterior association area?

A

Parts of temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes. Input from all sensory association areas allows for the storage of complex memories. Linked to sensory input and localization of self and surroundings in space.

216
Q

Someone with damage to the posterior association area might:

A

Unknowingly neglect one side of their body because they do not perceive it as their own. This is called contralateral neglect

217
Q

What is the function of wernicke’s area?

A

Understanding written and spoken language

218
Q

What is the function of the limbic association area?

A

Provides emotional impact/insight based on prior experience or learning.

219
Q

What are commissural fibers?

A

Connect corresponding areas between the 2 cerebral hemispheres. largest is the corpus collosum

220
Q

What are association fibers?

A

Form connections within a hemisphere (connect gyri, lobes, etc.)

221
Q

What are projection fibers?

A

Fibers to or from the cortex and the rest of the nervous system. These fibers runs vertically.

222
Q

What are basal nuclei?

A

The basal ganglia, or basal nuclei, are a group of subcortical structures found deep within the white matter of the brain. They form a part of the extrapyramidal motor system and work in tandem with the pyramidal and limbic systems.

223
Q

What is the function of the putamen?

A

The putamen is involved in learning and motor control, including speech articulation, language functions, reward, cognitive functioning, and addiction

224
Q

What is the function of the globus pallidus?

A

The main function of the globus pallidus is to control conscious and proprioceptive movements

225
Q

What is the function of the caudate nucleus?

A

The caudate nucleus functions not only in planning the execution of movement, but also in learning, memory, reward, motivation, emotion, and romantic interaction

226
Q

Disorders with basal nuclei can result in:

A

Too much movement (huntingtons) or too little movement (parkinsons)

227
Q

What is the thalamus?

A

2 masses of gray matter held together by a midline commissure called the interthalamic adhesion

228
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

Autonomic control center, center for emotional response and behaviour, body temperature regulation, regulation of food intake, regulation of water balance, regulation of sleep, control of endocrine system

229
Q

What part of the hypothalamus controls sleep-wake cycles?

A

The suprachiasmatic nucleus

230
Q

Which parts of the hypothalamus controls the endocrine system?

A

Supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei

231
Q

What is the epithalamus?

A

The most dorsal part of the diencephalon, and forms roof of the third ventricle. The pineal gland extends from its dorsal border. The choroid plexus (CSF producing) is also part of the epithalamus

232
Q

Order the layers of the spine from deep to superficial

A

Pia mater, subarachnoid space, arachnoid mater, subdural space, meningeal layer of the dura, epidural space, periosteal layer of the dura

233
Q

The brainstem controls:

A

automatic behaviours essential to survival

234
Q

What are the components of the midbrain?

A

2 cerebral peduncles, cerebral aqueduct, periaqueductal gray matter, corpora quadrigemina (2 superior and 2 inferior colliculi)

235
Q

The superior colliculi are:

A

Visual reflex centers when visually following a moving object

236
Q

The inferior colliculi are:

A

Part of auditory relay, also house the startle reflex

237
Q

What is the substantia nigra?

A

A band-like nucleus with high melanin content, linked to basal nuclei of cerebral hemispheres

238
Q

What is the function of melanin in the substantia nigra?

A

Synthesizes dopamine

239
Q

What is the red nucleus?

A

Rich vascular supply, iron pigment in cell bodies, relay nuclei for descending pathways influencing limb flexion

240
Q

What is the pons?

A

Primarily conduction tracts, some run longitudinally between higher brain centers and spinal cord, others oriented transversely to communicate with the cerebellum

241
Q

Trigeminal, facial, and abducens nerves and other pons nuclei are:

A

Part of the reticular formation and others are involved in respiration

242
Q

The medulla oblongata runs from the:

A

pons to the spinal cord

243
Q

What is the function of the medulla?

A

Autonomic reflex center for homeostasis. Cardiovascular centers, respiratory centers, vomiting, swallowing, hiccupping, coughing, sneezing

244
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Processes inputs from cerebral motor cortex, brainstem nuclei, and sensory receptors. Influences the timing and patterns of skeletal muscle contraction for smooth, daily movements.

245
Q

What are the 3 lobes of the cerebellum?

A

Anterior, posterior, flocculonodular

246
Q

Anterior and posterior lobes of the cerebellum have overlapping:

A

Sensory and motor maps of the body

247
Q

What is the function of the flocculonodular lobes?

A

Receive input from equilibrium sensors. Controls balance and some eye movements

248
Q

What is the function of the cerebellar peduncles?

A

Connect the cerebellum to the brainstem. Virtually all fibers are ipsilateral

249
Q

Function of the superior (outgoing) peduncles:

A

Connect cerebellum and midbrain. Fibers originate from neurons in deep cerebellar nuclei and project to cerebral motor cortex via the thalamus

250
Q

Function of the middle (incoming) peduncles:

A

Connect pons and cerebellum. One-way communication from pons to cerebellar neurons (informs cerebellum of voluntary motor activities initiated by motor cortex).

251
Q

Function of inferior (incoming) peduncles:

A

Connect cerebellum and medulla. Sensory information is sent to the cerebellum from muscle proprioceptors and vestibular nuclei of brainstem.

252
Q

Cerebellar processing to fine-tune motor activity:

A
  1. Cerebellum receives proprioceptive info from visual and equilibrium pathways
  2. Cerebellar cortex receives info and decides how to coordinate the body
  3. Via superior peduncles, cerebellum dispatches blueprint for coordination to CMC and brainstem nuclei, which project to motor neurons of the spinal cord
253
Q

Where is the limbic system located?

A

Medial aspect of each cerebral hemisphere and diencephalon; encircles the upper part of the brainstem

254
Q

What are the parts of the brain in the limbic system?

A

Amygdala, hippocampus, anterior cingulate gyrus

255
Q

What is the reticular formation?

A

Central core of medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain. Neurons project to hypothalamus, thalamus, cortex, cerebellum, and reticular activating system.

256
Q

What is the function of the reticular activating system?

A
  1. Maintains arousal by letting enough information in
  2. Filters incoming signals (disregard ~99% of incoming sensory stimuli so that volume of info is manageable)
257
Q

What is the conus medullaris?

A

Termination of the spinal cord

258
Q

What is the function of dorsal root ganglia?

A

House cell bodies of associated sensory neurons. Their axons enter the spinal cord to
1. travel to higher cord/brain centers
2. synapse with interneurons in posterior horns at the level they enter

259
Q

Layers of protection of the CNS:

A
  1. Bones
  2. Meninges
  3. CSF
  4. Blood-brain barrier
260
Q

What is the function of the meninges?

A
  1. cover and protect the CNS
  2. protect blood vessels and enclose venous sinuses
  3. contain CSF
  4. form partitions within the skull
261
Q

What is the dura mater?

A

Tough, 2 layers around the brain (outer periosteal, inner meningeal). Around the brain, 2 layers are fused except where they enclose dural sinuses

262
Q

What are the 3 dural septi?

A
  1. Falx cerebri
  2. Falx cerebelli
  3. Tentorium cerebelli
263
Q

What is the arachnoid mater?

A

Loose covering separated from dura mater by the subdural space.

264
Q

he space between the arachnoid and pia mater is called the:

A

Subarachnoid space

265
Q

What is the role of arachnoid granulations (villi) in accumulation of CSF?

A

They are sites of resorption

266
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges

267
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

Inflammation of the brain

268
Q

What is CSF?

A

Liquid cushion to give buoyancy to CNS tissue, also protective and nutritive roles. Secreted by choroid plexus

269
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Accumulation of CSF in the CNS

270
Q

What is the purpose of the blood-brain barrier?

A

Some hormones also act as neurotransmitters; some ions can increase the rate of neuronal firing. The blood-brain barrier prevents these hormones from adversely impacting the brain

271
Q

What are the 3 layers of the blood-brain barrier?

A
  1. Continuous epithelium of capillary wall (very impermeable tight junctions)
  2. Thick basal lamina containing enzymes to destroy chemicals that can act on neurons
  3. bulbous feet of astrocytes + pericytes (maintain endothelial cells and stimulate formation of tight junctions)
272
Q

What gets through the blood-brain barrier?

A

Glucose, essential amino acids, some electrolytes, fats, fatty acids, oxygen, carbon dioxide, fat-soluble molecules

273
Q

What are metabolic effects of the sympathetic NS?

A
  1. Increases metabolic rate of body cells
  2. Raises blood glucose levels
  3. Stimulates mobilization of fats
  4. Increases mental alertness
  5. Increases speed/strength of muscle contraction
274
Q

What is a portal system?

A

A direct link between capillaries in 2 different organs

275
Q

What connects the pituitary to the hypothalamus?

A

Infundibulum

276
Q

What is the function of the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A

Consists of axon terminals, serves as a hormone storage area. Does NOT produce hormones

ANP 1111 (7 decks)

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